Obstetric Flashcards

1
Q

Amniotic fluid embolism

A. can be associated with a mortality rate of 80%
B. has an incidence of 1 in 2000 pregnancies
C. is an uncommon cause of peripartum death
D. is associated with a small chance of complications in survivors
E. only presents during labour or caesarean section

A

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SF62 ANZCA version [2004-Aug] Q125, [2005-Apr] Q18, [Jul07]

Amniotic fluid embolism

A. can be associated with a mortality rate of 80%
B. has an incidence of 1 in 2000 pregnancies
C. is an uncommon cause of peripartum death
D. is associated with a small chance of complications in survivors
E. only presents during labour or caesarean section
ANSWER A

A - True - Mortality approaches 80%, 90% have cardiac arrest.
However, probably due improved vigilance, medical care and inclusion of less severe cases, mortality is now reported as 20-40%

B - False - 1:15,000 to 1:50,000 Live Births

C - False - 3rd most common in UK and most common cause of direct maternal deaths in Australia, check out http://www.npsu.unsw.edu.au/NPSUweb.nsf/page/md2 …………… or more recent [1] (http://www.npsu.unsw.edu.au/NPSUweb.nsf/page/md3)

D - False - neonate 20% mortality, 50% with neurological deficit

E - False - Usually occurs during labor but has occurred during abortion, abdominal trauma, and amnioinfusion.

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2
Q

What are the risk factors for Amniotic Fluid Embolism?

A
  1. Maternal age > 35 years, multiparity
  2. Placental abnormalities: placenta previa, placental abruption
  3. Caesarean delivery or forceps/vacuum assisted
  4. Eclampsia
  5. Fetal distress, meconium stained liquor
  6. Induction/augmentation of labour : strong frequent or tetanic uterine contractions

**<20yo appears to be protective
**HIstory of AFE is not a RF

Timing :
70% during labor
20% during LUSCS
10% following vaginal delviery

Can also occur during
early gestation
second trimester abortions
amniocentesis, amnioinfusion
abdominal trauma

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3
Q

What are the risk factors for Amniotic Fluid Embolism?

A
  1. Maternal age > 35 years, multiparity
  2. Placental abnormalities: placenta previa, placental abruption
  3. Caesarean delivery or forceps/vacuum assisted
  4. Eclampsia
  5. Fetal distress, meconium stained liquor
  6. Induction/augmentation of labour : strong frequent or tetanic uterine contractions

**<20yo appears to be protective
**HIstory of AFE is not a RF

Timing :
70% during labor
20% during LUSCS
10% following vaginal delviery

Can also occur during
early gestation
second trimester abortions
amniocentesis, amnioinfusion
abdominal trauma

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4
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Amniotic Fluid Embolism?

A

Unclear at this stage.

Amnoitic fluid, mucin, fetal cells and hair enter the maternal circulation down a pressure gradient from the uterus to veins. Mainly through small tears in the lower uterine segment and endocervix.

3 proposed theories

  1. Mechanical obstruction of materal vasculature by amniotic fluid but this does not explain coagulopathy
  2. CLark in 1995 suggested Humoral mechanism : amniotic fluid found to contain inflammatory mediators (bradykinin, prostaglandins, leukotrines, platelet activating factor) which could explain coagulopathy, increased vascular permeability, vasodilation and bronchoconstriction.

1 and 2 largely discarded following discovery that amniotic and fetal cells are common finding in the vasculature of preganant women with no evidence of AFE.

  1. Histamine mediated in susceptilbe women similar to septic and anaphylatic shock
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5
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Amniotic Fluid Embolism?

A

Typically presents during labor and delivery or the immediate postpartum period (5 minutes), but also after
a. blunt abdominal trauma
b. cervical suture removal
c. transabdominal amniocentesis.

Non specific early signs : vomiting, chills, breathlessness.

Classical presentation sudden collapse and catastrophic

a. cardiovascular collapse : increase in both SVR and PVR, causing a transient hypertension resulting in LVF and Pulmonay oedema. Increasing heart strain, myocardial depression by activated mediator, myocardial ischemia secondary to hypoxemia quickly lead to hypotension and shock.

b. respiratory distress : pulmonary vasospasm and LVF result in rapid and profound hypoxaemia, can lead to ARDS type picture

c. coaguloapathy : 4 hours post initial presentation, activation of consumputive coagulopathy, rise APTT and PT with fall in fibrinogen, leading to DIC

d. fetal compromise

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6
Q

What is the incidence of AFE? What is the morbidity and mortality?

A
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7
Q

Factors which do NOT contribute to the increased risk of aspiration pneumonitis during pregnancy include

A. increased gastrin production

B. a tendency for the stomach to be pushed up against the left diaphragm

C. increased acidity of gastric secretion

D. increased volume of gastric secretion

E. decreased secretion of the hormone motilin

A

ANSWER E

A - Gastrin is produced by placenta during pregancy. Causing hypersecretion of gastric acid. Nearly all parturients have gastric pH under 2.5, and over 60% have gastric volumes greater than 25 mL.

B : stomach is pushed anterior and superior against left hemidiaphragm

C : See A

D : See A

E : mixed reports in the literature, levels may or may not change, but they are not clearly associated with an increased risk of aspiration

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8
Q

SF What increases the risk of threading an epidural catheter into a blood vessel?

A. not doing a CSE

B. injecting saline prior to threading catheter

C. LOR to saline instead of air

D. paramedine instead of midline approach

E. sitting position instead of lateral

A

ANSWER E

A - it is thought that CSE decreases risk by ensuring catheter is midline, but no documented research.

B : LOR NS decreases risk by distenting epidural space. OR 0.45 LOR NS vs LOR air.

C : See B

D : no difference (only 1 RCT showing this, ?insufficient data)

E : epidural vein engorgement/ distention is greater when sitting instead of lateral position. Risk of epidural vein cannulation is higher in sitting position.

Metanalysis of 7 techniques in obstretric women
1. position : supine vs sittting OR 0.53 6 RCT
2. approach : paramedian vs midline no difference 1 RCT
3. touhy size : 16 vs 18 no difference 1 RCT
4. LOR technique : NS vs air, OR 0.45 8 RCT
5. oriface catheter : single vs multi OR 0.64 5 RCT
6. wire embbeded catheter 1 RCT
7. limiting catheter insertion to 6cm, >7cm OR 0.27 3 RCT

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9
Q

Outline your management of AFE.

A

IMMEDIATE MANAGEMENT
Key Factors
-early recognition
-prompt resuscitation
-delivery of fetus
-input of consultants : anaesthetist, obstetrician, hematologist, intensivist

Oxygenation
-maintain oxygenation
-due to high maternal oxygen consumption and reduced FRC, desaturation occurs rapidly with significant neurological morbidity to mother and baby.
-intubate early by experienced clinician due to potential difficult airway.
-assist ventilation with PEEP

Haemodynamic
-rapid IV filling
-direct acting vasopressors
-inotropes if required
-CPR with left uterine displacement
-bimanual compression if bleeding results until surgical intervention
-anticipate haemorrhage : insert large bore IVC, order blood products early

Uterine tone
-maintained using oxytocin, ergometrine and prostaglandins (misoprostol)
-bimanual or uterine packing if required

Coagulation
-consumptive coagulopathy should be anticipated
-consult haemotologist early
-plasma, cryo, platelets
-recombinant factor VII

Delivery of baby
-CPR, surgical delivey within 5 min for improved maternal outcome

ICU MANAGEMENT
-supportive
-steriods
-prostacyclin or nitric oxide to improve oxygenation with ARDS
-ballon pump to assist LVF
-plasma exchange/haemofiltration to removed amniotic fluid debris
-ECMO

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10
Q

Differential diagnosis for maternal collapse?

A

Pregnancy specific
-AFE
-acute haemorrhage
-Uterine rupture
-Eclampsia
-Peropartum cardiomyopathy

Anaesthetic Specific Diagnosis
-high regional block
-local anaesthetic toxicity

Non obstretic causes
-pulmonary emobolism
-air embolism
-anaphylaxis
-sepsis
-cardiac ischemia
-arrhythmia
-transfusion reaction

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11
Q

Best immediate treatment of severe post-partum haemorrhage after delivery of a complete placenta:

A. IV Ergometrine

B. Blood transfusion

C. Evacuation of uterus without blood transfusion

D. Bimanual compression of the uterus

E. Aortic compression

A

ANSWER A

All answers are correct, but the ‘best immediate treatment’

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12
Q

Maternal cardiac arrest. In making the diagnosis of amniotic fluid embolism, large amount of PMNs surrounding foetal squamous cells are

A. Pathonomonic

B. Supportive

C. Only found at postmortem

D. Irrelevant

E. Incidental

A

ANSWER B

No diagnostic test for AFE, it is diagnosis of exclusion.

Non specific tests
FBE : anaemia, thrombocytosis
Coag : consumptive coagulopathy
ABG : hypoxemia, low Pa02 to FiO2 ratio
CXR : early ARDS
ECG : strain, arrythmias

Diagnostic test
-cytological analysis of central venous blood and broncho-alveolar fluid
-Sialyl tn antigen test
-zinc coproporphyrin
-serum tryptase levels

all are non specific and only suggestive of AFE

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13
Q

Labour epidurals increase maternal and foetal temperature. This results in neonatal:

A. Increased sepsis

B. Increased investigations for sepsis

C. increased non shivering thermogenesis

D. Increased need for resuscitation

E. Cerebral palsy

A

ANSWER B

Chestnut’s Obstetric Anesthesia: Principles and Practice (4th Edn), Chestnut et al. 2009; p457.

Labour epidural analgesia is associated with an increase in maternal core body temperature, but also with an increased neonatal temperature and fetal heart rate. Several studies have shown that labour epidural analgesia is associated with increased neonatal neonatal sepsis evaluations, but no increase in neonatal sepsis.

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14
Q

Most common cause of maternal cardiac arrest

A. Pulmonary embolism

B. Amniotic fluid embolism

C. Haemorrhage

D. Preeclampsia

E. Cardiomyopathy

A

ANSWER B

CEMACH ???

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15
Q

SF84 [Apr07] Q112
Analgesic requirements during labour are reduced by each of the following except
A. Acupressure

B. Acupuncture

C. Hypnosis

D. One to one support by midwife

E. TENS

A

ANSWER A

AMPSE : “complementary and other methods of pain relief in labour”
Midwife/support person one on one- reduces analgesic use (level 1) hypnosis- decreased requirement for phar,acological analgesia (level 1) acupunture- decreased need for analgesics (level 1)
TENS- “evidence of a weak opioid sparing effect” (level 1) no mention of acupressure

‘Analgesia in labour: non-regional techniques’ Caroline Fortescue, Michael YK Wee BJA CEA CCP Volume 5 Number 1 2005 p9-13

  • Acupuncture (Acupressure, laser acupuncture) - One RCT of 100 women in Sweden comparing acupuncture with no acupuncture suggested former group needed less analgesia, including epidurals
  • Hypnosis - Cochrane review of three RCTs: one reported less anaesthesia and another less narcotic use, but overall meta-analysis showed no difference in the need for pain relief
  • Continuous support - Cochrane review of 15 RCTs involving 12 791 women. Those with continuous support, as opposed to conventional care, were less likely to have intrapartum analgesia, operative birth or be dissatisfied with their experiences
  • TENS - Systematic review of eight RCTs failed to demonstrate analgesic effect
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16
Q

38yo obese female with DM, other comorbidities, undergoing LSCS with spinal anaesthetic with a 27G Whitacre needle, having this and that, blah, blah. then two days later complains of numbness on a small patch on lateral aspect of mid-thigh. On full neuro exam - no other signs/symptoms.

A. conus medullaris injury

B. L2 nerve root compression

C. L3 root lesion

D. L4 root lesion

E. meralgia paraesthetica

A

ANSWER E

A : Conus medullaris ends at L1/L2
Sudden bilateral pain with dural puncture,
Reflex : knee jerk preserved, ankles affected
Radicular pain : minimal
Lumbargo : severe
Sensroy : saddle numbness, symmetrical and bilateral
Motor : symmetric, hyperreflexic distal paresis
Sphinter dysfunction

E: Meralgia Paresthetica
Mono neuropathy of lateral cutaneous nerve (purely sensory over anterolateral thigh, no motor)
Focal entrapment as it passes through inguinal ligament
Causes : DM, pregnancy, tight clothing, obesity, fetal position
Treatment is conservative, lignicaine + steriod injection if paraesthesia is bad.

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17
Q

A 25yo primipara with an uncomplicated pregnancy presents to delivery suite in labour at term. Her membranes spontaneously rupture soon after, and it is blood-stained. At the same time, a severe foetal bradycardia appears on the CTG. What is the most likely cause of this?

A. Placenta accreta

B. Placental abruption

C. Uterine rupture

D. Vasa praevia

E. True knot in the umbilical cord

A

ANSWER D

A : Placenta Accreta
-abnormally deep attachment of the placenta, through the endometrium and into the myometrium
-bleeding occurs when placenta removed post birth **Cause of PPH
-1:2,500 pregnancy
-very rarely recognized before birth, and is very difficult to diagnose
Placenta Increta - invasion past myoemtrium
Placenta Percreta - invasion through uterine serosa into neighbouring organs (bladder)
RF - uterine surgery, LUSCS, myomectomy

B : Placental Abruption
-abnormal separation of placenta from uterine wall 20 weeks after
-symptoms : pain, pallor, fetal distress, raising fundus (continued bleeding)
-in severe cases PV bleeding
-RF : maternal hypertension, abdominal trauma, short umbilical cord, prolonged ruptured of membranes, <20 >35, prev abruption

C : Uterine rupture
-usually during labor
-integrity of myometrium breached
-similar presentation to placental abruption, but pain and bleeding follow fetal distress
-RF : LUSCS, previous uterine surgery, induction, high parity

D : Vasa Praevia
The classic triad are membrane rupture followed immediately by painless vaginal bleeding and fetal bradycardia

E : True Knot
Painless
Fetal distress

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18
Q

Patient with placenta acreta. Surgical management MOST likely to save her life

A B lynch suture around the uterus for external tamponade

B Rusch balloon in the uterus for internal tamponade

C ligation of the internal iliac arteries

D ligation of the uterine arteries

E subtotal or total hysterectomy

A

ANSWER E

Tricky question.

A : B-Lynch Suture - Developed in 1997 by B Lynch. Heavy suture that envolopes and mechanically compress an atonic uterus in severe PPH, not yet used much in SE asia. No data so far to suggest usefulness in Placenta Acreta.

B : Rusch balloon
-used for atony or lower segment bleeding

C : Ligation of internal iliac arteries
-high rate of failure 50% as uterine arteries still bleeding

D : Ligation of uterine arteries
-high rate of failure 50% as internal iliac still bleeding

E : subtotal or total hysterectomy
-indicated if accreta is diagosed before delivery.
-hysterectomy is performed with placenta still intact

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19
Q

During laparoscopic surgery, pneumoperitoneum usually results in a fall in cardiac output when intra-abdominal pressure exceeds

A. 10 mmHg….

B. 20 mmHg

C. 30 mmHg

D. 40 mmHg

E. 50 mmHg

A

ANSWER B

Reference CEACCP 2004, V4,107:

IAP < 10 mm Hg: increases VR, increases CO

IAP 10–20 mm Hg decreases VR, decreases CO BUT increases SVR and therefore BP unchanged or increased

IAP > 20 mm Hg greater decrease VR, greater decrease CO, so decreases BP

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20
Q

True of False

  1. Regional anaesthesia is impossible with laboring women with scoliosis.
  2. Routine fluid loading is not required with low dose techniques as hypotension is uncommon.
  3. CSA is inferior to epidurals
A
  1. False
    Thoraco-lumbar scoliosis if 4 times more common in females (incidence 2%)

Corrective surgery has improved recently, but older posterior approach obliterates or distorts epidural space with fibrous scar tissue, blood clot or metalwork crossing the midline.

Cephalo-pelvic disproportion is increased in scoliosis therefore instrumentation and LUSCS increased 2.5 fold

Disadvantages include technical difficulties identifying epidural space, patchy/poor analgesia, inadvertant subdural or intrathecal catheter placement and subsequent PDPH

Techniques to find epidural space
1. Gain access to epidural space below surgical scar
2. CSE
3. CSA

Case reports indicate successful placement in 50% of women with scoliosis

  1. TRUE
    Level 1 evidence that hypotension is uncommon
    Low dose is 25mg bupivacaine
    Higher doses will require IV prelaoding as incidence of hypotension increases
  2. False
    CSA is associated with better early analgesia, less motor block, higher maternal satisfaction
    However, pruitus is more common and technically more difficult, with higher failure rates.
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21
Q

Describe your technique for Continuous Spinal Anaesthesia.

A

In 1992, multiple cases of cauda equina syndrome associated with micro-catheters due to hyperbaric lodicaine solution lead to withdrawal of micro-catheters from US market

Advantages
-level can be titrated
-slow gradual administration
-reduced risk of high spinal
-reduced risk f cardiovascular instability

Equipment
1. 22G Spinocath Catheter
2. 27G Needle

Position : Sitting or lying

Method : routine spinal
Over the needle technique
3cm into space
CSA regimen for labor
Initial dose 1ml of 0.25% plain bupivacaine plus 15ug fentanyl
1ml increments of 0.25% plain buprivacine every 5 min until pain free
Subsequent 1ml doses every 45-60min

CSA regimen for LUSCS
1ml of 0.5% hyperbaric bupivacaine with 15ug fentanyl
Further 1ml of 0.5% bupivacaine until block sensory block reaches T5

22
Q

Describe the COMET study

A

Comparative Obstetric Mobile Epidural Trial
RCT Conducted in the UK between 1999-2000
Compared 3 groups
1. Epidural 0.25% bupivacaine infusion
2. Low-dose CSE followed by epidural low dose boluses
3. Low-epidural infusion

Findings
1. Normal vaginal delivery lower in higher concentration epidural infusion (1. 35%, 2. 43%, 3. 43%)
2. Higher rates of instrumentation
3. Worse APGAR scores

Interpretation
Low dose epidural techiques for labor analgesia has benefits for delivery outcome for mother and baby.

NOTE
PCEA has been recently established as preferred mode of epidural drug delivery
1. decrease in local anaesthetic consumption without compromising analgesia
2. lower rate of top-up boluses
3. increase maternal and midwife satisfaction
4. lower rates of motor block

less rates of instrumentation

23
Q

Describe the stages of labor.

A

Stages of Normal Labor

Stage 1 (s1) 0cm to Fully Dilated
-includes both latent and active phases
-Latent phase : prodromal labor, cervical effacement occurs (thinning and stretching of cervix), ends with the onset of active first stage, when cervix is 3cm dilated
-Active phase : cervical dilation, cervical effacement followed by descent of presenting part
-Graded by Bishop Score : Position, Consistency, Effacement, Dilation, Fetal Station;
-Score <5 suggest labor is unlikely to start without induction
-Score >9 suggest labor will occur spontaneously

Seond Stage : fetal delivery
-flexion
-descent
-rotation of presenting part

Third Stage : Delivery of placenta

24
Q

What is the mortality asssociated with the different modes of delivery?

A

Vaginal Delivery : 1.7 per 10,000

Elective CS : 2.9 per 10,000

Urgent CS : 10.2 per 10,000

Emergency CS : 20 per 10,000

25
Q

What are the fetal risks with delivery?

A

Risk of Neonatal Encephalopathy defined as difficulty initiating and maintaining respiration, depression of tone and reflexes, subnormal consciousness and often seizures
1. Acute intrapartum event OR 4.4
2. Operative VD OR 2.3
3. Emergency CS OR 2.2
4. Elective CS OR 0.17

Neonatal Intrancranial Injury (compared to NVD)
Vacuum OR 2.7
Forceps OR 3.4
CS OR 2.5

Rates of birthday injuries (fractures and nerve injuries) reduced by 50% with CS

Perinatal transmission of HIV, Hep B, Hep C, HSV and HPV reduced with elective CS

26
Q

preeclampsia

A. once delivery of the placenta takes place, the condition improves

B. in the absence of other risk factors a platelet count of greater than 50 is adequate for epidural anaesthesia

C. corticosteroid therapy has no effect on the severity of thrombocytopenia

D. magnesium sulphate halves the incidence of eclampsia
E. spinal anaesthesia contraindicated

A

ANSWER A

A. FALSE : after delivery of the placenta, pre-eclampsia usually improves, can take 3 months to improve.

B. FALSE : Obstetric Anaesthesia Scientific Evidence from ANZCA gives 75 as a safe figure, but must be balanced against operator experience and other clinical risk factors for coagulopathy

C. FALSE : Consistent with observational studies, dexamethasone was shown to significantly increase the platelet count. This however did not translate to improvement in outcomes and the clinical relevance of this is unclear.

D. TRUE : Magnesium sulphate halves the risk of eclampsia, and probably reduces the risk of maternal death. There do not appear to be substantive harmful effects to mother or baby in the short term.” From MAGPIE.

E. FALSE : Regional blockade is the preferred method of anaesthesia for caesarean section (Level II). There is currently insufficient evidence to support any specific type.

27
Q

SF57 ANZCA version [2003-Aug] Q143, [2004-Apr] Q66, [Mar06]

During elective caesarean section under spinal anaesthesia

A. maternal hypotension requiring intervention is infrequent

B. the duration that the maternal systolic blood pressure is below 100 mmHg is of less importance for producing adverse cord blood acid-base measures than the degree of fall in systolic blood pressure

C. there is a significant difference between the use of rescue boluses compared to infused prophylactic ephedrine on the status of cord blood acid-base measures

D. there is less nausea and vomiting if ephedrine is prophylactically infused compared to using it as a rescue bolus to treat any maternal hypotension when it does occur

E. there is no adverse effect from maternal hypotension on cord blood acid-base values

A

ANSWER D

A. FALSE : Hypotension is defined as SBP<100 or decrease in SAP 10-30%. Incidence of hypotension during spinal LSCS is 80-90%. It is associated with hypotension which influences uterine blood flow. Roberts et al and Mueller et al have documented higher rate of retal acidemia after regional anaesthesia for elective LUSCS.

B. FALSE : marked or prolong hypotension are likely to be assocated with fetal asphyxia and/or acidosis. However, the degree
and duration of hypotension that is likely to be harmful to the fetus in humans is undetermined

C. FALSE : fetal cord blood pH shown to be lower in a dose dependant manner. However, rescue compared to infused showed no difference in cord pH

D. TRUE
D. TRUE

E. FALSE

28
Q

Acute tocolysis in labour

Indications
Drugs and doses

A

Describe your technique for Continuous Spinal Anaesthesia.

In 1992, multiple cases of cauda equina syndrome associated with micro-catheters due to hyperbaric lodicaine solution lead to withdrawal of micro-catheters from US market

Advantages
-level can be titrated
-slow gradual administration
-reduced risk of high spinal
-reduced risk f cardiovascular instability

Equipment
1. 22G Spinocath Catheter
2. 27G Needle

Position : Sitting or lying

Method : routine spinal
Over the needle technique
3cm into space
CSA regimen for labor
Initial dose 1ml of 0.25% plain bupivacaine plus 15ug fentanyl
1ml increments of 0.25% plain buprivacine every 5 min until pain free
Subsequent 1ml doses every 45-60min

CSA regimen for LUSCS
1ml of 0.5% hyperbaric bupivacaine with 15ug fentanyl
Further 1ml of 0.5% bupivacaine until block sensory block reaches T5

Epidurals True or False

  1. Inadvertent dural puncture occurs in approximately 1% of regional blocks
  2. Bloody Tap occurs in initial epidural intravenous placement occurs 6% and be removed
  3. Pruitis, paresthesia and backpain are more common with CSE than with epidural analgesia
  4. The incidence of PDPH is greater with CSE
  5. Accidental dural puncture is more common in NSLOR rather than air.
  6. TRUE; Pan et al 2004
  7. FALSE 6% of epidural catheters are placed intravenously as detected with bloody tap, but 46% re made functional by retracting 1-2cm
  8. TRUE
    Incidence of paresthesia 60%
    CSE is a RF for backpain
  9. FALSE
    Although the dura is punctured, the rates of headache is not increased because
    a. very fine gauge needle
    b. epidural catheter + solution increases epidural pressure
    =reduced risked for dural leak
  10. FALSE
    ADP NSLOR 0.69%
    ADP ALOR 1.11%

Describe the COMET study

Comparative Obstetric Mobile Epidural Trial
RCT Conducted in the UK between 1999-2000
Compared 3 groups
1. Epidural 0.25% bupivacaine infusion
2. Low-dose CSE followed by epidural low dose boluses
3. Low-epidural infusion

Findings
1. Normal vaginal delivery lower in higher concentration epidural infusion (1. 35%, 2. 43%, 3. 43%)
2. Higher rates of instrumentation
3. Worse APGAR scores

Interpretation
Low dose epidural techiques for labor analgesia has benefits for delivery outcome for mother and baby.

NOTE
PCEA has been recently established as preferred mode of epidural drug delivery
1. decrease in local anaesthetic consumption without compromising analgesia
2. lower rate of top-up boluses
3. increase maternal and midwife satisfaction
4. lower rates of motor block

less rates of instrumentation

Describe the stages of labor.

Stages of Normal Labor

Stage 1 (s1) 0cm to Fully Dilated
-includes both latent and active phases
-Latent phase : prodromal labor, cervical effacement occurs (thinning and stretching of cervix), ends with the onset of active first stage, when cervix is 3cm dilated
-Active phase : cervical dilation, cervical effacement followed by descent of presenting part
-Graded by Bishop Score : Position, Consistency, Effacement, Dilation, Fetal Station;
-Score <5 suggest labor is unlikely to start without induction
-Score >9 suggest labor will occur spontaneously

Seond Stage : fetal delivery
-flexion
-descent
-rotation of presenting part

Third Stage : Delivery of placenta

What is the mortality asssociated with the different modes of delivery?

Vaginal Delivery : 1.7 per 10,000

Elective CS : 2.9 per 10,000

Urgent CS : 10.2 per 10,000

Emergency CS : 20 per 10,000

What are the fetal risks with delivery?

Risk of Neonatal Encephalopathy defined as difficulty initiating and maintaining respiration, depression of tone and reflexes, subnormal consciousness and often seizures
1. Acute intrapartum event OR 4.4
2. Operative VD OR 2.3
3. Emergency CS OR 2.2
4. Elective CS OR 0.17

Neonatal Intrancranial Injury (compared to NVD)
Vacuum OR 2.7
Forceps OR 3.4
CS OR 2.5

Rates of birthday injuries (fractures and nerve injuries) reduced by 50% with CS

Perinatal transmission of HIV, Hep B, Hep C, HSV and HPV reduced with elective CS

SF56 ANZCA version [2002-Aug] Q109, [2003-Apr] Q75 [Mar06]

In preeclampsia

A. once delivery of the placenta takes place, the condition improves

B. in the absence of other risk factors a platelet count of greater than 50 is adequate for epidural anaesthesia

C. corticosteroid therapy has no effect on the severity of thrombocytopenia

D. magnesium sulphate halves the incidence of eclampsia
E. spinal anaesthesia contraindicated

ANSWER A

A. FALSE : after delivery of the placenta, pre-eclampsia usually improves, can take 3 months to improve.

B. FALSE : Obstetric Anaesthesia Scientific Evidence from ANZCA gives 75 as a safe figure, but must be balanced against operator experience and other clinical risk factors for coagulopathy

C. FALSE : Consistent with observational studies, dexamethasone was shown to significantly increase the platelet count. This however did not translate to improvement in outcomes and the clinical relevance of this is unclear.

D. TRUE : Magnesium sulphate halves the risk of eclampsia, and probably reduces the risk of maternal death. There do not appear to be substantive harmful effects to mother or baby in the short term.” From MAGPIE.

E. FALSE : Regional blockade is the preferred method of anaesthesia for caesarean section (Level II). There is currently insufficient evidence to support any specific type.

SF57 ANZCA version [2003-Aug] Q143, [2004-Apr] Q66, [Mar06]

During elective caesarean section under spinal anaesthesia

A. maternal hypotension requiring intervention is infrequent

B. the duration that the maternal systolic blood pressure is below 100 mmHg is of less importance for producing adverse cord blood acid-base measures than the degree of fall in systolic blood pressure

C. there is a significant difference between the use of rescue boluses compared to infused prophylactic ephedrine on the status of cord blood acid-base measures

D. there is less nausea and vomiting if ephedrine is prophylactically infused compared to using it as a rescue bolus to treat any maternal hypotension when it does occur

E. there is no adverse effect from maternal hypotension on cord blood acid-base values

ANSWER D

A. FALSE : Hypotension is defined as SBP<100 or decrease in SAP 10-30%. Incidence of hypotension during spinal LSCS is 80-90%. It is associated with hypotension which influences uterine blood flow. Roberts et al and Mueller et al have documented higher rate of retal acidemia after regional anaesthesia for elective LUSCS.

B. FALSE : marked or prolong hypotension are likely to be assocated with fetal asphyxia and/or acidosis. However, the degree
and duration of hypotension that is likely to be harmful to the fetus in humans is undetermined

C. FALSE : fetal cord blood pH shown to be lower in a dose dependant manner. However, rescue compared to infused showed no difference in cord pH

D. TRUE
D. TRUE

E. FALSE

Acute tocolysis in labour

Indications
Drugs and doses

Tocolysis refers to the suppression of preterm labor to delay delivery.

Indications
1. Pre-term labor in an otherwise uncomplicated pregnancy
a. to extend delivery past 37 weeks : pre term labor is a major contributor to perinatal mortality and morbidity especially before 34 weeks
b. enable manipulations for breech or transverse lie
c. allow intra-uterine transfer to tertiary centre with NICU support

Short-term tocolysis to enable
a. administration of steroids
b. intra-uterine transfer to tertiary centre
c. fetal distress to allow emergency LUSCS
Intraoperative (LSCS)
a. ease fetal extraction
b. inverted uterus

Contraindications : any contraindication to prolonged labor
-known lethal congenital or chromosomal malformation
-intra uterine infection
-severe preclampsia
- placental abruption
-advanced cervical dilation

Terbutaline:
-250 micograms IV or SC: Recommended at the Royal Women’s Hospital
* The ampoule comes as 500mcg/1ml. The volume to be given is therefore 0.5ml IV if there is already IV access, or 0.5ml SC if there is not.

IV Salbutamol:
100 micrograms IV
* Make up 1 ampoule of salbutamol sulphate for injection 500 µg (NOT Ventolin Obstetric), to 10 ml in normal saline (final concentration 50 µg/ml)
* Administer 100 µg (2 ml of the preparation, above) over 1-2 minutes
* May be repeated after 5 minutes if hypertonus sustained

Sublingual GTN spray: 400 µg
* Product in form of sublingual spray (Nitrolingual ®)
* One metered spray (=400 µg) administered under the tongue
* If response is inadequate, repeat the dose after 5 minutes
* If FHR tracing is non-reassuring, and tocolysis (as above) ineffective

Magnesium Infusion

Nifedipine
-Initial dose of 20mg
-Followed by 10-20mg 3-4 per day
-adjust according to degreee of uterine relaxation
-use only for 48 hours

Atosivan (oxytocin receptor anatagonist)
-initial dose of 6.75mg IV over 1 minute
-infusion 18mg/hour for 3 hours then 6mg/hour for up to 45 hours (2 days)

Indomethecin

29
Q

Multiple sclerosis in pregnancy is

A. a contraindication for epidural anaesthesia in labour

B. a contraindication for the use of suxamethonium

C. associated with an increased caesarean section rate

D. associated with an increase in relapse rate postpartum

E. associated with a worse fetal outcome

A

ANSWER D

A - False - Neuraxial blockade is associated with exacerbations but epidural analgesia for labour is not contraindicated as long as local anaesthetic concentrations are kept to a minimum
B - False - Relative contraindication and is dependent on the magnitude of denervation/disability as to the K efflux from sux. Sux should be avoided.

D - True
o Pregnancy appears to have a relatively protective effect on women with MS. The number of MS exacerbations is reduced during pregnancy, especially in the second and third trimesters
o Exacerbation rates may rise in the first three to six months postpartum, and the risk of a relapse in the postpartum period is estimated to be 20-40%

30
Q

Epidural analgesia in labour

A. typically increases uterine perfusion in healthy women

B. can result in lateral rectus muscle palsy if complicated by dural puncture

C. is particularly indicated for mothers with aortic stenosis

D. may cause hyperglycaemia in the presence of diabetes mellitus

E. may be lethal in the presence of maternal mitral stenosis if, following delivery, the block is prolonged

A

ANSWER B

Answer: B (C - epi can be done, but not particularly indicated for)
• A. False - “Continuous epidural analgesia with bupivacaine 0.075% increases the resistance of uterine artery and therefore possibly reduces the uterine blood flow”

• B. True - We believe that a dural puncture during an attempted epidural anesthetic resulted in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage with a consequent headache. The CSF leak caused traction on the sixth cranial nerve resulting in lateral rectus muscle palsy. An epidural blood patch performed after the onset of symptoms did not acutely resolve the abducens nerve palsy.”

o ‘The complications of accidental dural puncture include headache, high or total spinal anaesthesia, 6th cranial nerve palsy and subdural haemorrhage.

• C. True -traditionally contraindicated but now considered safe - epidural for labour indicated in AS. Epidural, CSE and spinal also been safely used in patients with AS for caesarian section

• D. False - Epidural reduces the stress in labour and enables better glucose control, therefore is indicated.

• E. ?False - epidural indicated for labour in MS. Epidural and CSE also used for C/S. No evidence found for mortality after prolonged block, no mention early removal.

31
Q

Lumbar epidural analgesia in labour using 0.125% bupivacaine

A. improves FVC (forced vital capacity) if the upper sensory level is kept below T12
B. improves FVC and FEV1 (forced expiratory volume in one second) if upper sensory
level is kept below T12
C. improves FVC, even if the sensory level is above T10
D. improves FVC and FEV1, even if the sensory level is above T10
E. reduces FVC and FEV1 if the sensory level is above T10

A

ANSWER D

Seems to be based on a study from Anaesthesia Volume 59 Page 350 - April 2004 The effect of epidural analgesia in labour on maternal respiratory function. The respiratory function measurements were taken with mothers completely PAIN FREE, so must have had a block to T10: “As soon as a sensory blockade above T10 was obtained, we started a continuous infusion of 10 ml.h−1 bupivacaine 0.125% with fentanyl 0.0001%…The upper sensory level of epidural analgesia was T8 (T6–T8[T4–T10])” from above article. FVC, FEV1, and PEF all improved.

32
Q

Complications of diabetes mellitus in the pregnant patient include each of the
following EXCEPT

A. increased risk of oligohydramnios
B. greater risk of foetal death in the third trimester
C. retinopathy and retinal detachment
D. potentiation of hypotension when regional anaesthesia is administered
to assist delivery
E. reduced foetal oxygen delivery

A

ANSWER A
Complications of Diabetes mellitus for baby:

  1. increased fetal malformations, persists despite better treatment of T1DM. two- to sixfold increase in major malformations. Mainly neurological (neural tube), cardiac and sacral.
  2. supply demand relationship affects: maternal vasculopathy, preeclampsia, hyperglycaemia and DKA causing poor placental perfusion AND the fetus has increased metabolic needs due to hyperinsulinism and macrosomia.
  3. stillbirth previously occurred in 10-30% of T1DM, usually after 36weeks, thought to be due to chronic intrauterine hypoxia.
  4. fetal umbilical cord blood samples from pregnant women with type 1 diabetics have demonstrated “relative fetal erythremia and lactic acidemia.”
  5. macrosomic children: birth trauma, obesity when older
  6. neonatal hypoglycaemia
  7. respiratory distress syndrome
  8. polycythaemia and jaundice
  9. Ca and Mg metabolic changes
33
Q

A woman has an epidural placed for forceps delivery after a prolonged second stage of labour.
The next day she has a right foot drop, and numbness over the anterior part of her lower leg
and the dorsal surface of her right foot. The most likely cause is

A. L4 nerve root lesion from trauma during epidural placement
B. L5 nerve root lesion from trauma during epidural placement
C. L5 nerve root lesion from an acute disc protrusion
D. right common peroneal nerve lesion from compression by lithotomy stirrups
E. right lumbar plexus lesion from compression by the fetal head

A

ANSWER E

34
Q

RB38b ANZCA version [2002-Aug] Q124

A woman has an epidural placed for forceps delivery after a prolonged second stage of labour.
The next day she has a right foot drop, and numbness over the anterior part of her lower leg
and the dorsal surface of her right foot. The most likely cause is

A. right common peroneal nerve lesion from the use of stirrups in the lithotomy position
B. right L5 nerve root lesion from the epidural placement
C. right lumbar plexus lesion from compression by the fetal head
D. L5 nerve root lesion from a disc protrusion
E. transient neurological symptoms (TNS) syndrome

A

ANSWER C

35
Q

PZ127 ANZCA Version [2006-Mar] Q136

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs given during pregnancy, have been associated
with all of the following EXCEPT:

A. foetal cardiac complications if given in late pregnancy
B. foetal renal complications if given in late pregnancy
C. increased production of amniotic fluid
D. increased risk of miscarriage
E. persistent neonatal pulmonary hypertension

A

ANSWER C

This is directly form the ANZCA Acute Pain Book. All the answers there under section “The Pregnant Patient”. Foetal cardiac and renal problems with late use of nsaids, realtively safe in early pregnancy, should be discontinued by 32nd week. Definitely wrong one is increased amniotic fluid production.

36
Q

SF80 ANZCA Version [2006-Mar] Q138

In relation to nausea during obstetric regional anaesthesia

A. atropine is more effective treatment than vasopressors when there is a high spinal block
B. nausea is worse with phenylephrine infusion compared to ephedrine infusion
C. phenylephrine increases the emetic effect of decreased preload
D. metoclopramide is the treatment of choice
E. ondansetron is the treatment of choice

A

ANSWER A

Nausea and vomiting may have been secondary to an absolute, or relative, increase in vagal tone. There is evidence for a vagal mechanism causing nausea during spinal anesthesia. Atropine has been found to be more effective at treating nausea associated with high spinal anesthesia than vasopressors. More recently, glycopyrrolate has been found to reduce nausea during spinal anesthesia for cesarean delivery

37
Q

SF79 ANZCA Version [2006-Mar] Q140

Regarding the use of adrenergic drugs to maintain normotension during
regional anesthesia for elective caesarean section

A. alpha-adrenergic agonists are associated with increased fetal acidosis
B. alpha-adrenergic agonists are associated with reduced uteroplacental perfusion
C. ephedrine increases fetal heart rate and catecholamine levels
D. phenylephrine is associated with increased nausea and vomiting compared with ephedrine
E. prophylactic ephedrine decreases the incidence of fetal acidosis

A

ANSWER C

Either phenylephrine, metaraminol or ephedrine may be used for the management (prevention and treatment) of hypotension during spinal anaesthesia in obstetrics.A recent quantiative systematic review of controlling trials comparing ephedrine with phenylephrine found NO difference between the 2 drugs in their ability to manage hypotension, except for a higher incidence of maternal bradycardia with phenylephrine. There was NO difference between the two vasopressors in the incidence of foetal acidosis (umbilical pH <7.2)

38
Q

PH59 ANZCA version [Jul 06] Q58

In a normal pregnant woman laboratory tests would show:

A. an arterial pH of 7.4
B. an increase in functional residual capacity (FRC)
C. decreased oxygen consumption
D. an arterial base excess of +5mmol.l-1
E. a PaCO2 of 50 mmHg

A

ANSWER A

To quote KB: “This is the only example of full acid-base compensation in normal physiology.”

  • pH increases to 7.41-7.46 A&IC 33:2 p168 table (2005).
  • FRC decreased during pregnancy
  • pCO2 decreased to 30-32 mmHg
39
Q

SF72 ANZCA Version [Jul06] Q147, [Apr07]

A 38-year-old primigravida presents with progressive dyspnoea in late pregnancy. The strongest
indicator for further investigation would be

A. a 2/6 systolic ejection murmur
B. a raised JVP (jugular venous pressure)
C. a third heart sound
D. orthopnea
E. peripheral oedema

A

ANSWER B

normal changes
-increase in end-diastolic chamber size
-increase in total L ventricular wall thickness
-CVP unchange
-asymtomatic pericardial effusion
-an innocent grade I or II systolic heart murmur
-S3, or S4 in late pregnancy
-ECG: increase in benign dysrhythmias, reversible ST, T and Q wave changes and some L axis deviation.

indication of heart disease:
-systolic murmur greater than grade III
-any diastolic murmur
-severe arrthymias
-unequivacol cardiac enlargement on x-ray.
-presence of congestive heart failure is suggested by hepatomegally and jugular venous distension
paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, chest pain, nocturnal cough, new regurgitant murmurs, pulmonary crackles, elevated jugular venous pressure and hepatomegaly.

40
Q

SF73 ANZCA Version [Jul06] Q146, [Apr07] Q145

Drugs that may be used for the management of heart failure, secondary to dilated cardiomyopathy
in pregnancy, include each of the following EXCEPT

A. ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitor
B. beta-blockers
C. digoxin
D. loop diuretics
E. nitrates

A

ASNWER A

  • A. ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitor - true: Category D
  • B. beta-blockers - false: Oxyprenolol routinely used for pregnancy induced hypertension. Category C
  • C. digoxin - false: Category A
  • D. loop diuretics - false: Category C
  • E. nitrates - false: Cat B2
41
Q

SF74 ANZCA Version [Jul06] Q140

Immediately following delivery by caesarean section under regional anaesthesia a previously healthy
primigradiva complains of chest pain and breathlessness, and then becomes unconscious. The most
likely diagnosis is

A. accidental administration of suxamethonium
B. air embolism
C. amniotic fluid embolism
D. anaphylaxis to syntocinon
E. pulmonary thromboembolism

A

ANSWER B

This is a previously healthy patient who suddenly develops chest pain and breathlessness. I don’t have any specific references, other than memory of a tutorial at the Royal Hospital for Women, at which the presenter emphasised that the time immediately following delivery has a high risk for venous air embolism, especially if the uterus is exteriorised, due to the large number of vessels open to atmosphere at this stage

42
Q

SF12 ANZCA version [2002-Mar] Q22, [2002-Aug] Q50, [2004-Aug] Q60, [2005-Apr] Q63, [Apr07], [Mar10]

Supine hypotension during late pregnancy is associated with

A. a rise in the systemic vascular resistance
B. a rise in the cardiopulmonary blood volume
C. increased heart rate
D. stable stroke volume
E. a rise in the cardiac index

A

ANSWER C

The concept of aortocaval compression & supine hypotension are different. While all pregnant women compress the aorta & vena cava on supine position, not all women become hypotensive.

“Supine hypotension” (or supine hypotension syndrome - SHS ) only occurs in 8% of women. It occurs because these women have not developed sufficient pelvic collaterals to assist venous return on caval compression.

SHS is defined as a 15-30 mmHg reduction in systolic BP with a SUSTAINED ELEVATION OF HR of > 20 bpm. Ref: “Hemodynamic changes & baroreflex gain in the supine hypotension syndrome”; American Journal of Obstetrics & Gynaecology 2002: 187; 1634-4

SHS is most commonly due to CAVAL compression. Aortic compression and neurogenic etiologies are less common causes. Ref: Uptodate - Maternal cardiovascular & hemodynamic adaptation to pregnancy”

Hence aortic compression is not a uniform feature of SHS, but caval compression is.

The increased in SVR due to increased SNS outflow may not occur in pregnant women because they are maximally vasodilated & the aorta may not be compressed.

43
Q

SF71 ANZCA version [2005-Sep] Q103, [Apr07] [Jul07]

Best evidence in obstetric anaesthesia supports each of the following
assertions EXCEPT

A. colloid prevents hypotension from regional anaesthesia more effectively than crystalloid

B. fentanyl added to spinal bupivacaine for caesarean section has no influence on the incidence of intraoperative nausea

C. high doses of ephedrine (>15 mg) are more likely to cause hypertension than prevent hypotension

D. in labour, combined spinal-epidural analgesia is associated with faster onset and greater maternal satisfaction than epidural analgesia

E. in nulliparous women, epidural analgesia in labour, compared with intravenous opioid analgesia, does not increase caesarean section rate

A

ANSWER B and D (both wrong)

44
Q

SF55 ANZCA version [2002-Aug] Q105, [2003-Apr] Q69, [2004-Aug] Q88, [2005-Sep] Q101, [Apr07] Q141,

In relation to obstetric haemorrhage

A. amniotic fluid embolism is unlikely to present as unexplained haemorrhage

B. coagulopathy is uncommon, when severe abruption leads to maternal shock and fetal death

C. the risk of placenta accreta, but NOT placenta previa, increases with an increasing number of caesarean sections

D. treatment of uterine atony with prostaglandins is rarely assosciated with maternal adverse effects

E. intravenous magnesium may facilitate replacement of an inverted uterus

A

ANSWER E

A: FALSE: The classic presentation of AFE is characterized by sudden cardiovascular collapse, with profound systemic hypotension, cardiac dysrhythmia, cyanosis, dyspnea or respiratory arrest, pulmonary edema or the adult respiratory distress syndrome, altered mental status, and hemorrhage.

B. FALSE 30% of patients with IUFD from abruption will have DIC. (

C. FALSE: Prior cesarean delivery increases the likelihood of placenta previa. Miller and associates (1996) cited a threefold increase of previa in women with prior cesarean delivery in over 150,000 deliveries at Los Angeles County Women’s Hospital. The incidence increased with the number of previous cesarean deliveries; it was 1.9 percent with two prior cesarean deliveries and 4.1 percent with three or more.

D. FALSE: PGF2alpha has significant side effects. PGE2 (misoprostil) has fewer side effects.

E. TRUE: “Uterine relaxation may be necessary to replace the uterus; β-sympathomimetic agents, magnesium, and nitroglycerin all have been used to achieve this goal.” (Miller 7th ed Ch 69)

45
Q

ANZCA Version [Jul07]

In relation to obstetric haemorrhage
A. amniotic fluid embolism is unlikely to present as unexplained haemorrhage
B. cell salvage is too dangerous to be recommended because of potential contaminants
C. coagulopathy after severe placental abruption is ONLY likely if fetal death in-utero occurs
D. intravenous magnesium may facilitate replacement of an inverted uterus
E. placenta percreta can be excluded by ultrasound examination

A

ANSWER D

46
Q

Pneumoperitoneum for laparoscopy is commonly associated with an INCREASE in each of the following EXCEPT

A. arterial pressure
B. inotropic state
C. secretion of vasopressin
D. systemic vascular resistance
E. venous resistance

A

ANSWER B

47
Q

Regarding non-obstetric abdominal laparoscopic surgery during the second trimester of pregnancy
A. carbon dioxide pneumoperitoneum induces foetal acidosis
B. fetal heart rate is depressed if maternal intra-abdominal pressure reaches 12 mmHg
C. mechanical ventilation during general anaesthesia should be used to maintain a maternal arterial PaCO2 of 40 mmHg
D. premature labour is a common complication unless prophylactic tocolytics are used
E. the risk of miscarriage or premature labour is NOT increased

A

A - TRUE - “a trend toward increasing fetal acidosis during a 90- to 120-minute exposure to a CO2 pneumoperitoneum”

ANSWER A

# B - FALSE intraabdo pressures were kept 12-15 in most cases, and no fetal bradycardia
# C - False - Should aim lower (eg 32mmHg) (Yao and Artusio)
# D - ?? - Probably not best answer; seems quite common if the patient has appendicitis (Y and ) but prophylactic tocolytics are debated
# E - False - Clearly increased risk of spontaneous abortion in 1st and 2nd trimester

48
Q

Regarding non-obstetric abdominal laparoscopic surgery during the second trimester of pregnancy
A. carbon dioxide pneumoperitoneum induces foetal acidosis
B. fetal heart rate is depressed if maternal intra-abdominal pressure reaches 12 mmHg
C. mechanical ventilation during general anaesthesia should be used to maintain a maternal arterial PaCO2 of 40 mmHg
D. premature labour is a common complication unless prophylactic tocolytics are used
E. the risk of miscarriage or premature labour is NOT increased

A

A - TRUE - “a trend toward increasing fetal acidosis during a 90- to 120-minute exposure to a CO2 pneumoperitoneum”

ANSWER A

# B - FALSE intraabdo pressures were kept 12-15 in most cases, and no fetal bradycardia
# C - False - Should aim lower (eg 32mmHg) (Yao and Artusio)
# D - ?? - Probably not best answer; seems quite common if the patient has appendicitis (Y and ) but prophylactic tocolytics are debated
# E - False - Clearly increased risk of spontaneous abortion in 1st and 2nd trimester

49
Q

AZ02 ANZCA Version [Jul07]

A healthy female patient is undergoing a laparoscopic sterilisation under a relaxant based general anaesthetic.
Which of the following monitors does NOT have
to be in continuous use?
A. Capnograph
B. Electrocardiogram
C. Oximeter
D. Oxygen analyser
E. Ventilator disconnect alarm

A

ANSWER B

As per ANZCA document PS18:

  • ECG: correct “must be available for every anaesthetised patient”
  • Pulse oximeter “A pulse oximeter must be in use for every anesthesied patient”
  • Breathing system disconnection or ventilation failure alarm: “must be in continuous operation”
  • Oxygen analyser: “must be in continuous operation for every patient when an anaesthesia delivery system is used”
  • Carbon dioxide monitor: “must be in use for every patient under GA”
50
Q

SF 38yo obese female with DM, other comorbidities, undergoing LSCS with spinal anaesthetic with a 27G whitacre needle, having this and that, blah, blah. then two days later complains of numbness on a small patch on lateral aspect of mid-thigh. On full neuro exam - no other signs/symptoms.
A. conus medullaris injury
B. L2 nerve root compression
C. L3 root lesion
D. L4 root lesion
E. meralgia paraesthetica

A

ANSWER E

51
Q

SG63 ANZCA version [Apr08] Q118

Each of the following statements regarding the haemodynamic changes during pneumoperitoneum
for laparoscopy is true EXCEPT:

A. in patients with severe cardiac disease changes are qualitatively similar to those in normal patients
B. right atrial pressure is NOT a reliable indicator of cardiac filling
C. they are well tolerated by morbidly obese patients
D. they are well tolerated in cardiac transplant patients with good ventricular function
E. they are well tolerated in patients with low cardiac output secondary to low preload

A

ANSWER E

52
Q

At what level of intra-abdominal does cardiac output fall?
A. 10 mmHg
B. 20 mmHg
C. 30 mmHg
D. 40 mmHg
E. 50 mmHg

A

ANSWER C

At IAP of approximately 30mmHg, CVP falls significantly from previous levels but remains high in comparison with preinsufflation levels. Trendelenburg’s position may not overcome the decreases in VR and CO presumably because of pressure on the inferior vena cava. Cardiac index falls to 50% of preoperative values in 5 min