Community and Public Health Flashcards

All things GP and Public health

1
Q

What should you do if you find a patient has a BP of over 140/90mmHg during a routine check up?

A

Take a second measurement, if different take a third measurement and record the lowest of the last 2 as their BP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How many BPs are needed to give the average for a patient who is using an ambulatory BP monitor?

A

14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If a patient refuses ambulatory BP monitoring, what might you offer them?

A

Home BP monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does the process of home BP monitoring work?

A

2 readings per day for a week, discard the first day and then take an average of the remaining days to diagnose/exclude HTN.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When assessing a patient with a BP of over 180/100mmHg, what additional signs might lead you to refer to a specialist immediately?

A
  • papilloedema
  • retinal haemorrhages
  • suggestion of phaeochromocytoma (labile/postural HTN, headaches, palpitations, pallor and diaphoresis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which risk score might you use for a patient with HTN and give 3 components of it.

A

QRISK2
Three from…
Age, gender, ethnicity, post code, smoking status, diabetes, SBP, cholesterol/HDL ratio, BMI, CKD, CVD in 1st degree relative, BP medication, RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In a patient who is found to have hypertension, suggest 5 other investigations you might request?

A
  • proteinuria, ACR and haematuria
  • BM, U+E, creatinine, eGFR, serum total cholesterol and HDL
  • fundoscopy (for retinopathy)
  • 12 lead ECG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A 48 year old, white male has been diagnosed with hypertension. Which is the most appropriate anti-hypertensive to prescribe?

a) amlodipine
b) bisoprolol
c) indapamide
d) ramipril
d) spironolactone

A

d) ramipril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

a 53 year old afro-Caribbean lady has been diagnosed with hypertension. Which is the most appropriate anti-hypertensive to prescribe?

a) amlodipine
b) bisoprolol
c) indapamide
d) ramipril
e) spironolactone

A

a) amlodipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A 65 year old, white woman still has uncontrolled hypertension having been prescribed one anti-hypertensive, which additional medication should be added now?

a) amlodipine
b) bisoprolol
c) indapamide
d) ramipril
e) spironolactone

A

d) ramipril

n. b. over 65 on one anti-HTN means she is most likely on a CCB i.e. amlodipine already.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A 65 year old, afro-Caribbean woman still has uncontrolled hypertension having been prescribed one anti-hypertensive, which additional medication should be added now?

a) amlodipine
b) bisoprolol
c) candesartan
d) ramipril
e) spironolactone

A

c) Candesartan

Likely on a CCB already, in people of black ethnicity an ARB should be added instead of an ACE-I.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A patient has been prescribed 2 anti-hypertensive agents already however they require a third for optimum control. Which is the most appropriate?

a) amlodipine
b) bisoprolol
c) indapamide
d) ramipril
e) spironolactone

A

c) indapamide (thiazide-like diuretic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If a patients BP is still over 140/90mmHg after the addition of a third anti-hypertensive to their prescription, which medication might you consider?

a) amlodipine
b) bisoprolol
c) candesartan
d) ramipril
d) spironolactone

A

d) spironolactone (at a low dose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A patient requires a 4th anti-hypertensive agent. What blood test are will be most informative to guide your treatment choice?

a) sodium
b) potassium
c) calcium
d) HDLs
e) cholesterol

A

b) potassium

Patient likely needs spironolactone which can cause hyperkalaemia therefore should only be prescribed if potassium levels are under 4.5mmol/L.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A patient on spironolactone for HTN is found to have a low eGFR. What might you be concerned they will develop?

a) hyponatraemia
b) hypernatraemia
c) hypokalaemia
d) hyperkalaemia
e) hypercalcaemia

A

d) hyperkalaemia

Low GFR will increase a patients risk of this if they are on spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A patient requires a 4th anti-hypertensive to try and control their BP however they have a slightly raised potassium and low GFR. Which is the most appropriate choice?

a) high dose amlodipine
b) high dose bisoprolol
c) high dose inapamide
d) high dose ramipril
d) spironolactone

A

c) high dose indapamide

The tests suggest hyperkalaemia and so this is the most appropriate choice as unlike spironolactone it does not cause hyperkalaemia

You might consider a B-blocker after this stage however you should make a referral and not start on a high dose.

17
Q

What QRISK Score indicates a patient should be prescribed a statin?

a) 5%>
b) 10%>
c) 15%>
d) 20%>
e) 25%>

A

b) 10%>

18
Q

What metabolic abnormality might be caused by thiazide diuretics?

A

hyponatraemia

19
Q

Why might an ACE-I cause hyperkalaemia and hyponatraemia?

A

Reduces the release of aldosterone and so increases potassium retention and sodium loss through the kidneys.

20
Q

Which class of medications should not be prescribed with ACE-Is and why?

A

NSAIDs as can affect kidney function.

21
Q

What three factors feed into behavioural change according to the Theory of Planned Behaviour?

A

Attitude, social pressure and perceived behavioural control.

22
Q

In the Theory of planned behaviour, give 5 things you may do to help an individual bridge the intention behaviour gap.

A

1) perceived control: help a patient to take ownership of the behaviour
2) anticipated regret: reflect on when things better/bad
3) preparatory actions: break the task into manageable chunks
4) implementation intentions: ‘if and then plan’
5) relevance to self: more likely behaviours for the patient.

23
Q

Give two positives and two negatives of the theory of planned behaviour.

A

+ve: effective across many behaviours, rational choice model, considers social and norm pressures + perceived control

-ve: no temporal/causal element, no affect or emotion considered, does not say how the 3 main aspects (attitude, social pressure and PBC) interact, habits and routines bypass cognitive deliberation, assumes 3 main aspects can be measured, relies on self-reported behaviour (at risk of patients lying).

24
Q

Which of the following conditions when treated with warfarin, aims for an INR of over 3?

a) mitral stenosis
b) short-term DVT prophylaxis
c) Atrial fibrillation
d) post-femur fracture repair
e) Prosthetic heart valves

A

e) prosthetic heart valves

a, c and d all are 2-3
b is 2-2.5