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year 3 > Last Minute Toughies > Flashcards

Last Minute Toughies Flashcards

1
Q

How do NSAIDs affect Lithium Levels

A

Increase Them

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2
Q

Appearance of someone with DiGeorge

A

Short palpebral fissures and Small low-set ears

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3
Q

First Line management of Rhinitis

A

Azelastine (intranasal antihistamines)

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4
Q

What antibiotic is given for epiglottitis

A

Phenoxymethylpenecillin

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5
Q

How long is the coryza phase for bronchiolitis

A

1-3 Days

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6
Q

Treatment for Mild Pneumonia in children

A

Amxicillin

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7
Q

Treatment for severe pneumonia in children

A

Co-Amoxiclav

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8
Q

AT what age should children with pneumonia be admitted as first line intervention

A

<1 month

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9
Q

What condition causes a pulses paradoxus

A

Pericarditis

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10
Q

What medication is given in the meantime for co-arctation of aorta while surgery is pending

A

Prostaglandins

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11
Q

Role of ARBs in Heart Failure/ASDs/VASDs

A

Afterload reduction

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12
Q

Diagnosing Klinefleter’s

A

Amniocentesis

CVS

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13
Q

What physical features are associated with fanconi’s anaemia

A

Short stature + Cafe Au Lait Spots

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14
Q

What physical features are associated with DBS

A

Cleft Palate
Short Stature
Deafness

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15
Q

TO cause remission of UC, what is given

A

5-ASA or IV Hydrocortisone

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16
Q

To retain remission in UC what is given

A

Mesalazine

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17
Q

TO cause remission of Crohn’s, what should be given

A

Steroids

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18
Q

Maintenance therapy for Crohn’s

A

Azathioprine

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19
Q

After what age can we use the carotid pulse in children

A

> 1 year

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20
Q

Treatment of Shigellosis

A

Clarithromycin

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21
Q

What is Kwashiorkor

A

Protein Deficiency

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22
Q

What are Schiller-Duval Bodies

A

Tubules with simple cuboidal epithelium

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23
Q

Signs of small intestinal bacterial overgrowth

A

Macrocyctic Anaemia
Lactulose Breathing Test is positive for H+
Crypt hyperplasia and flattened villi

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24
Q

What genetic condition is overlapping of fingers seen

A

Edward’s

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25
Q

What is clinodactyly

A

Curved fingers

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26
Q

What size are physiological cysts

A

<2.5 cm

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27
Q

Blood test results for embryological carcinomas

A

Raised beta-hCG

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28
Q

Triad for Friedrich Ataxia

A

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
Ataxia
Scoliosis

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29
Q

What is craniosyntosis

A

Premature fusion of the cranial sutures - usually saggital

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30
Q

Main complication in children who’s mother’s had gestational diabetes

A

Ventricular septal defects and ASDs

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31
Q

Onset for Lennox-Gestaut Syndrome

A

2-6 Years

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32
Q

What food should be avoided in phenylketonuria

A

Meat

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33
Q

Sign of Maple Syrup Urine Disease

A

Sweet smelling urine

caused by Isoleucine -> Sotolone

Accompanied by spasming of all muscles

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34
Q

Signs of Homocystinuria

A

Methionine synthase deficiency

Deficiencies in B12 and Folate

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35
Q

Treatment plan for Emergency asthma exacerbation

A
    1. Inhaled Salbutamol
  2. Nebulised salbutamol
  3. Nebulised Ipratropium
  4. If O2<92%, nebuliser magnesium sulphate
  5. Oral or IV steroids
  6. IV Salbutamol
  7. Aminophylline
36
Q

IgA Nephropathy vs Post-Strep Glomerulonephritis

A

IgA - Happens DAYS after onset

POst Strep - Happens WEEKS after onset

37
Q

First Line management of psychosis

A

Oral Antipsychotic Medications PLUS Psychological therapy

38
Q

What may indicated autoimmune encephalitis

A

A preceding infection

39
Q

When is a Section 136 conducted

A

Antisocial behaviour that requires a police warrant for taking in (e.hg., jumping off a bridge)

40
Q

When is Section 135 used

A

When people are being destructive in their own home

41
Q

How long is the incubation period for Hep A

A

6 Weeks

42
Q

What drugs can cause osteoporosis

A

Phenytoin
PPIs
Heparin
Ciclosporinsteroids

43
Q

When are bisphosphonates contraindictaed

A

eGFR <35

44
Q

Management if ABCD2 score >4

A

Give 300mg aspirin

+ Referral in 24 hours

45
Q

When should umbilical hernias in children be repaired

A

Symptomatic: 2-3 years

Asymptomatic: 5 Years

46
Q

When is the PCV vaccine given

A

3 months

1 year

47
Q

When is the oral rotavirus vaccine given

A

2 Months

3 Months

48
Q

Average age of getting a retinoblastoma

A

18 Months

49
Q

What antipsychotic can cause myopcarditis

A

CLozapine

50
Q

What antipsychotic causes constipation

A

Clozapine

51
Q

Indicates for a CT head within 1 hour

A
  1. GCS <13 on initial assessment
  2. GCS < 15 2 hours post-injury
  3. Any depression of the skull
  4. Signs of basal skull fractures
  5. Seizures
  6. Focal deficits
  7. > 1 episodes of vomiting
52
Q

What microbe can cause meningitis that stains with India Ink

A

Cryptococcus Neoformans (encapsulated organisms)

53
Q

First Line treatment of sinusitis

A

Phenoxymethylpenecillin

54
Q

First line management of chlamidyia in pregnant women

A

Azithromycin NOT Doxycycline

55
Q

What drugs are contraindicated with COCP

A

Anti-Eplieptics

56
Q

At what palpation fraction can instrumental delivery be used

A

Less than 1/5ths palpable

57
Q

What PREP is given to children

A

zidovudine

58
Q

What is the safest/ideal management plan for Placenta Accrete Spectrum

A

Elective C-Section + Hysterectomy

59
Q

When is an amniotomy first line management

A

In multiparous women with no foetal compromise

Usually given if failure to progress in the first stage of pregnancy

60
Q

At what week should women with dichorionic twins be offered an elective birth

A

37 Weeks

61
Q

What layers are cut through in a C-Section

A

Skin - subcutaneous fat - rectus sheath - rectus abdominus muscle - peritoneum - uterine myometrium - amniotic sac

62
Q

At what gestation age can baby movements be felt

A

18-20 weeksa

63
Q

What murmur is heard in pregnant women

A

Ejection Systolic Murmur

64
Q

AT what week is a second test for anaemia and red cell alloantibodies conducted

A

28 Weeks

65
Q

Should nifedipine be given orally or IV in pregnancy

A

Oral

66
Q

When is one point added to the bishop score

A
  1. Pre-Eclampsia

2. Each Previous vaginal delivery

67
Q

When is one point subtracted from bishop score

A
  1. Post Date Pregnancy
  2. No Previous Vaginal Deliveries
  3. pPROM
68
Q

Consequence of haemolytic disease of the newborn

A

Hydrops Fetalis

69
Q

Before inducing labour in premature rupture of membranes or prolonged rupture of membranes, what should be done first?

A

Blood culture and a course of antibiotics

70
Q

Define 4 aspects of the epidemiological approach

A
  1. Size of issue
  2. Services available
  3. Evidence Base
  4. Models of care
71
Q

Three domains of public health

A
  1. Health Improvement
  2. Health Protection
  3. Improving Services
72
Q

Four factors that influence perception of risk

A

Lack of personal. experience
Belief that preventable by personal action
Belief that if it hasn’t happened now, it won’t happen
Belief it’s a rare problem

73
Q

Define cultural Sensibility

A

Relates to someone’s moral, emotional or aesthetic ideas or standards

74
Q

First line investigation for vestibular schwannomas

A

Audiogram and Gadolinium-enhanced MRI head

75
Q

IN what type of neurofibromatosis are axillary freckles more common

A

NF Type 1

76
Q

First line surgical procedure for an extradural haemorrhage

A

Parietotemporal craniotomy

77
Q

What is the most common consequence of a subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

SIADH

78
Q

What bone is commonly fractures in an extradural haematoma

A

The Pterion

79
Q

What is a common complication of an intraventircular bleed

A

Hydrocephalus

80
Q

What surgical management is used for necrotising enterocolitis

A

Laparotomy

81
Q

What is the first line investigation for suspected bowel cancer

A

Faecal immunochemical test

82
Q

When should a CT colonography be used

A

If the patient is too old or more likely to have a risk of perforation

83
Q

What is the tumour marker for bowel cancer

A

CEA

84
Q

Risk Factors for gallstones

A

FFFF

Fat
Fair
Female
Forty

85
Q

What substance causes contraction of the gallbladder

A

Cholecystokinin from the duodenum

86
Q

What serum levels can be checked to diagnose sepsis

A

Mast Cell Triptase

87
Q

Most common cause of late onset neonatal sepsis

A

Staph Aureus

year 3 (25 decks)

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