Obs and Gynae Flashcards

1
Q

What is Paulik’s grip

A

One-handed technique to grasp the fetal head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What suture separates the frontal and parietal bones

A

Coronal sutures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What suture separates the parietal bones

A

Agitate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What suture separates the occipital bone from the parietal

A

Lambdoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What suture separates the two frontal bones

A

Frontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a fontanelle

A

When two or more sutures meet - irregular membranous area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where is the anterior fontanelle found

A

Between coronal and saggital sutures - ossifies at 18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where is the posterior fontanelle seen

A

Junction between sagittal and laboidal sutures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the occiput

A

Bony prominence that lies behind the posterior fontanelle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the vertex

A

Area between the anterior and posterior fontanelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the bregma

A

Area around the anterior fontanelle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the sinciput

A

Area in front of the anterior fontanelle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the assessment of degree of moulding of the fetal head

A

No moulding: suture lines are separate
1+ moulding: suture lines meet
2+ moulding: when bones overlap but can be reduced with gentle digital pressure
3+ moulding: when bones overlap and are irreducible with gentle pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the early development of the placenta

A
  1. Zygote enters uterus in 3-5 days -> blastocyst
  2. Implantation of blastocyst on day 7-11:
    Inner cell mass forms embryo, yolk sax and amniotic cavity
    Trophoblast forms future placenta, chorion and extra embryonic mesoderm
  3. Blastocyst embeds into the decider + trophoblast cells differentiate to form two layers of trophoblasts (inner cytotrophoblasts and outer multinucleate syncytiotrophoblast)
  4. Invading trophoblast penetrates endometrial blood vessels -> intertrophoblastic maternal blood-filled sinuses
  5. Trophoblast cells -> villi (cytotrophoblasts surrounded by syncytiotrophoblast)
  6. Days 16-17, surface of blastocyst is covered by villi + chorion starts developing a future placenta (chorionic frondosum)
  7. Lacunar spaces become confluent with one another
  8. Embryo of decider capsular becomes thinner as embryo grows, converting chorion to chorionic leave
  9. Villi in chorionic frondosum divides and proliferates to form decide basis

Starts at 6 weeks and stem villi established by 12 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does the placenta differentiate between the fetal and maternal surface

A

Smooth, amnion with umbilical attached at centre vs rough and spongy appearance (cotyledons)
Branches of umbilical blood vessels visible vs each cotyledon supplied by spinal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Role of the umbilical cord

A

Vascular cable that connects fetes to placenta (10 to 90 cm)

Carries deoxygenated blood form fetes to placenta and oxygenated blood to baby via the umbilical vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is contain din the umbilical cord

A

Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein

Embedded in wharton’s jelly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Role of spiral arteries

A

IF there is an increased demand of blood supply to placental bed, they become low pressure and high flow vessels by dilating and becoming less elastic from trophoblast invasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe age fetoplacental circulation

A
  1. Two umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from fetes -> chorionic plate under amnion.
  2. Arteries divide to enter chorionic villi -> arterioles -> capillaries
  3. Blood flows to umbilical vein and countercurrent between maternal and fetal blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What cell produces hCG

A

syncytiotrophoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When is hCG detected after fertilsation

A

6 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

At what point of gestation does hCG reach peak concentration

A

10-12 weeks then plates for rest of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Role of the placenta

A
  1. Barrier to infection and drugs

2. Produces oestrogen, hCG, progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where is progesterone produced

A

Corpus lutes until day 35

Placenta thereafter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Role of progesterone

A

Promotes smooth muscle relaxation and raises body temperature

Prevents preterm labour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Role of oestrogen during pregnancy

A
  1. Increased breast, nipple growth and pigmentation of areola
  2. Promote uterine blood flow, myometrial growth and cervical softening
  3. Increased sensitivity and expression of myometrial oxytocin receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Role of hPL

A

1, Similar to Gh

  1. Increased energy supply to fetes
  2. Increased insulin secretion, low insulin peripheral effect to divert to fetes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does the pituitary gland during pregnancy

A
  1. Enlarges
  2. Prolactin levels increase substantially due to oestrogen
  3. Gonadotrophin secretion is inhibited and increased ACTH levels
  4. Increased plasma cortisone output

Posterior pituitary releases oxytocin during labour and during suckling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Effect of pregnancy during thyroid

A
  1. TBG doubled = T3 and T4 rises early on then falls for remainder

Thyroid drugscan cross the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Haemodynamic changes during pregnancy

A
  1. Increase in plasma volume + weight gain due to oedema
  2. Rise in red cell volume but hb conc doesn’t chang e3. Decreased eosinophils during labour
  3. Platelets decreased during pregnancy
  4. Hypercoagulable state during pregnancy + ESR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

CV changes during pregnancy

A
  1. CO increased as blood from intervillous spam increases
  2. Progressive enlargement of the uterus, heart and diaphragm
  3. Reduced peripheral resistance
  4. Vasodilatation and hypotension may stimulate RAAS
  5. Respiratory changes, as level of diaphragm rises so resp rate changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Physiology of the uterus during pregnancy

A
  1. Muscle hypertrophy at 20 week s
  2. Uterine blood flow increases
  3. Hypertrophy of uterine and ovarian arteries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Three section of the uterus

A

Cervic, isthmus and body of uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What happens to the cervix during pregnancy

A
  1. Reduction in cervical collagen
  2. Hypertrophy of cervical glands = more cervicla mucus for infection barrier
  3. Increased vaginal discharge due to cervical ectopy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Changes to the uterine body

A

INcreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Changes to the vagina in pregnancy

A
  1. High oestrogen levels stimulate glycogen synthesis and deposition
  2. Lactobacilli on glycogen in vaginal cells produce lactic acid to lower pH for pathogen free
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Changes to breast during pregnancy

A
  1. Lactiferous ducts and alveoli develop du etc oestrogen, progesterone and prolactin
  2. Forom 3-4 months colostrum can be expressed from the breast
  3. Prolactin stimulates cells of the alveoli to secrete milk (effect is blocked during pregnancy by oestrogen and prog), drop in hormones allows lactation
  4. Suckling causes prolactin nd oxytocin release
    Oxytocin allows contraction of myoepithelial cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Changes in the urinary tract during pregnancy

A

. Uric acid increases in clearance

2. Increased renal blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Changes in the alimentary system during pregnancy

A
  1. Decreased sphincter tone
  2. Reduced gastric mobility
  3. Increased abdominal pressure causes heartburn
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Changes in skin during pregnancy

A
  1. Palmar erythema
  2. Spider nave
  3. Pigmentation of nipple and areola
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

At what age does chance of conceiving start to decline

A

35 and over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What other risks ar involved in pregnant older mothers

A

Down syndrome
2 Pre-eclampsia
3. DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How long after stopping the pill can women try to concieve

A

3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the recommended dose of folic acid

A

400 mcg a day

45
Q

What supplements should be given to pregnant women

A

Iron
2, Calcium
3. Iodine
4. Zinc

46
Q

What is the normal weight gain in women during pregnancy

A

11-16kg - should consume 350kcal a day

47
Q

What is the ideal diet for a pregnant woman

A
  1. Protein rich, dairy food for calcium, starchy food, fruits and vegetables

Avoid sugary, salty or fatty foods

48
Q

What food should be avoided during pregnancy

A
  1. Undercooked metas, eggs, pates, cheese, shellfish, raw fish and under pasteurised milk as sources of listeria and salmonella
49
Q

4 pre-pregnancy checks at GP

A
  1. Blood test s
  2. HIV screen
  3. Dental exam
  4. Urine dipstick
50
Q

Common symptoms of early pregnancy

A
  1. Nausea and vomiting
  2. Pressure effect of the uterus no the bladder can cause increased urination
  3. Fatigues (goes away by 12)
  4. Breast tenderness
  5. Fetal movements
51
Q

What is pica

A

Abnormal desire to eat something not regarded as nutritive

52
Q

Clinical features of pregnancy on examination

A
  1. Vagina and cervix are blue due to blood congestion
  2. Size of uterus increased and can be palpable after 12 weeks.
  3. Fetal heart can be heard
53
Q

How can we date a pregnancy

A
  1. LMP
  2. USS between 8 to 13 weeks is most accurate
  3. After this, crown-rump length which is from one fetal pole to another.
54
Q

What is assessed in fetal ultrasound for their growth

A
  1. Biparietal diameter and head circumference
  2. Abdo circumference
  3. Femur length
55
Q

Blood tests during antenatal care

A
  1. FBC
  2. Rubella
  3. Syphilis
  4. Hep B
  5. HIV

Electrophoresis of Hb
Gestational diabetes

56
Q

Risk factors for gestational diabetes

A
  1. Previous GDM
  2. Fmaily history of diabetes
  3. Obesity
  4. Glycosuria
57
Q

GI symptoms of pregnancy

A
  1. Nausea and vomiting - metoclopromide
  2. Reflux: Ranitidine and antacids
  3. Constipation: lactulose + fibre)
58
Q

Name symptoms involved in MSK pregnancy

A
  1. Symphysis pubis dysfunction (pelvic pain) - physic, analgesia, limit abduction during delivery
  2. Backache and sciatica
  3. Carpal tunnel syndrome
  4. Haemorrhoids: Ice packs,
  5. Varicose veins
59
Q

Urinary symptoms during pregnancy

A
  1. Frequeny in first trimester
  2. Stress incontinence on third
  3. UTI: avoid caffeine and fluid late at night)

Vaginal dischargeL Exclude sit and candiasis

Itching an rashes: Emollients

Stretch marks, labile mood, calf cramps

60
Q

What is vasa praaevia

A

Fetal vessels runin membranes unsupported by placental tissue or umbilical cord

PV bleeding after rupture and rapid fetal distress

61
Q

Risk factors of vasa praevia

A
  1. IVF pregnancy

2. Multiple pregnancy

62
Q

What is placenta apreavia

A
  1. Placenta is inserted into lower segments of uterus
63
Q

What is grade 3/4 placenta praaevia

A
  1. Placenta lies over cervical os
64
Q

What is grade 1/2 placenta praaevia

A

Placenta close to cervical os

65
Q

Diagnosis of placenta praaevia

A
  1. Transvaginal USS
66
Q

How is antepartum haemorrhage managed

A
  1. GBC
  2. Kleinbauer testing
  3. Group and save serum
  4. Coagulation screen

USS toe establish fetal wel lbeing
Umbilical artery doppler

Managed by surveillance

67
Q

What is placental abruption

A
  1. Placenta separates partly or completely from uterus before delivery so blood accumulates behind placenta in uterine cavity or loss through cervix
68
Q

Types of placental abruption

A

Concealed: no external bleeding
Revealed: vaginal bleeding

69
Q

CF of placenta abruption

A
  1. ABdo pain
  2. Sudden onset
  3. Backache
  4. Uterus tender on palpitation and become ‘woody’ - hard
    Bleeding is dark and many are in labour
    Fetal distress
70
Q

Management of placenta abruption

A
  1. Admit women and manage fetal distress
71
Q

What defines Pregnancy-induced hypertension

A

140/90 in second half of pregnancy in the absence of proteinuria or other markers of pre-eclampsia

72
Q

What symptoms of hypertension point to post part pre-eclampsia

A
  1. Epigastric pain
  2. Visual disturbance
  3. New-onset proteinuria
73
Q

Postnatal management of HTN

A
  1. Methyldopa changed to beta blocker because of depression
  2. Captopril
  3. Nifedipine
74
Q

What is pre-eclampsia

A
  1. BP>140.90 and >300mg proteinuria in 24hr collection

2. Already have HTN: rise in systolic 30mmHg or diastolic 15mmHg

75
Q

Risk factors for pre-eclampsia

A
  1. Previous pre-eclampsia
  2. Age>40
  3. Obesity
  4. Multiple pregnancies (>5)
76
Q

Investigations for pre-eclampsia

A

FBC:
Thrombocytopenia
High Hb
Anaemia

Biochemistry:
Increased urea and creatinine
Abnormal LFTs
Increased Lactate Dehydrogenase - haemolysis
Proteinuria
77
Q

Prevention of pre-eclampsia

A
  1. 75mg aspirin before 16 weeks
78
Q

Symptoms of pre-eclampsia

A
  1. Headache frontal
  2. Visual disturbances (flashing lights)
  3. Epigastric and RUQ pain
  4. Nausea and vomiting
  5. Rapid oedema in face
Signs:
HTN
Proteinuria (>300 mg)
Facial oedema
Confusion 
Hyperreflexia
Uterine tenderness or vaginal bleeding 
Fetal growth restriction on ultrasound
79
Q

How is pre-eclampsia managed in following patients:
BP<160/110
No proteinuria or low
Asymptomatic

A
  1. Warn about development of symptoms
    1-2 weeks review of BP and urine
    Weekly review of blood biochemistry
80
Q

How is pre-eclampsia managed in th efolowing patients:

  1. 160/110 BP
  2. 2+ protein
  3. > 300mg proteinuria
A
  1. 4-hourly BP
  2. 24hr urine collection
    3> Daily urinalysis
  3. Daily fetal assessment with CTG
  4. Regular blood tests
  5. Ultrasound assessment of fetal growth
81
Q

If BP in preeclampsia is over 160/110 what should be done

A

Antihypertensive medication:
1/ Methyldopa
2. Nifedipine
Hydrazine

82
Q

How is severe pre-eclampsia managed (BP >160/110 or significant proteinuria <2)

A

BP: PO nifedipine 10mg twice 30 min apart
Still high: IV Labetalol infusion and theen maintenance with labetalol/methyldopa if asthmatic

Other: Bloods
Fluid balance chart/catheter
Cog monitoring of fetes
Ultrasound fetes

<34 weeks, give steroids

83
Q

What is eclampsia

A
  1. Tonic-clonic seizure with diagnosis of pre-eclampsia
84
Q

What is HELLP syndrome

A

Severe pre-eclampsia: H 9hameolysis), EL (elevated liver enzymes), LP (low platelets)

85
Q

Clinical features of HELLP syndrome

A
  1. Increase in liver enzymes and platelets drop before haemolysis
  2. Epigastric or RUQ pain
  3. Nausea and vomiting
  4. Tea coloured urine from haemolysis

Treat as with eclampsia although platelet infusion is only indicated if bleeding

86
Q

Management of eclampsia

A
  1. ABCDE and IV access
  2. MGSO4 to control fits - 4g over 5-10 mins followed by 1g/h for 24 hrs
  3. Pulse, BP, resp rate, oxygen sats veery 15 mins
  4. Promoter and hourly urine
  5. Fluid restriction to 80mL/h

High dose steroids if HELLP syndrome exists

  1. HTN: oral nifedipine
    IV Labetaolol

Monitor fetes with CTG

87
Q

If fitting doesn’t stop with 4g MgSO4 what should be done

A
  1. further 2g bolus

Still doesn’t work - Diazepam and intubation

88
Q

Clinical features of Mg toxicity

A
  1. Confusion
  2. Loss of reflexes
  3. Respiratory depression
  4. Hypotension
89
Q

How is mg toxicity treated

A

1g calcium glutinate over 10 mins

90
Q

What are monozygotic twins

A
  1. Division into two of a single already developing embryo
91
Q

How are monozygotic twins diagnosed

A
  1. Hyperemesis gravidarum
  2. Uterus is larger than expected
  3. Three or more fetal poles palpable at 24 weeks
  4. Two fetal hearts on auscultation

Nuchal translucency scan

92
Q

4 indicators for chornionicity

A
  1. Widley separated sacs or placentae
    2 .membrane insertion showing lambda sign
  2. Absence of lambda sign
  3. Foetuses of different sex
93
Q

How are multiple pregnancies managed

A
  1. Iron and folate
  2. 75mg aspirin - pre eclampsia
  3. Growth scans at 28, 32, 36
  4. Offer delivery at 37-38 weeks
94
Q

Risks associated with multiple pregnancies

A
  1. Hyperemesis gravidarum
  2. Anaemia
  3. Pre eclampsia
  4. GD
  5. Placenta praaevia
95
Q

Fetal risks associated with multiple pregnancies

A
  1. Neural tube defects
  2. IUGR
  3. Pr term labour
  4. risk of disability
  5. Vanishing twin syndrome
96
Q

What is twin to twin transfusion syndrome

A
  1. Vascular anastomoses can redistribute blood, one twin becomes a donor and the other is a recipient

Requires monitoring USS: laser ablation of anastomosis

Donor: Hypovolaemic and anaemic
Growth restriction

Recipient:
Hypervolemic
Polycythaemic
Cardiac overload

97
Q

What is twin reversed arterial perfusion

A
  1. Twin is structurally abnormal with no or a rudimentary heart and receives blood from the other - the pump twin. Normal twin may die of cardiac failure
98
Q

What is dichorionic

A
  1. Both have their own nutrient supply and circulation
99
Q

What is monochorinoinc

A
  1. Same circulation and nutrients sharing
100
Q

Risks associated with multiple pregnancy

A
  1. Fetal hypoxia in second twin
  2. Cord prolapse
  3. post-partum haemorrhage
101
Q

Management of labour and twin delivery

A
  1. 38 weeks induced labour
  2. Iv access
  3. CTG monitoring of fetes
  4. Epidural
    5.Second twin delivered within 20 mins of first
  5. Oxytocin to help contractions going
  6. If fetal distress occurs in second - forces delivery
    if forceps doesn’t work, do breech extraction
  7. PROPHYLACTIC oxytocin infusion is recommended
102
Q

What is breech extraction

A
  1. Gentle and continuous traction on one or both feet : only done in twins
103
Q

Three types of breaches

A
  1. Extended breech (both legs extended feet by head and presenting part is buttocks)
  2. Flexed (legs flexed at knees so both buttocks and feet are presenting
  3. Footling breach: one leg flexed and one extended
104
Q

Causes of breech presentation

A
  1. Preterm delivery
  2. Uterine abnormalities
  3. Placenta praaevia
  4. Multiple pregnancies
105
Q

Risks of breech presentation

A
  1. Hypoxia and trauma
106
Q

Diagnosis of breech presentation

A
  1. Lie is longitudinal
  2. Head is planted at funds
  3. Presenting part is not hard
  4. Fetal heart is best heard up on uterus

ULTRASOUND

107
Q

What is external cephalic version

A
  1. Turning a breech or transverse presentation into cephalic - 36 weeks
108
Q

How is external cephalic version carried out

A
  1. Forward roll technique
109
Q

Contraindications of ECv

A
  1. C section
  2. fetal compromise
  3. Pre eclampsia
  4. Oligohydramnios