Obs and Gynae Flashcards

1
Q
What is dyspareunia?
A) pain on urination 
B) pain associated with menstruation 
C) pain on defecation 
D) pain during labour 
E) pain during sexual intercourse
A

E) pain during sexual intercourse. May be deep or superficial in nature.

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2
Q
The endometrium is made up of what type of epithelium?
A) simple squamous epithelium 
B) simple columnar epithelium 
C) simple cuboidal
D) pseudostratified columnar
E) pseudostratified squamous
A

B) simple columnar epithelium

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3
Q

The uterus is supported by which 3 ligaments?

A

Uterosacral, cardinal and round ligaments

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4
Q

What is the name of the structure formed by the peritoneum between the uterus and rectum?

A

The Pouch of Douglas

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5
Q

What position is the uterus in the majority of women?

A

Anteverted

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6
Q

An adnexal mass is situated where?

A

Next to the ovaries

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7
Q

What is the sequence of normal pubertal development in women that ends with menarche?

A

Breast buds —> growth of pubic hair —> growth of axillary hair —> menarche

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8
Q

At what age might you consider investigations if puberty had not commenced in a girl?

A

14

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9
Q

At what age might you consider investigations if the menarche had not commenced?

A

16

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10
Q
Which of the following hormones stimulates the development of a primary follicle within the ovary?
A) GnRH
B) Oestrogen  
C) LH
D) FSH
E) Progesterone
A

D) FSH

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11
Q
Which of the following hormones stimulates the development of glandular, secretory endometrium and cervical mucous? 
A) GnRH
B) Oestrogen 
C) LH
D) FSH
E) Progesterone
A

B) Oestrogen

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12
Q
Which of the following hormones stimulates ovulation?
A) GnRH
B) Oestrogen 
C) LH
D) FSH
E) Progesterone
A

C) LH

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13
Q
Which of the following hormones provides negative feedback to the pituitary and reduces FSH secretion?
A) GnRH
B) Oestrogen 
C) LH
D) FSH
E) Progesterone
A

B) Oestrogen

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14
Q
Which of the following is produced by the corpus luteum?
A) GnRH
B) Oestrogen 
C) LH
D) FSH
E) Progesterone
A

E) Progesterone

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15
Q
Which TWO of the substances below make up the COCP?
A) GnRH
B) Oestrogen 
C) LH
D) FSH
E) Progesterone
A

B and E.

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16
Q

How does the COCP prevent ovulation?

A

The oestrogen prevents the release of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary via negative feedback. This prevents the maturation of a follicle and the subsequent release of an ovum.

Progesterone has the same effect as it remiains high in pregnancy and prevents further ovulation. It also thickens cervical mucuous and makes it less receptive to sperm.

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17
Q

An overweight 19 year old girl presents with oligomenorrhoea, acne and hirsutism.

A) What is the likely diagnosis?
B) Give two signs/symptoms needed to confirm your diagnosis.
C) What might she be at increased risk of developping in later life?
D) Give two options for managing this patient and the rationale for each.

A

A) presentation is typical of PCOS

B) two from: USS showing polycystic ovaries, oligoovulation or anovulation, clinical/biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism.
AKA the Rotterdam Criteria

C) Metabolic syndrome, specifically T2DM due to reduced insulin sensitivity with its associated increased risk of CVD

D) - Metformin (to help control the metabolic symptoms and increase insulin sensitivity)

  • Weight loss (to increase insulin sensitivity)
  • The COCP (to control menstruation and bleeding, important to recommend a withdrawal bleed every 3/12 to reduce risk of endometrial cancer)
  • clomifene citrate (increases ovulation if she wants to get pregnant)
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18
Q

Give 3 factors which might pre-dispose a woman to conceiving an ectopic pregnancy.

A

(Anything which slows the progress of the egg from the ovary to the womb)
Damage to the Fallopian tubes from PID or previous surgery.
Previous ectopic pregnancy
Endometriosis
IUCD
Smoking

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19
Q

An 18 year old woman presents to the A+E department complaining of lower abdominal pain accompanied by vaginal bleeding that has worsened over the last 48 hours. She feels nauseous and on examination you find she is tender over her left iliac fossa and hypogastric region.
A) What is the first diagnosis you must consider in this patient?
B) Apart from an abdominal exam, give three other investigations you should request.
C) Give a medical and surgical treatment option for this patient

A

A) Ectopic pregnancy

B) FBC, group and save, serum progesterone (to investigate a failing pregnancy) and hCG. Trans-vaginal USS is diagnostic in this case (unless it is a pregnancy of unknown location then need a laparscopy)

C) Methotrexate as a single dose, woman must use contraception for 3/12 afterwards
Laparoscopic removal of the ectopic pregnancy, laparotomy if time is of the essence.

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20
Q

A woman presents with abdominal pain and you request a B-hCG which is found to be 1000. 48 hours later another B-hCG is performed and the level is 1600.
A) What might you suspect and why?
B) A third B-hCG is found to be 2100. What would you expect to see on a TV USS.

A

A) Ectopic pregnancy. In normal pregnancy the B-hCG should double every 48-72 hours however in an ectopic pregnancy this does not always happen. It is NOT diagnostic but it raises suspicions.

B) at B-hCG levels over 1500 you would expect to be able to see an IUP. However in this woman as she has an ectopic pregnancy you would not find anything.

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21
Q

Which virus is vaccinated against to help reduce the risk of cervical cancer?

A

HPV-16 and HPV-18

22
Q

A 35 year old woman presents to her GP complaining of post-coital bleeding with some abdominal pain. On bi-manual examination you find no adnexal masses but her cervix feels roughened. You take a history and find she has just returned from living and working in South Africa for 10 years where she never needed to go to the doctor.

A) What is the first diagnosis you need to exclude given her presentation?
B) What is the likely diagnosis in this case?
C) What might the significance of her living in South Africa for 10 years be?
D) You refer her to the gynae clinic who perform a speculum exam, what might they see?

A

A) ectopic pregnancy (woman of child bearing age with pain and bleeding)

B) Cervical cancer

C) she has likely missed her smear tests since the age of 25 and so any pre-malignant changes will have been missed.

D) an irregular mass that will often bleed on contact.

23
Q

The mother of a baby is homozygous rhesus negative and the father is heterozygous rhesus positive. What is the chance of the baby being rhesus positive?

A

50% chance (Mendelian genetics)

24
Q

A mother (G2 P1) is found to be rhesus negative, her partner (and father of her first child) is rhesus positive. Is an anti-D injection indicated in this woman? Justify your answer.

A

No as she will have already created the anti-rhesus antibodies in her first pregnancy and so the anti-D injection is not of clinical benefit to her.

25
Q

Give 3 examples of a sensitisation event in the context of rhesus disease.

A
TOP
Ectopic pregnancy 
Vaginal bleeeding <12 weeks or if heavy
External cephalic version 
Invasive uterine procedure
Intrauterine death 
Delivery
26
Q

Why might the might an expectant lady still receive an injection of anti-D even if both parents are known to be rhesus negative?

A

In case of non-paternity

27
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of rhesus haemolytic disease.

A

A foetal red blood cell from a Rh +ve foetus crosses the placenta and activates an immune response in the Rh -ve mother, leading to the creation of antibodies. The antibodies created by a Rh -ve mother in response to the presence of foetal Rh +ve blood cells cross the placenta and bind to foetal red blood cells, leading to haemolysis. This leads to haemolytic anaemia and ultimately death.

28
Q

When might ante-natal anti-D injections be given to women who are rhesus negative?

A

28 weeks and within 72 hours of any sensitising event.

29
Q

When might you give postnatal anti-D and what might warrant a larger dose?

A

If the foetus is rhesus positive then anti-D is given within 72 hours of brith.
A Kleihauer test assesses the number of foetal cells in the maternal circulation, if this is high then a larger dose is needed to mop them up.

30
Q

A pregnancy is identified as being at high risk of foetal anaemia.
A) What test has a high sensitivity for significant foetal anaemia?
B) How might very severe anaemia present?
C) how is foetal anaemia treated?

A

A) Doppler ultrasound of the peak systolic velocity in the MCA
B) foetal hydrops or excessive fluid
C) with an intrauterine blood transfusion into the umbilical vein.

31
Q

A 40 year old pregnant (26+4) lady (G1 P0) with a BMI of 34 presents with ankle oedema and a headache. Investigations reveal her to have a BP of 159/102mmHg.

A) what is your initial diagnosis?
B) What risk factors does this patient have for developing this suspected condition
C) What other test might you perform and what finding would confirm the diagnosis?
D) Give a foetal complication of this condition.
E) Give 3 maternal complications of this condition.

A few weeks later she is complaining of epigastric pain and dark coloured urine.
F) What complication has she developed?
G) Give two changes might you find in her bloods as a result of this complication.

A

A) from the history and investigations pre-eclampsia should be suspected.
B) 40> years old, obese, nulliparity
C) 24h urine analysis, >0.3g in 24h confirms pre-eclampsia.
PCR ratio of >30mg/nmol also confirms it and is faster.

D) IUGR, pre-term birth, placental abruption, hypoxia
E) Three from…
Eclampsia, CVA, DIC, liver failure, renal failure, pulmonary oedema, HELLP syndrome

F) HELLP Syndrome (symptoms due to elevated liver enzymes and haemolysis)
G) Raised LDH, low platelets, increased pro-thrombin time (clotting disorder), anaemia

32
Q
Which of the following anti-hypertensives is recommended to treat pre-eclampsia? 
A) ramipril 
B) amlodipine 
C) verapamil
D) propranolol 
E) labetalol
A

E) Labetalol is the recommended anti-hypertensive for pre-eclampsia

Oral nifedipine is used for initial control.

33
Q

What are the two stages in the pathophysiology of pre-eclampsia? Detail the events of each.

A

Stage 1: this is the development of the disease. Incomplete invasion of the spiral arteries by the trophoblast cells leads to reduced uteroplacental blood flow. May be caused by an altered immune response, spiral arteries may also contain atheromatous lesions. There is an exaggerated inflammatory response as a result of these changes.

Stage 2: there is endothelial cell damage and ischaemia of the placenta due to the widespread inflammatory response. Leads to vasoconstriction (HTN, eclampsia, liver damage and clotting changes) and increased vascular permeability (oedema and proteinuria). Leads to the the clinical manifestations of the disease

34
Q

Give 4 risk factors for developping pre-eclampsia.

A

Four from…
Nulliparity, previous or family history, older maternal age, chronic HTN, diabetes, twins, autoimmune diseases, renal disease, obesity.

35
Q

A 39 year old woman with T2DM and a BMI of 32 is in her first pregnancy at 7+6 and is referred to your clinic. What medication might you start her on to reduce her risk of pre-eclampsia?

A

Aspirin 75mg PO OD.

Shown to moderately reduce the risk of pre-eclampsia if started before 16 weeks.

36
Q

What is eclampsia and what medication is used to treat it?

A

Eclampsia is grand mal seizures, most likely due to cerebrovascular vasospasm, in pregnancy. It is treated with magnesium sulfate.

37
Q
Which of the following anti-hypertensives is teratogenic? 
A) Labetalol 
B) Nifedipine 
C) Ramipril 
D) Propanolol
E)  Amlodipine
A

c) ramipril

All ACE-inhibitors are teratogenic

38
Q
Which class of medications does Labetalol belong to? 
A) Alpha-blockers 
B) Beta-blockers
C) alpha and beta-blocker 
D) Calcium channel blocker 
E) ACE-inhibitor
A

C) alpha- and beta- adrenoreceptor blocker.

39
Q
Which of the following is a risk associated with using a Propanolol in pregnancy?
A) IUGR
B) pre-eclampsia
C) neonatal hyperglycaemia 
D) Increased risk of cleft pallate 
E) Increased risk of spina bifida
A

A) IUGR

Can cause neonatal hypoglycaemia too.

40
Q

Which of the following findings on bimanual exam is typical of PID?
A) enlarged cervix relative to the uterus
B) cervical motion tenderness
C) cervical discharge
D) descent of cervix on coughing
E) slit-shaped os

A

B) cervical motion tenderness

Manipulation of the cervix will cause 10/10 pain in patients with PID.

41
Q

Give a possible cause of endometritis.

A

Instrumentation of the uterus, complication of pregnancy, STI

42
Q

A 26 year old lady presents with pyrexia and heavy vaginal bleeding which has not stopped for the past 24 hours since she returned from visiting her parents in rural India. On palpation her uterus is tender and a speculum examination reveals her cervix has an open os. As you take her history she reveals while she was in India she had a surgical TOP.

A) What is the first condition to exclude in this patient?
B) What is the likely diagnosis in this patient?
C) Give two further investigations you might request?
D) How would you treat this patient a) medically and b) surgically.

A

A) Ectopic pregnancy

B) Endometritis

C) FBC and cervical swabs

D) a) broad spectrum IV antibiotics
b) evacuation of retained products of conception (EPCR)

43
Q

What is the most common cause of PID?

A

Sexually transmitted infections

44
Q

Apart from spontaneous spread, how else might an STI move from the vaginal canal into the pelvis?

A

Uterine instrumentation
Complications of childbirth
Miscarriage

45
Q

Give an example of a descending cause of PID.

A

Appendicitis

46
Q
Which of the following places a woman at a higher risk of PID.
A). Young
B) poorer socioeconomic status 
C) sexually active 
D) nulliparous 
E) All of the above.
A

E). All of the above.

47
Q

Give a common causative bacteria of PID Give a complication of chronic infection with this bacteria.
How do you treat this infection?

A

Chlamydia

Can lead to infertility

azithromycin – given as two or four 500mg tablets at once
doxycycline – given as two capsules a day for a week.

48
Q
Which of the following STIs is a cause of acute PID?
A) Balinitis 
B) Herpes virus 
C) Gonnorhea 
D) Syphilis 
E) HPV virus 

Bonus: what is the treatment course for it?

A

C) gonnorhea (gonncocus bacteria)

Treat with a single IM injection of ceftriaxone or cefixime.

49
Q

A 24 year old lady (G1 P0) presents to her GP with a 5 day history of lower abdominal pain, dyspareunia and some vaginal discharge. On examination she is tachycardic at 119bpm and has cervical excitation tenderness.

A) What is the first differential to exclude and how would you exclude it?
B) What might you look for on her blood results?
C) With these results in mind, what is the likely diagnosis in this patient?
D) Give two options for medical managment of this patient.
E) this patient returns with same symptoms multiple times over the next 12 months, what kind of things would you counsel her about?

A

A) B-hCG and TV USS for excluding ectopic pregnancy

B) raised WCC and CRP

C) Acute pelvic inflammatory disease

D) analgesics (ibuprofen, paracetamol)
IM ceftriaxone plus one of…
Doxycycline (PO)
Metronidazole (PO)

E) How to reduce risk of infection through   safer sex practices. Importance of finishing courses of Abx. 
Long term risks of PID...
- subfertility
- increased risk of ectopic pregnancy 
- chronic pelvic pain
50
Q
Which of the following causes of vaginal discharge will present with ‘strawberry cervix’ on examination?
A) Ectropion 
B) Bacterial vaginosis
C) Candidiasis 
D) Trichomoniasis vaginalis 
E) Malignancy
A

D) Trichomoniasis vaginalis