Obgyn - Childbirth and complications Flashcards
OBG - 11.2
Which statement is true?
A) In the case of hypotonic inadequate contractions, the uterine basal tone is normal, the contractions occur less frequently, last for a short time with low intensity.
B) In the case of hypertonic inadequate contractions, low amplitude contractions occur frequently, their duration increases, the basal tone is increased.
C) In the case of normotonic inadequate contractions, contractions occur frequently, their amplitude and duration is inadequate.
D) In the case of normotonic inadequate contractions, the uterine basal tone is low.
ANSWER
B) In the case of hypertonic inadequate contractions, low amplitude contractions occur frequently, their duration increases, the basal tone is increased.
EXPLANATION
In the case of hypotonic inadequate contractions, the uterine basal tone is normal, the contractions occur less frequently, last for a short time with low intensity. In the case normotonic inadequate contractions, contractions occur infrequently, are ineffective and duration are inadequate but uterine tone is normal.
OBG - 11.3
Which statement is false?
A) Hyperkinetic disorders (too strong contractions) may be caused by increased excitability if uterine muscles.
B) Hyperkinetic disorders (too strong contractions) may be caused by the partial placental abruption.
C) Hyperkinetic disorders (too strong contractions) may be caused by placenta previa
D) Hyperkinetic disorders (too strong contractions) may be caused by cephalopelvic disproportion
ANSWER
C) Hyperkinetic disorders (too strong contractions) may be caused by placenta previa
EXPLANATION
Hyperkinetic abnormalities (too strong contractions) can caused by hyperactivity of uterine muscles, by placental abruption or by cephalopelvic disproportion in order to overcome that events. Placenta previa do not cause hyperkinetic abnormalities.
OBG - 11.4
Improper manual revision of the uterine cavity may result in:
A) Complete or incomplete uterine rupture
B) The uterus may be torn from the vaginal fornix (colpaporrhexis).
C) Both
D) None
ANSWER
C) Both
EXPLANATION
There is an adequate technique of the manual removal of the placenta. After grasping the fundus through the abdominal wall with one hand, the other hand is passed in the uterus. By inadequate technique of the removal uterus wall injury or uterine rupture can occur.
OBG - 11.4
Improper manual revision of the uterine cavity may result in:
A) Complete or incomplete uterine rupture
B) The uterus may be torn from the vaginal fornix (colpaporrhexis).
C) Both
D) None
ANSWER
C) Both
EXPLANATION
There is an adequate technique of the manual removal of the placenta. After grasping the fundus through the abdominal wall with one hand, the other hand is passed in the uterus. By inadequate technique of the removal uterus wall injury or uterine rupture can occur.
OBG - 11.5
What is the Bandl contraction ring?
A) Muscle ring located at the border of the cervix and corpus uteri
B) Retraction ring visible at the border of the active-passive section of the uterus during labor
C) The muscle ring in the vaginal vestibule during labor
D) The contraction ring at the upper third of the vagina when the cervix is fully dilated
ANSWER
B) Retraction ring visible at the border of the active-passive section of the uterus during labor
EXPLANATION
As a result of the thinning of the lower uterine segment and the concomitant thickening of the upper, the boundary between the two is marked by a ridge on the inner uterine surface, the physiological retraction ring. When the thinning of the lower uterine segment is extreme as in obstructed labor or cephalopelvic disproportion the ring is very prominent forming a pathological retraction ring also known as a Bandl ring.
OBG - 11.6
What is the Bracht-maneuver?
A) A maneuver used in vaginal delivery in case of breech presentation of the fetus
B) A maneuver used to manage the abrupted but not yet delivered placenta
C) A maneuver used for expelling the arms extended above the head
D) A maneuver used for expelling the stalled shoulders
ANSWER
A) A maneuver used in vaginal delivery in case of breech presentation of the fetus
EXPLANATION
Bracht maneuver used for management of vaginal breech delivery.
OBG - 11.8
Which statement is false?
A) Naegele and Litzmann obliquities are included in fetal malpresentations.
B) Asynclitism may be caused by flat pelvis and flabby abdomen.
C) In particular case of synclitism cesarean section should be performed.
D) Synclitism can be recognized after the 30th gestational weeks.
ANSWER
C) In particular case of synclitism cesarean section should be performed.
EXPLANATION
Naegele and Litzmann obliquity are type of asynclitism. At the extreme of posterior asynclitism (Litzmann obliquity) the asynclitism lead to cephalopelvic disproportion and normal vaginal delivery can not take place. Recognition is only during delivery possible.
OBG - 11.10
It can be a complication in transverse lie, except:
A) Uterine rupture
B) Fetal hand, shoulder prolapse
C) Umbilical cord prolapse
D) Placenta previa
ANSWER
D) Placenta previa
EXPLANATION
Complications of transverse lie can be neglected shoulder presentation, fetal hand or umbilical cord prolapse, uterine rupture. Placenta previa is not part of the complications.
OBG - 11.12
If the placenta is not delivered within 30 minutes in the third stage of labor, what should you do?
A) pull the umbilical cord to remove the placenta
B) intravenous prostaglandin helps to deliver the placenta
C) manual removal of the placenta is recommended
D) intracervical prostaglandin helps to remove the placenta
ANSWER
C) manual removal of the placenta is recommended
EXPLANATION
Separation of the placenta generally occurs within 30 minutes of the end of the second stage of labor. If the patient is at risk of postpartum hemorrhage or by retained placenta a manual removal should be performed. Iv. prostaglandins may cause dangerous hypertension, pulling umbilical cord is inappropiate, intracervical prostaglandin administration is not recommended.
OBG - 11.13
What kind of assisted vaginal delivery should be performed in the 32nd week of pregnancy, if the skull has crossed the pelvic entrance, the cervix disappeared, the membrane is ruptured and signs of intrapartum fetal distress occur?
A) Forceps
B) Vacuum extraction
C) Cesarean section
D) By pressing the fundus uteri and intravenous administration of 5 IU of Oxytocin, I would accelerate the delivery
ANSWER
A) Forceps
EXPLANATION
In this case operative delivery should be performed but vacuum extraction is not recommended by preterm birth. Pressing the fundus can cause uterine rupture. Forceps delivery is recommended.
OBG - 11.14
Which is characteristic for a partial abruption of the placenta?
A) uterine tenderness “deck hard”
B) heavy fresh bleeding occurs from the uterus
C) the amniotic fluid is pure
D) does not involve blood clotting disorder
ANSWER
A) uterine tenderness “deck hard”
EXPLANATION
Symptoms of placental abruption are sudden abdominal pain, uterine tenderness, the amount of vaginal bleeding can vary greatly, and doesn’t necessarily correspond to how much of the placenta has separated from the inner wall of the uterus. Amniotic fluid may be bloody and blood clotting problems (disseminated intravascular coagulation) occur more often.
OBG - 11.15
Placenta previa is characterized by:
A) Pain localized in the uterus
B) The amniotic fluid is tinged by blood
C) The tone of the uterus is increased
D) Few or suddenly heavy, fresh bleeding without any other symptoms
ANSWER
D) Few or suddenly heavy, fresh bleeding without any other symptoms
EXPLANATION
Symptoms of placenta previa are bright red (fresh) vaginal bleeding without pain during the second half of pregnancy
OBG - 11.16
A patient with 39 weeks pregnancy has one cesarean section in her history. The premature rupture of membranes occurs without contractions, the cervix is dilated to 3 cm. What to do?
A) Immediately intravenous administration of 5NU Oxytocin to cause contractions
B) In certain cases Oxytocin infusion can be used to amplify contractions
C) If the contractions are regular and the anatomical findings progress,but the first stage last more than 6 hours cesarean section should be performed
D) Immediate cesarean section
ANSWER
B) In certain cases Oxytocin infusion can be used to amplify contractions
EXPLANATION
Iv. Oxytocin administration is allowed in certain cases after previous cesarean section. Provided there are no contraindications, a woman with 1 previous transverse low -segment cesarean section should be offered a trial of labour. Induction of labour with oxytocin may be associated with an increased risk of uterine rupture and should be used carefully after appropriate counselling. Administration of iv. 5 NU (national unit) Oxytocin is not recommended during the first stage of birth to cause contraction, and the first stage can be last more than 6 hours.
OBG - 11.17
It can lead to DIC, with the exception of:
A) missed abortion
B) umbilical cord prolapse
C) intrauterine fetal death
D) placental abruption
ANSWER
B) umbilical cord prolapse
EXPLANATION
Umbilical cord prolapse do not cause DIC (diffuse intravascular coagulation), it can occur in any other cases
OBG - 11.19
What is the diagnosis if both feet are palpable in breech presentation and the legs are bent in the hip and knees?
A) Footling breech
B) Kneeling breech
C) Complete breech
D) Frank breech
ANSWER
C) Complete breech
EXPLANATION
Complete breech has both thighs flexed and both knees flexed (sitting in squat position). An incomplete (or footling) breech has one or both thight extended and both knees or feet lying below the buttocks.
OBG - 11.20
Characteristic for RDS profilaxis:
A) antenatal corticosteroid therapy for fetal pulmonary maturation in preterm infants.
B) administration of 2 mg steroid orally required to reach the optimal effect till the delivery
C) optimal benefit begins 7 days after admnistration
D) by threatened abortion weekly intramuscular injection from the 20. gestation week is required
ANSWER
A) antenatal corticosteroid therapy for fetal pulmonary maturation in preterm infants.
EXPLANATION
Antenatal corticosteroid therapy for fetal pulmonary maturation reduces mortality and the incidence of RDS in preterm infants. Treatment consist of 2 doses of 12 mg bethamethason im 24 hours apart or 4 doses 6 mg dexamethason 12 hours apart. Optimal benefit begins in 24 hours after initiation and lasts for 7 days.
OBG - 11.21
Absolute contraindications to regional anesthesia, except:
A) coagulopathy
B) sepsis or infection at needle insertion site
C) uncorrected hypovolemia
D) tricuspidal insufficiency
ANSWER
D) tricuspidal insufficiency
EXPLANATION
Tricuspidal insufficiency is not a contraindication to regional anesthesia.
OBG - 11.22
What should be done if the fetus’s arms are extended above the head during vaginal delivery?
A) Using the proper maneuver we deliver the arms of the fetus. (right arm with right hand, left arm with left hand)
B) Immediate cesarean section
C) By pulling the fetus, we change the position of the arms and deliver the fetus
D) We push the fetus back into the uterus, thereby we change the position of the arms and then continue the vaginal delivery
ANSWER
A) Using the proper maneuver we deliver the arms of the fetus. (right arm with right hand, left arm with left hand)
EXPLANATION
One or both fetal arms occasionally is found above the head, in this situation, delivery is more difficult. Differents maneuver should be performed such as „Müller maneuver” to deliver the arms. Any other manipulation such as pulling the fetus hard or pushing back can cause serious life-threating injuries.
OBG - 11.23
When are we talking about synclitism?
A) If the fetal sagital suture fits in the anterioposterior diameter of the pelvic brim instead of the transverse diameter.
B) If the fetal sagital suture fits in the transverse diameter of the pelvic inlet with equal distance from the symphisis and promontorium.
C) When the fetal sagital suture fits in the transverse diameter of the pelvic inlet closer to the promontorium or closer to the symphysis.
D) If the fetal sagital suture fits in the oblique diameter of the pelvic inlet.
ANSWER
B) If the fetal sagital suture fits in the transverse diameter of the pelvic inlet with equal distance from the symphisis and promontorium.
EXPLANATION
The fetal head tends to accomodate to the transverse axis of the pelvic inlet, the sagittal suture remaining paralell to that axis and lie exactly midway between the symphisis and the sacral promontory.
OBG - 11.24
What is the position of the sagital suture during normal birth in different parts of the pelvic( inlet-canal-outlet) in normal internal rotation?
A) Inlet- transverse, canal-oblique, outlet- anterioposterior
B) Inlet- anterioposterior, canal- transverse, outlet- oblique
C) Inlet- transverse, canal- anterioposterior, outlet- oblique
D) Inlet- oblique, canal- transverse, outlet- anterioposterior
ANSWER
A) Inlet- transverse, canal-oblique, outlet- anterioposterior
EXPLANATION
In the occipitoanterior positions, the fetal head which enters the pelvis in a transverse diameter rotates so that the occiput turns anteriorly towardly the symphisis pubis. During the internal rotation the fetal head passes through the birth canal and the sagital suture rotated from transverse position 45 degree anteriorly to oblique position than into sagital (anterioposterior) position.
OBG - 11.26
Complications of induction of labor, especially induction with drugs:
A) Induction failure, weak contractions, prolonged birth
B) Tetanic uterine activity
C) Pelvic canal injuries, uterine rupture
D) All of the above
ANSWER
D) All of the above
EXPLANATION
Complication of labor induction can be prolonged birth, cervical or vaginal injuries, tetanic contractions or also uterine rupture.
OBG - 11.27
The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage:
A) Retained placental tissue
B) Overdistention of the uterus
C) Genital tract trauma
D) Uterine atony
E) Maternal coagulation disorders
ANSWER
D) Uterine atony
EXPLANATION
The majority of postpartum hemorrhages (75%-to 80%) are due to uterine atony.
OBG - 11.28
The most important role in postpartum hemorrhage is early detection and prevention. The following conditions prone to postpartum hemorrhage, except:
A) Postpartum hemorrhage in previous delivery
B) Multiple pregnancy
C) Quick detachment and delivery of the placenta
D) Inertia uteri, weak, irregular contraction
ANSWER
C) Quick detachment and delivery of the placenta
EXPLANATION
Factors predisponding to postpartum uterine atony are overdistention of the uterus, multiple gestations, polyhydramnios, previous postpartum hemorrhage. Normal delivery of the placenta is not a predisponding factor.
OBG - 11.29
Meaning of IUGR:
A) Mental, growth and developmental retardation of fetus, caused by intrauterine hypoxia.
B) SGA (small for gestational age) fetus diagnosed by ultrasound examinations.
C) birth weight of a newborn infant is below the 10th percentile for a given gestational age
D) EBW (estimated birth weight) is below 2500 g
ANSWER
C) birth weight of a newborn infant is below the 10th percentile for a given gestational age
EXPLANATION
Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) occurs when the birth weight of a newborn infant is below the 10th percentile for a given gestational age.