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OB Gyne > OB, UST Revalida Review > Flashcards

OB, UST Revalida Review Flashcards

1
Q

OB History

A

G P (TPAL)

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2
Q

Rule for EDD

A

Naegele’s Rule +7 -3

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3
Q

Fundic height measurement starts at

A

16-18 weeks AOG

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4
Q

Leopold’s manoeuvre starts at

A

28-30 weeks

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5
Q

LM 1

A

Fundal grip

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6
Q

LM 2

A

Umbilical grip

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7
Q

LM 3

A

Pawlik grip

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8
Q

LM 4

A

Pelvic grip

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9
Q

Leopold’s maneuvers

A
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10
Q

Level of uterus-AOG: Symphysis pubis

A

12 weeks

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11
Q

Level of uterus-AOG: Midway between symphysis pubis and umbilicus

A

16 weeks

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12
Q

Level of uterus-AOG: Umbilicus

A

20 weeks

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13
Q

Adnexa cannot be evaluated if the uterus is ___ months size

A

3 months

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14
Q

Consistency of cervix if pregnant

A

Soft

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15
Q

Probable signs of pregnancy

A

1) Abdominal enlargement 2) Ballotement (20th week) 3) Braxton-Hicks contractions (28th week) 4) Outlining of fetus 5) (+) pregnancy test 6) Hegar sign 7) Goodell sign 8) Softening of cervix 9) Beaded pattern of cervical mucus

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16
Q

Softening of uterine isthmus

A

Hegar sign

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17
Q

Cyanosis of cervix

A

Goodell sign

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18
Q

When Goodell sign is appreciated

A

4 weeks

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19
Q

When softening of cervix is appreciated

A

6-8 weeks

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20
Q

Beaded cervical mucus is an effect of what hormone

A

Progesterone

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21
Q

Onset of elevated β HCG in pregnancy

A

8-9 days after ovulation

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22
Q

Peak of elevated β HCG in pregnancy

A

60-70 days

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23
Q

Nadir of β HCG in pregnancy

A

14-16 weeks

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24
Q

Positive signs of pregnancy

A

1) FHT 2) Perception of active fetal movement by the examiner 3) Recognition of embryo or fetus by ultrasound

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25
Q

FHT-weeks: TVS

A

6-8 weeks

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26
Q

FHT-weeks: Doppler

A

10-12 weeks

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27
Q

FHT-weeks: Stethoscope

A

18 weeks

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28
Q

When active fetal movement is perceived by examiner

A

20 weeks

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29
Q

UTZ-weeks: Gestational sac

A

4-5 weeks

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30
Q

UTZ-weeks: Fetal heart beat

A

6-8 weeks

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31
Q

CRL is predictive of gestational age up to ___ weeks

A

12

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32
Q

Most accurate determinant of gestational age

A

1st trimester ultrasound

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33
Q

LMP may be used in determining gestational age if difference from early ultrasound is

A

Less than 2 weeks

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34
Q

Danger signs of pregnancy

A

1) Persistent headache 2) Blurring of vision 3) Persistent nausea and vomiting 4) Fever and chills 5) Hypogastric pain 6) Decreased fetal movement 7) Dysuria 8) Bloody vaginal discharge 9) Watery vaginal discharge 10) Edema of hands and feet

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35
Q

When to request: TVS for fetal viability and aging

A

Less than 12 weeks

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36
Q

When to request: Fetal biometry

A

> 13 weeks

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37
Q

When to request: BPS

A

28 weeks

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38
Q

Physiologic anemia, 1st, 2nd, and 3rd trimester respectively

A

Less than 11 g/dL; less than 10.5 g/dL; less than 11 g/dL

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39
Q

WBC level in pregnancy

A

Leukocytosis

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40
Q

When to request HBsAg

A

Near term

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41
Q

What tests to request on the first visit

A

1) UTZ 2) CBC 3) Blood typing 4) UA 5) HBsAg if near term 6) Pap smear 7) GDM screening

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42
Q

Caloric requirements in pregnancy

A

1st trim: 2000 kcal/day 2nd trim: 2300 kcal/day 3rd trim: 2300 kcal/day

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43
Q

Normal weight gain pregnancy

A

25-35 pounds or 1 pound per week; 2 pounds in 1st trimester, 11 lbs each in the 2nd and 3rd trimester

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44
Q

Iron requirement for the entire pregnancy

A

1g

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45
Q

Breakdown of 1g iron need for pregnancy

A

300 mg: fetus and placenta 500 mg: expanding maternal hgb mass 200 mg: excreted

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46
Q

Amount of daily elemental iron required in pregnancy

A

30 mg

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47
Q

Required daily calcium supplementation in pregnancy

A

400-900 mg

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48
Q

Daily zinc requirement in pregnancy

A

12 mg

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49
Q

Impairs phosphorus absorption

A

Antacid

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50
Q

Daily folate requirement in pregnancy

A

350 mcg/day

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51
Q

Frequency of prenatal check up

A

1) Monthly until 28 weeks 2) Every 2 weeks until 36 weeks 3) Weekly 37 weeks onwards

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52
Q

Criteria for preterm labor

A

1) After 20 weeks, before 37 weeks 2) Regular contractions (4 in 20 minutes) 3) At least 1 of the following: Progressive cervical changes, cervical dilatation of 2 cm or more, effacement of 80% or more

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53
Q

Preterm labor: Etiology

A

1) Infection 2) Low socio-economic and nutritional status 3) Maternal factors: Uterine anomalies 4) Fetal factors: Multiple pregnancies, PROM, congenital malformations

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54
Q

Preterm labor: Predictors

A

1) Biochemical: Fibronectin and estriol 2) Sonographic: Cervical funnelling (YVU on sonography) and cervical length

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55
Q

Cornerstone in management of preterm labor

A

Forestall preterm delivery

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56
Q

Management of preterm labor

A

1) Tocolysis 2) Bedrest 3) Treat underlying infection

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57
Q

Preterm delivery should be delayed for only how long

A

At least 48 hours to allow steroids to work

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58
Q

Tocolytics

A

1) Beta agonist (ritodrine, terbutaline, isoxuprine) 2) MgSO4 3) CCB (nifedipine, nicardipine) 4) PG inhibitors (indomethacin, naproxen)

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59
Q

MOA in tocolysis: Beta agonist

A

Reduction of intracellular Ca

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60
Q

MOA in tocolysis: MgSO4

A

Calcium antagonist

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61
Q

Steroid therapy is indicated at what AOG

A

24-34 weeks

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62
Q

Betamethasone dose

A

12 mg/IM Q24h x 2 doses

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63
Q

Dexamethasone dose

A

6 mg/IM Q12h x 4 doses

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64
Q

Steroid that can cause periventricular leukomalacia

A

Dexamethasone

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65
Q

When to screen for GDM: Average risk

A

24-28 weeks

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66
Q

GDM: Screening modality

A

Average risk - FBS, RBS, HbA1c; High risk - 75g OGTT

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67
Q

High risk for GDM

A

1) Strong family history of DM 2) Obese, BMI >30, or excessive gestational weight gain 3) Previous history of GDM, htn, metabolic syndrome, PCOS, and macrosomic infant 4) Glucosuria 5) Age >25 6) Poor OB history: Fetal demise, fetal malformation 7) Current use of steroids 8) Member of ethnic groups with high GDM prevalence (includes Filipinos)

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68
Q

Macrosomia, weight

A

> 9 lbs

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69
Q

Protocol for evaluation of diabetes in pregnant Filipino women

A
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70
Q

Protocol for evaluation of diabetes in High Risk pregnant Filipino women

A
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71
Q

Diabetogenic hormones secreted by placenta

A

1) GH 2) CRH 3) Placental lactogen 4) Progesterone

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72
Q

Fetal complications of GDM

A

o Abortion o Congenital anomalies o IUGR o Macrosomia o Hydramnios o Birth injury o Preterm delivery o Unexplained fetal death

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73
Q

Maternal complications of GDM

A

o Preeclampsia o Infections o Dystocia o Higher incidence of operative delivery o Diabetic Nephropathy, Retinopathy, Diabetic Neuropathy o Ketoacidosis

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74
Q

GDM management

A

1) Diabetic diet 2) 7-point CBG monitoring 3) Refer to endo if uncontrolled 4) Fetal surveillance

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75
Q

Diabetic diet: kcal/kg/day for normal body weight

A

30-35

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76
Q

Diabetic diet: kcal/kg/day for obese

A

24

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77
Q

Diabetic diet: Caloric composition

A

Complex carbs 40-50% Proteins 20% Unsaturated fats 30-40% Given as 3 meals and 3 snacks daily

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78
Q

7-point CBG monitoring

A

Pre-meals (3), 1 hours post meals (3), and at bedtime

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79
Q

Normal pre-meal CBG

A

70-100 mg/dL

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80
Q

Normal 1hr pp CBG

A

Less than 140 mg/dL

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81
Q

Normal 2hr pp CBG

A

Less than 120 mg/dL

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82
Q

When to do congenital anomaly scan

A

18-20 weeks

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83
Q

Conditions in GDM wherein early delivery is indicated

A

1) Vasculopathy 2) Nephropathy 3) Prior stillbirth 4) Poor glucose control

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84
Q

Htn in pregnancy is defined with a BP of

A

140/90 or higher on more than 1 occasion

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85
Q

Systolic BP of 140 mmHg or higher or a diastolic BP of 90 or higher on more than 1 occasion, > 20 weeks AOG, no proteinuria

A

Gestational Htn

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86
Q

Systolic BP of 140 mmHg or higher or a diastolic BP of 90 or higher on more than 1 occasion, before 20 weeks AOG and persists beyond 12 weeks postpartum; no proteinuria

A

Chronic Htn

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87
Q

Systolic BP of 140 mmHg or higher or a diastolic BP of 90 or higher on more than 1 occasion, after 20 weeks AOG; (+) proteinuria

A

Preeclampsia

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88
Q

Proteinuria level to diagnose preeclampsia

A

300 mg or more in a 24 hour urine specimen

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89
Q

Maternal risk factors for preeclampsia

A

1) First pregnancy 2) Age under 20 or over 35 3) High bp before pregnancy 4) Previously preeclamptic 5) Short inter pregnancy interval 6) Family history of preeclampsia 7) Obesity 8) DM 9) Kidney disease 10) RA 11) Poor protein or low calcium status

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90
Q

Paternal risk factors for preeclampsia

A

1) First time father 2) Previously fathered a preeclamptic pregnancy

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91
Q

Fetal risk factors for preeclampsia

A

1) Multifetal pregnancy 2) Hydrops/triploidy 3) Hydatidiform mole

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92
Q

BP in mild preeclamspia

A

More than 140/80

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93
Q

BP in severe preeclampsia

A

More than 160-110

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94
Q

Proteinuria in mild preeclampsia

A

>300 mg/d or > +1 dipstick

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95
Q

Proteinuria in severe preeclampsia

A

>2g/d or > +2 dipstick

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96
Q

Cardinal principles in the treatment of preeclampsia

A

1) Prevent convulsions 2) Control htn 3) Deliver at optimum time and mode

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97
Q

Anticonvulsant of choice in pregnancy

A

MgSO4

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98
Q

MOA of MgSO4 in preventing convulsion

A

Reduces cerebral vasoconstriction and ischemia

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99
Q

MgSO4: Loading dose

A

4g SIVP over 20 mins 5g deep IM on each buttocks

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100
Q

MgSO4: Maintenance dose

A

5g deep IM on each buttocks q6

101
Q

MgSO4: Serum therapeutic level

A

4-7 mEq/L

102
Q

MgSO4: Parameters to monitor

A

1) DTR ++ 2) RR more than 12/min 3) UO at least 25-30 cc/hour

103
Q

MgSO4 toxic level: Loss of patellar reflex

A

10 mEq/L

104
Q

MgSO4 toxic level: Respiratory depression

A

12 mEq/L

105
Q

MgSO4 toxic level: Altered atrioventricular conduction and complete heart block

A

15 mEq/L

106
Q

MgSO4 toxic level: Cardiac arrest

A

>25 mEq/L

107
Q

Management for MgSO4 toxicity

A

Calcium gluconate 1g IV

108
Q

Antihypertensives of choice to control bp in preeclampsia

A

1) Nicardipine 10 mg in 90cc D5W to run at 10 ugtts/min, titrate at increments/decrements of 5 ugtts/min to maintain BP of MAP 20% 2) Hydralazine 5 mg IV bolus followed by 5 mg incremental increases half hourly if DBP does not improve up to a total of 20 mg

109
Q

Normal pH of the vaginal environment

A

3.8-4.2

110
Q

Characterized by depletion of the normal lactobacillus population and an overgrowth of vaginal anaerobes accompanied by loss of usual vaginal acidity

A

Bacterial vaginosis

111
Q

Bacterial vaginosis: Microorganism associated

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

112
Q

Criteria for bacterial vaginosis

A

Amsel criteria

113
Q

Components of Amsel criteria

A

1) Thin green or gray-white homogenous discharge 2) Clue cells 3) pH >4.5 4) Amine door with 10% KOH (Whiff test)

114
Q

Amsel criteria: # of criteria to be satisfied for appropriate diagnosis

A

3 out of 4

115
Q

Bacterial vaginosis: Treatment of choice

A

Metronidazole 500mg BID x 7 days

116
Q

Bacterial vaginosis: Alternative regimens

A

1) Metronidazole 2g single dose 2) Clindamycin 300 mg BID x 7 days

117
Q

Condition: Copious yellow-green frothy discharge with pruritus and dysuria

A

Trichomonas

118
Q

Condition: (+) hyphae or spores

A

Candidiasis

119
Q

Condition: Severe vulvar pruritus with curd-like, whitish discharge to vaginal walls

A

Candidiasis

120
Q

Condition: Fishy odor

A

Bacterial vaginosis

121
Q

Vaginal pH in candidiasis

A

Less than 4.5

122
Q

Vaginal pH in trichomoniasis

A

>4.5

123
Q

Treatment of choice for trichomoniasis

A

Metronidazole 500 mg BID x 7 days

124
Q

T/F In trichomoniasis infection, treat sexual partner

A

T

125
Q

Treatment for Candidiasis

A

1) Fluconazole 150 mg OD 2) Miconazole 100 mg vaginal suppository x 7 days 3) Clotrimazole vaginal tablet

126
Q

Treatment for mixed vaginal infection

A

1) Miconazole + Metronidazole (Neopenotran) vaginal suppository ODHS x 7 days 2) Nystatin + Metronidazole (Flagystatin) vaginal suppository ODHS x 7 days

127
Q

HPV type: Benign warts

A

HPV 6 & 11

128
Q

HPV type: Premalignant and malignant lesions

A

HPV 16 & 18

129
Q

Conditions that predispose to HPV infection

A

1) Immunosuppression 2) DM 3) Pregnancy 4) Local trauma

130
Q

Treatment for condyloma acuminata

A

1) Podofilox 0.5% solution or gel 2) Imiquimod 5% cream 3) Cryotherapy 4) TCA 5) Electrocautery 6) Surgical excision

131
Q

Podofilox: MOA

A

Antimitotic

132
Q

Podofilox: T/F May be given in pregnant women

A

F

133
Q

Imiquimod: MOA

A

Immune enhancer

134
Q

Imiquimod: May be given in pregnant women

A

F

135
Q

Cryotherapy: MOA

A

Thermal-induced cytolysis

136
Q

Cryotherapy: Dose

A

Once a week for 1-2 weeks

137
Q

Condyloma acuminata treatment that may be given to women

A

Cryotherapy

138
Q

TCA: MOA

A

Chemical coagulation of proteins

139
Q

TCA: T/F May be given to pregnant women

A

F

140
Q

HPV serotypes covered by Cervarix

A

HPV 16 & 18

141
Q

HPV serotypes covered by Gardasil

A

HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18

142
Q

Cervical CA vaccination: Age group

A

13-26 y/o

143
Q

T/F Males can be given cervical Ca vaccination

A

T

144
Q

Genital ulcers, syphilis: Incubation period

A

2-4 weeks

145
Q

Genital ulcers, syphilis: Primary lesion

A

Papule

146
Q

Genital ulcers, syphilis: # of lesions

A

Usually solitary

147
Q

Genital ulcers, syphilis: Edges

A

Sharply demarcated, round or oval

148
Q

Genital ulcers, syphilis: Depth

A

Superficial or deep

149
Q

Genital ulcers, syphilis: Base

A

Smooth, non purulent

150
Q

Genital ulcers, syphilis: Induration

A

Firm

151
Q

Genital ulcers, syphilis: Pain

A

Unusual

152
Q

Genital ulcers, syphilis: Lymphadenopathy

A

Firm, nontender, bilateral

153
Q

Genital ulcers, syphilis: Causative organism

A

T. pallidum

154
Q

Genital ulcers, syphilis: Screening

A

RPR, VDRL

155
Q

Genital ulcers, syphilis: Confirmation

A

FTA-ABS, MHA-TP

156
Q

Genital ulcers, syphilis: Lesion of primary syphilis

A

Chancre

157
Q

Genital ulcers, syphilis: Treatment for primary lesion

A

PEN G 2.4M units/IM single dose

158
Q

Genital ulcers, herpes: Incubation

A

2-7 days

159
Q

Genital ulcers, herpes: Primary lesion

A

Vesicle

160
Q

Genital ulcers, herpes: # of lesions

A

Multiple

161
Q

Genital ulcers, herpes: Edges

A

Erythematous

162
Q

Genital ulcers, herpes: Depth

A

Superficial

163
Q

Genital ulcers, herpes: Base

A

Serous, erythematous

164
Q

Genital ulcers, herpes: Induration

A

None

165
Q

Genital ulcers, herpes: Pain

A

Common

166
Q

Genital ulcers, herpes: Lymphadenopathy

A

Firm, tender, bilateral

167
Q

Genital ulcers, herpes: Causative agent

A

HSV 1 and 2

168
Q

Genital ulcers, herpes: Diagnosis

A

1) Tzanck smear 2) Viral culture 3) Serology

169
Q

Genital ulcers, herpes: Treatment

A

Acyclovir 200 mg, 5x/day for 7-10 days

170
Q

Genital ulcers, chancroid: Incubation

A

1-14 days

171
Q

Genital ulcers, chancroid: Primary lesion

A

Papule or pustule

172
Q

Genital ulcers, chancroid: # of lesions

A

Multiple

173
Q

Genital ulcers, chancroid: Edges

A

Undermined, ragged, irregular

174
Q

Genital ulcers, chancroid: Depth

A

Excavated

175
Q

Genital ulcers, chancroid: Base

A

Purulent

176
Q

Genital ulcers, chancroid: Induration

A

Soft

177
Q

Genital ulcers, chancroid: Pain

A

Very tender

178
Q

Genital ulcers, chancroid: Lymphadenopathy

A

Tender, may suppurate, unilateral

179
Q

Genital ulcers, chancroid: Causative agent

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

180
Q

Genital ulcers, chancroid: Diagnosis

A

GSCS

181
Q

Genital ulcers, chancroid: Treatment

A

Azithromycin single dose

182
Q

Genital ulcers, lymphogranuloma vereneum: Incubation

A

3 days-6 weeks

183
Q

Genital ulcers, lymphogranuloma vereneum: Primary lesion

A

Papule, pustule, or vesicle

184
Q

Genital ulcers, lymphogranuloma vereneum: Edges

A

Elevated, round, or oval, irregular

185
Q

Genital ulcers, lymphogranuloma vereneum: Lymphadenopathy

A

Tender, may suppurate, unilateral

186
Q

Genital ulcers, donovanosis: Incubation

A

1-4 weeks

187
Q

Genital ulcers, donovanosis: Primary lesion

A

Papule

188
Q

Genital ulcers, donovanosis: Depth

A

Elevated

189
Q

Genital ulcers, donovanosis: Base

A

Red and rough “beefy”

190
Q

Genital ulcers, donovanosis: Lymphadenopathy

A

Pseudoadenopathy

191
Q

Bleeding occurs at intervals of > 35 days and usually is caused by a prolonged follicular phase

A

Oligomenorrhea

192
Q

Bleeding occurs at intervals of less than 21 days and may be caused by a luteal- phase defect.

A

Polymenorrhea

193
Q

Bleeding occurs at normal intervals (21 to 35 days) but with heavy flow (>=80 mL) or duration (>=7 days)

A

Menorrhagia

194
Q

Bleeding occurs at irregular, noncyclic intervals and with heavy flow (>=80 mL) or duration (>=7 days)

A

Menometrorrhagia

195
Q

Bleeding is absent for 6 months or more in a nonmenopausal woman

A

Amenorrhea

196
Q

Irregular bleeding occurs between ovulatory cycles

A

Metrorrhagia

197
Q

Spotting occurs just before ovulation, usually because of a decline in the estrogen level

A

Midcycle spotting

198
Q

Bleeding recurs in a menopausal woman at least 1 year after cessation of cycles

A

Postmenopausal bleeding

199
Q

Bleeding is characterized by significant blood loss that results in hypovolemia (hypotension or tachycardia) or shock

A

Acute emergent AUB

200
Q

ovulatory or anovulatory bleeding is diagnosed after the exclusion of pregnancy or pregnancy-related disorders, medications, iatrogenic causes, obvious genital tract pathology, and systemic conditions

A

DUB

201
Q

First thing to consider in patients with AUB

A

Rule out pregnancy

202
Q

Ovulatory vs anovulatory: Usually secondary to a systemic or organic pelvic pathology

A

Ovulatory

203
Q

Causes of AUB in anovulatory cycles

A

1) DUB 2) Endocrine disorders

204
Q

Causes of AUB in ovulatory cycles

A

1) Systemic 2) Reproductive tract

205
Q

Most common reproductive tract cause of AUB

A

Accidents of pregnancy

206
Q

Structural causes of AUB

A

PALM 1) Polyp 2) Adenomyosis 3) Leiomyoma 4) Malignancy and hyperplasia

207
Q

Non-structural causes of AUB

A

COEIN 1) Coagulopathy 2) Ovulatory dysfunction 3) Endometrial 4) Iatrogenic 5) Not classified

208
Q

Criteria for diagnosis of PCO

A

1) 12 or more follicles measuring less than 10mm in diameter located subcapsularly 2) Increased ovarian volume more than 10 cm3

209
Q

T/F Both ovaries must fit definition for diagnosis of PCO

A

F, only one

210
Q

PCO management

A

1) Lifestyle modification w/ a target weight loss of 5-10% of initial weight, and target BMI 20-25 2) Metformin 500 mg BID or TID 3) Progesterone challenge (thick endometrium) or OCP (thin endometrium)

211
Q

Medroxyprogesterone challenge

A

o Medroxyprogesteroneacetate(MPA) 10mg/tab 1 tab OD x 5 days o Comebackon Day 1 or Day 2 of menses o MPA 10mg/tab 1tab OD on Days16-25 of menses x 6 cycles o Repeat TVS after treatment

212
Q

PCOS treatment that improves menstrual regularity among women with PCOS, regardless of body mass index

A

OCP

213
Q

First choice in the treatment of hirsutism in PCOS

A

OCP

214
Q

Component of OCP that suppresses LH hence decreases ovarian androgen production

A

Estrogenic component

215
Q

Pinkish to reddish smooth polypoid mass protruding out of the cervical os

A

Endometrial polyp

216
Q

Reddish, meaty tissue protruding out of the cervical os; with minimal vaginal bleeding

A

Submucous myoma

217
Q

Heavy menstrual bleeding, and progressive dysmenorrhea

A

Adenomyosis

218
Q

Uterus symmetrically enlarged, doughy, tender

A

Adenomyosis

219
Q

Treatment of heavy menstrual bleeding: Non-hormonal

A

1) NSAIDs 2) Tranexamic acid

220
Q

Treatment of heavy menstrual bleeding: Hormonal

A

1) COCs 2) Estrogens 3) Oral progestins 4) Depot progestins 5) Danazol 6) GnRH agonists 7) LNG-IUS

221
Q

Fixed retroverted uterus; nodularities in cul de sac

A

Endometriosis

222
Q

PID, etiologic agent: Rapid onset, and the pelvic pain usually begins a few days after the onset of a menstrual period

A

N. gonorrhea

223
Q

PID, etiologic agent: Indolent course with slow onset, less pain, and less fever

A

C. trachomatis

224
Q

PID in IUD, timing

A

At the time of insertion and 3 weeks after placement

225
Q

PID: Minimum criteria for initiating therapy

A

1) Cervical motion tenderness 2) Uterine tenderness 3) Adnexal tenderness

226
Q

Criteria for hospitalisation of PID

A

1) Surgical emergency 2) Pregnancy 3) Non-response to oral therapy 4) Inability to tolerate outpatient regiman 5) Severe illness, nausea and vomiting, high fever, tubo-ovarian abscess 6) HIV infection with low CD4+ count

227
Q

Presumptive symptoms of pregnancy

A

1) Skin pigmentation (chloasma, linea nigra, striae gravidarum) 2) Nausea and vomiting 3) Thermal signs 4) Fatigue 5) Breast symptoms 6) Anatomical breast changes 7) Perception of feral movement (quickening) 8) Disturbance in urination 9) Cessation of menstruation 10) Changes in vaginal mucosa (Chadwick sign)

228
Q

Condition: Strawberry cervix

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

229
Q

Most commonly used method to rate the readiness of the cervix for induction of labor.

A

Bishop score

230
Q

Bishop score

A
231
Q

Bluish discoloration of the vagina

A

Chadwick sign

232
Q

What happens to the cardiovascular output of the mother in pregnancy?

A

It increases with peak at the 2nd trimester (40%)

233
Q

Mechanism of HPL as a diabetogenic hormone

A

Anti-insulin

234
Q

A in FPAL includes

A

1) Abortion (spontaneous or induced) 2) H. mole, 3) Ectopic pregnancy

235
Q

“Term” is defined as

A

37-42 weeks

236
Q

Preterm is defined as

A
237
Q

Asynclitism in which the sagittal suture is closer to the sacrum

A

Anterior asynclitism

238
Q

Abortion is defined as

A
239
Q

Conceptus is defined as fetus if AOG is

A

Less than 8 weeks AOG

240
Q

Conceptus is called embryo if AOG is

A

Less than 8 weeks

241
Q

Relation of the long axis of fetus to that of the mother

A
242
Q

Pole that refers to the fetal head

A
243
Q

Pole that refers to the fetus’ breech and flexed extremities

A

Podalic pole

244
Q

Refers to the relationship of an arbitrarily chosen portion of the fetal presenting part to the right or left side of the birth canal

A

Fetal position

245
Q

Cardinal movements of labor

A

EDFIEEE: Engagement, Descent, Flexion, Internal rotation, Extension, External rotation, Expulsion

246
Q

First requisite for birth of the newborn

A

Descent

247
Q

Cardinal movement that is essential for the completion o the newborn except when the fetus is small

A

Internal rotation

248
Q

Asynclitism in which the sagittal suture is closer to the symphysis pubis

A
249
Q
A

OB Gyne (7 decks)

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