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OB Gyne > OB, Topnotch > Flashcards

OB, Topnotch Flashcards

1
Q

male counterpart of: labia majora

A

scrotum

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2
Q

male counterpart of: labia minora

A

ventral portion of the penis

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3
Q

male counterpart of: clitoris

A

Glans penis

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4
Q

male counterpart of: urethral and paraurethral gland

A

prostate gland

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5
Q

male counterpart of: uterus and lower 3/4 of vagina

A

prostatic utricle

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6
Q

male counterpart of: greater vestibular gland

A

bulbourethral gland (Cowper)

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7
Q

male counterpart of: hymen

A

seminal colliculus

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8
Q

AKA mullerian duct

A

paramesonephric duct

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9
Q

anlage of female reproductive tract

A

paramesonephric duct

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10
Q 
male counterpart of the following:
hydatid of morgagni
uterus and cervix
fallopian tube
upper 1/4 of vagina
A

appendix of testes

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11
Q

AKA wolffian duct

A

mesonephric duct

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12
Q

male counterpart of: appendix of vesiculosis

A

appendix of epididymis

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13
Q

male counterpart of: duct of epoophoron

A

ductus of epididymis

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14
Q

male counterpart of: gartner’s duct

A

ductus deferens
ejaculatory duct
seminal vesicle

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15
Q

male counterpart of: ovarian folicle

A

seminiferous tubule

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16
Q

male counterpart of: rete ovarii

A

rete testis

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17
Q

male counterpart of: round ligament of uterus

A

gubernaculum testis

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18
Q

derivatives of paramesonephric duct/mullerian duct in female

A

uterus and cervix
fallopian tube
upper 1/4 of the vagina
male: appendix testis

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19
Q

derivatives of mesonephric duct/wolffian duct in male

A 
vas deferens
ejaculatory duct
epididymis
seminal vesicle
female: gartner's duct
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20
Q

derivatives of urogenital sinus in female

A

lower 3/4 of the vagina
vestibule
bladder
urethra

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21
Q

mullerian duct agenesis

A

rokitansky-kuster-hauser syndrome

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22
Q

derivatives of urogenital sinus in male

A

urinary bladder
prostate gland
bulbourethral gland

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23
Q

anlage of kidney

A

metanephron

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24
Q

part of hymen that first rupture during first intercourse

A

6 o clock

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25
Q

AKA as periurethral gland

A

skene’s gland

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26
Q

AKA as vulvovaginal gland

A

bartholin’s gland

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27
Q

homologue of periurethral gland

A

prostate gland

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28
Q

homologue of vulvovaginal gland

A

bulbourethral gland

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29
Q

main blood supply of the vagina

A

cervico-vaginal branch of the uterine artery

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30
Q

main blood supply of the perineum

A

internal pudendal artery

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31
Q

blood supply of the cervix

A

cervico-vaginal branch of the uterine artery

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32
Q

hormone sensitive? endo/exocervix?

A

exocervix

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33
Q

position of the long axis of the uterus in relation to the long axis of the “V”agina

A

Version

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34
Q

position of the “F”undus of the uterus in relation to the cervi”X”

A

Fle”X”ion

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35
Q

divide the pelvic cavity into anterior and posterior part

A

borad ligament

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36
Q

AKA transverse cervical ligament or mackenrodt ligament

A

cardinal ligament

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37
Q

major support of the uterus and cervix

A

cardinal ligament

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38
Q

maintain the anatomical position of the cervix and upper part of the vagina

A

cardinal ligament

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39
Q

termination of round ligament

A

upper portion labia majora

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40
Q

ectopic in this area result in severe maternal morbidity

A

intramural/interstitial

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41
Q

prefered portion for tubal ligation

A

isthmus

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42
Q

narrowest portion of FT

A

isthmus

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43
Q

site of fertilization

A

ampulla

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44
Q

widest and most tortuous part of FT

A

ampulla

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45
Q

site of most ectopic pregnancy

A

ampulla

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46
Q

at what aspect of broad ligament does ovary lies?

A

posterior

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47
Q

in relation to uterus, where does common illiac artery bifurcates?

A

lateral to the uterus at the pelvic side wall

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48
Q

ovary is attached to the broad ligament thru?

A

mesovarium

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49
Q

is ovary covered with peritoneum?

A

no

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50
Q

blood supply of pudenda

A

pudendal artery

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51
Q

improper placement of legs in the stirrups. nerve? will result to?

A

peroneal nerve - foot drop

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52
Q

pressure from the lateral blade of self retaining retractor during abdminal hysterectomy

A

femoral nerve

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53
Q

on dorsal lithotomy position, sacroiliac joint inc by?

A

1.5 to 2.0 cm

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54
Q

smallest plane in which baby must pass

A

midpelvis

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55
Q

boundaries of pelvic inlet

A

post: sacral promontory
ant: Symphisis pubis
lateral: linea terminalis

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56
Q

transverse diameter

A

2 farthest point of the brim

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57
Q

right and left oblique diameter

A

13cm

from sacroilliac joint to opposite illiopubic emminence

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58
Q

posterior sagital diameter

A

4cm

intersection of obstertric conjugate and the transverse diameter

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59
Q

anatomic conjugate

A

11cm

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60
Q

obstetrical conjugate

A

Diagonal conjugate - 1.5

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61
Q

diagonal conjugate

A

11.5cm

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62
Q

the only pelvic conjugate that can be measured clinically

A

diagonal conjugate

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63
Q

signs of contraction of midpelvis

A

ischial spine is prominent
sidewalls are convergent
sacrum is shallow
sacroilliac notch is narrow

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64
Q

midpelvis diameter

A

> 10cm

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65
Q

pelvic outlet diameter

A

> 8cm

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66
Q

internal rotation occurs at this level

A

ischial spine

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67
Q

forceps is only applied if the head is at this level

A

ischial spine

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68
Q

pudendal nerve block is carried out at what site?

A

ischial spine

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69
Q

external os is normally located at what level?

A

ischial spine

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70
Q

in treatment of cervical prolapse, ring pesary is applied above what level?

A

ischial spine

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71
Q

pelvic type with inc incidence of deep transverse arrest

A

android

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72
Q

pelvic type with inc incidence of face delivery

A

anthropoid

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73
Q

ape-like pelvis

A

android

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74
Q

vaginal delivery is almost impossible with this type of pelvis

A

android

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75
Q

the 1st meiotic division of primary oocyte arrested at what stage?

A

prophase

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76
Q

the 2nd meiotic division of secondary oocyte arrested at what stage?

A

metaphase II

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77
Q

how many eggs ovulated in a lifetime

A

500 (400)

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78
Q

has FSH receptor

A

granulosa cell

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79
Q

has LH receptor

A

theca cell

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80
Q

how many oocyte produce during fetal period

A

6-7 million

at birth - 1-2 million
puberty - 400,000

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81
Q

hormone that causes the ferning of the cervical mucous

A

estrogen

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82
Q

peak of LH secretion

A

10 to 12 hours before the ovulation

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83
Q

ovulation occurs approx when?

A

day 14

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84
Q

mid cycle pain

A

mittelschmers

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85
Q

causes mid cycle pain

A

corpus hemorrhagicum

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86
Q

key to the initiation of ECM breakdown of the functional layer

A

pseudoinflammatory

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87
Q

the most striking and constant event observed in the menstrual cycle

A

period of vasoconstriction

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88
Q

on what day of menstruation does restoration of endomentrium completes?

A

5th day

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89
Q

the most important factors in recovery of the endometrium

A

estrogen during the early follicular phase

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90
Q

earliest histological evidence of progesterone action?

A

basal vacuolation

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91
Q

predominant hormone during follicular phase

A

estrogen

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92
Q

predominant hormone during luteal phase

A

progesterone

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93
Q

layer of decidua that is in direct contact with chorion

A

decidua capsularis

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94
Q

AKA decidua vera

A

decidua parietalis

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95
Q

layer of decidua that will become unresponsive to vasoactive agent

A

decidua basalis

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96
Q

layer of decidua that will eventually dissapears

A

decidua capsularies

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97
Q

inner cell mass will become?

A

embryoblast

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98
Q

outer cell mass will become?

A

trophoblast

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99
Q

blastocyst implantation will occur when?

A

day 7 post conception

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100
Q

usual site of implantation

A

posterior superior wall of the uterus

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101
Q

morula enters the uterine cavity when?

A

day 3 post comception

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102
Q

produces HCG

A

syncytiotrophoblast

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103
Q

forms the yolk sac

A

hypoblast

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104
Q

contains the amniotic cavity

A

epiblast

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105
Q

coincides with first missed menstrual period

susceptible to teratogen

A

embryonic week 3 to 8

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106
Q

process that establishes the 3 primary layer.

A

gastrulation

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107
Q

CNS and PNS is derived from?

A

ectoderm

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108
Q

sensory organ of seeing and hearing is derived from?

A

ectoderm

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109
Q

lining of GI and Respi is derived from?

A

endoderm

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110
Q

RBC is derived from?

A

Mesoderm

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111
Q

CVS is derived from?

A

Mesoderm

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112
Q

Urogenital system is derived from?

A

Mesoderm

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113
Q

organ that is first to develop

A

CNS

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114
Q

heart, upper limb and lower limb will be completes its development when?

A

8 weeks

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115
Q

external genitalia will completes it development when?

A

9 weeks

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116
Q

normal AF at term

A

840ml

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117
Q

weight of placenta at term

A

450 to 500 grams

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118
Q

age of the fetus base on the time lapsed since the LMP

A

gestational age/ menstrual age

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119
Q

age of the fetus base from the time of fertilization/ovulation

A

ovulation age/post conceptional age

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120
Q

uterus palpable above the SP

A

12 weeks

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121
Q

the gender can be identified

A

14 weeks

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122
Q

quickening can be felt

A

16 to 20 weeks

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123
Q

testis starts to descend

A

32 weeks

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124
Q

testis is at inguinal canal/scrotum

A

40 weeks

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125
Q

use to determine the AOG via UTZ during first trimester

A

CRL

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126
Q

functional closure of FO

A

several minutes after birth

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127
Q

anatomical closure of FO

A

1 year after birth

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128
Q

functional closure of Ductus arteriosus

A

10 to 12 hours

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129
Q

anatomical closure of ductus arteriosus

A

2 to 3 weeks

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130
Q

test for fetomaternal hge

A

kleihauer bethke test

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131
Q

most active component of surfactant

A

dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (DPPC)

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132
Q

acounts for 80% of glycerophospholipids in surfactant.

A

phosphatidylcholine (lecithin)

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133
Q

chromosomal sex is determined when?

A

fertilization

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134
Q

secretes mullerian inhibiting factor

A

sertoli cell

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135
Q

secretes testosterone

A

leydig cell

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136
Q

hormone responsible for formation of male internal genitalia

A

testosterone

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137
Q

hormone responsible for formation of male external genitalia

A

DHT

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138
Q

hormone that is responsible to maternal insulin resistance

A

Human placental lactogen

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139
Q

preferred precursor of progesterone biosynthesis by the trophoblast

A

maternal plasma LDL cholesterol

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140
Q

estrogen type that is a marker for fetal well-being

A

estriol

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141
Q

softening and compresability of the isthmus on 6 to 8 week AOG

A

Hegar’s sign

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142
Q

reason for inc incidence of gallstone in pregnancy

A

progesteron inhibits CCK

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143
Q

reason for inntrahepatic cholestasis and pruritus gravidarum

A

estrogen inhibits intraductal transmission of bile acid to the GB

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144
Q

all Coagulation factors inc during pregnancy except?

A

F11 and F13

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145
Q

total weight gain of a pregnant women

A

24 lbs

1st - 2lbs
2nd - 11 lbs
3rd - 11 lbs

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146
Q

crystalization and beading is due to?

A

progesteron

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147
Q

chadwick sign:

a. presumptive
b. probable
c. definitive

A

presumptive evidence

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148
Q

Hegar sign

a. presumptive
b. probable
c. definitive

A

probable

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149
Q

Goodell’s sign

a. presumptive
b. probable
c. definitive

A

probable

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150
Q

braxton hick’s contraction

a. presumptive
b. probable
c. definitive

A

probable

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151
Q

postive pregnancy test

a. presumptive
b. probable
c. definitive

A

probable

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152
Q

ballotement

a. presumptive
b. probable
c. definitive

A

probable

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153
Q

cessation of menses

a. presumptive
b. probable
c. definitive

A

presumptive

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154
Q

FHR at doppler can be detected when?

A

10 weeks

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155
Q

FHR at stet can be detected when?

A

17-19 weeks

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156
Q

best time for OGCT

A

24 to 28 weeks

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157
Q

treatment for asymptomatic bacteriuria

A

nitrofurantoin
amoxicillin
1st gen cephalosphorin

158
Q

average weight gain in pregnancy

A

27.5lbs (25 to 35 lbs)

159
Q

contraindicated vaccine for pregnant women

A

MMR
Polio
varicella
yellow fever

160
Q

hormone responsible for morning sickness

A

high level of hCG

161
Q

paglilihi or pica is due to?

A

iron deficiency

162
Q

treatment for bacterial vaginosis

A

metronidazole 500mg/tab bid x 7days

163
Q

at what AOG does uterine size correlates with AOG?

A

20 to 31 weeks

164
Q

when to instruct the patient for fetal movement counting?

A

28 weeks

165
Q

normal fetal movement counting?

A

8-10 kicks / 2 hours

166
Q

screening for NTD should be done when?

A

16 - 18 weeks

167
Q

GBS infection screening should be done when?

A

35 to 37 weeks

168
Q

NST should be done when?

A

> 41 weeks

169
Q

leopolds maneuver should be done when?

A

35 - 37 weeks

170
Q

DOC for intrapartum prophylaxis for GBS

A

Pen G

171
Q

test for uteroplacental function

A

Contraction Stress test

172
Q

criteria for reassuring CST or negative CST

A

no late decelaration in the presence of 3 UC in 10 minute period

173
Q

5 components of biophysical profile

A 
FHR
Fetal breathing
fetal movement
fetal tone
amniotic fluid volume
174
Q

criteria for non reassuring umbilical artery doppler velocimetery

A

absent or reversed End diastolic flow (ARED)

175
Q

normal FHT

A

110-160 bpm

176
Q

important index of CV function

single most impt indicator of an adequately oxygenated fetus

A

baseline / beat to beat variability

177
Q

normal variability

A

moderate variability (6-25)

178
Q

etiology of early deceleration

A

head compression

179
Q

etiology of variable decelaeation

A

umbilical cord compression

180
Q

etiology of late deceleration

A

uteroplacental insufficiency

181
Q

five cranial signs of NTD

A 
small BPD
ventriculomegaly
lemon sign
banana sign
effecement of cisterna magnus
182
Q

frontal bone scalloping

A

lemon sign

183
Q

elongation and downward displacement of the cerebellum

A

banana sign

184
Q

general marker for abnormal development

A

ventriculomegaly

185
Q

decrease on triple and quadruple serum markers is indicative of?

A

trisomy 18

186
Q

decrease on triple and quadruple serum markers except for hCG and inhibin is indicative of?

A

trisomy 21

187
Q

nuchal translucency

A

down syndrome

188
Q

hormone responsible for maintenance of phase 1 of parturition or quiescence.

A

progesterone

189
Q

at what phase of parturition does braxton hicks occur?

A

phase 1 or quiesence

190
Q

hormone responsible for pahse 2 of parturition or activation

A

estrogen

191
Q

at what phase of parturition does lightening or baby drop occurs?

A

phase 2 or activation

192
Q

at what phase of parturition does formation of lower uterine segment occurs?

A

phase 2 or activation

193
Q

most common fetal lie

A

longitudinal lie

194
Q

most common fetal presentation

A

cephalic

195
Q

most common fetal position

A

LOA

196
Q

collection of fluid in vagina (what test?)

A

pool test

197
Q

in nitrazine test, when the paper turns blue it indicates that the amniotic fluid is in what pH?

A

alkaline

198
Q

crystalization of amniotic fluid (what test?)

A

fern test

199
Q

if the cervix is as thin as LUS it said to be that cervix is how many % effaced?

A

100

200
Q

bishop scoring is to determine what?

A

status of cervix

201
Q

cervical position if the fetus is low down the cervix

A

anterior

202
Q

bishop score that indicates the probability of vaginal delivery

A

> =8

203
Q

most important force in the expulsion of the fetus

A

maternal intraabdominal pressure

204
Q

normal cervical length

A

2-2.5 cm (?)

205
Q

pathologic retraction ring, extreme thining of the LUS in obstructed labor

A

ring of bandl

206
Q

first pre requisite for birth

A

descent

207
Q

narrowest fetal head diameter

A

suboccipitobregmatic

208
Q

greatest transverse diameter of fetal head

A

BPD

209
Q

cardinal movement that allows the suboccipitobregmatic to present in birth canal

A

flexion

210
Q

when does BPD pass through the pelvic inlet?

A

engagement

211
Q

duration of latent phase on nullipara

A
212
Q

duration of latent phase on multipara

A
213
Q

at what cervical dilatation does descent begins?

A

7-8 cm

214
Q

duration of active phase on nullipara?

A
215
Q

duration of active phase on multipara?

A
216
Q

duration of 2nd stage of labor on nullipara?

A

50 minutes

217
Q

duration of 2nd stage of labor on multipara?

A

20 minutes

218
Q

duration of 3rd stage of labor

A

5 minutes

219
Q

predictive of outcome of labor (division of active phase)

A

acceleration phase

220
Q

measures overall efficinecy of the machine (division of active phase)

A

phase of maximum slope

221
Q

reflective of the fetopelvic relationship (division of active phase)

A

deceleration phase

222
Q

the hand may be used to exert forward pressure on the chin of the fetus through the perineum just front of the coccyx and the other hand exerts presssure posteriorly against the occiput

A

ritgen maneuver

223
Q

what sign is when the uterus becomes globular and firmer

A

calkin sign

224
Q

degree of laceration when fascia and perineal muscles is involve

A

second degree

225
Q

early amniotomy accelerates labor by?

A

4 hours

226
Q

late amniotomy accelerates labor by?

A

2 hours

227
Q

nerve supply of lower genital tract

A

pain on second stage of labor

228
Q

nerve supply of upper genital tract

A

pain on first stage of labor

229
Q

anesthetic agent that is contraindicated in patient with pre eclampsia

A

ketamine

230
Q

blocked by paracervical block

A

frankenhauser ganglion plexus (T11-T12)

231
Q

ob anesthesia procedure that is most ideal for eclampsia and pre eclampsia

A

epidural anesthesia

232
Q

forcep, for delivery of fetus with molded head

A

simpson

233
Q

forcep, for delivery of fetus with rounded head

A

tucker mac lane

234
Q

forcep, for transverse arrest of the head

A

kielland

235
Q

transverse suprapubic abdominal incision

A

pfannenstiel

236
Q

transverse abdominal incision made with rectus muscle and are divided with scissors

A

maylard

237
Q

uterin incision above the LUS upto fundus

A

classical

238
Q

transverse incision at LUS, least likely to rupture, does not promote adhesion

A

kerr/LTCS/transverse

239
Q

vertical incision at LUS

A

kronig

240
Q

MC indication for primary CS delivery?

A

dystocia

241
Q

time interval immediately after the delivery of the placenta up to the time when the reproductive organs return to their normal non-pregnant condition.

A

puerperium

242
Q

puerperium usually last for how many weeks?

A

6 weeks

243
Q

uterus will regain non-pregnant size on what week post partum?

A

4 weeks

244
Q

signs and symptpoms of subinvoluted uterus

A

prolongation of lochial discharge
irregular or excessive uterine bleeding
profuse hemorrhage
on bimanual exam: uterus is large and softer than normal

245
Q

on post-partum bimanual exam:

A

subinvolution

246
Q

DOC for subinvoluted uterus

A

methylergonovine

247
Q

how long does vaginal ruggae reappear?

A

4 weeks

248
Q

breast feeding can provide contraception until?

A

6 months

249
Q

colostrum has all vitamins except?

A

vitamin k

250
Q

fever of >38 C that occur on any two of the first 10 days post partum, EXCLUSIVE of the first 24 hours

A

post partum fever

251
Q

most common risk factor for post partum fever

A

route of delivery

252
Q

most common cause of post partum fever

A

endometriosis

253
Q

three or more consecutive spontaneous abortion

A

recurrent abortion

254
Q

most common cause of spontaneous abortion during 1st trimester

A

chromosomal abnormality (trisomy)

255
Q

type of abortion that is characterized by ruptured BOW in the presence of cervical dilatation.

A

inevitable abortion

256
Q

on UTZ: empty getational sac in blighted ovum.

A

missed abortion

257
Q

resumption of ovulation after abortion occurs when?

A

2 weeks

258
Q

cannon ball exudates on CXR

A

metastasis of h.mole at lungs

259
Q

MC site of GTT metastasis

A

lung

260
Q

2nd MC site of GTT metastasis

A

brain

261
Q

medical treatment for non-metastatic GTT

A

methotrexate/actinomycin

262
Q

MC cause of pregnancy related death during the 1st trimester

A

ectopic pregnancy

263
Q

most identified RF for ectopic pregnancy

A

PID

264
Q

velamentous insertion of umbilical cord

A

vasa previa

265
Q

all previas deleivered by CS except

A

low lying placenta

266
Q

painless vaginal bleeding on 3rd trimester

A

placenta previa

267
Q

painful bleeding on 3rd trimester with crampy adominal pain. associated with hypertension and previous trauma

A

abruptio placenta

268
Q

UTZ: retroperitoneal blood clot

A

abruptio placenta

269
Q

uterine apoplexy, extravasation of blood into the myometrium and between the serosa

A

couvelaire uterus

270
Q

MC cause of uterine rupture

A

separation of previous CS scar

271
Q

type of abruptio placenta that has external bleeding into the vagina

A

overt

272
Q

type of abruptio placenta that the bleeding remain inside.

A

concealed

273
Q

Prolonged PROM, PROM that occurs?

A

> 18 hours

274
Q

ROM occurs >37 weeks

A

PROM

275
Q

ROM occurs

A

PPROM

276
Q

biochemical markers for preterm labor

A

fetal fibronectin and salivary estriol

277
Q

MC S/E of Mg SO4?

A

flushing

278
Q

causes premature constriction of ductus aretriosus

A

indomethacin

279
Q

type of breech with high incidence of cord prolpase

A

incomplete breech

280
Q

type of breech with lowest incidence of cord prolapse

A

frank

281
Q

delivery of the posterior shoulder ahead of the anterior

A

loveset maneuver

282
Q

the index and the Middle finger are placed over the baby’s Maxilla to maintain flexion

A

Mauriceau Maneuver

283
Q

prefered method for breech delivery

A

piper’s forcep

284
Q

fingers are placed over the shoulder and upward traaction is made, legs are grasped and body is swung over abdomen.

A

prague maneuver

285
Q

breech is allowed to deliver spontaneously up to the navel, suprapubic pressure is then applied

A

bracht maneuver

286
Q

breech decompostion, frank breech to footling delivery

A

pinard’s maneuver

287
Q

incision of the cervix at 2, 6, and 10 o clock position

A

duhrssen incision

288
Q

replacement of the fetus higher into the vagina and uterus, followed by CS

A

zavanelli maneuver

289
Q

surgical incision of the fibrocartilage of the Symphisis pubis

A

symphisiotomy

290
Q

an active phase disorder where in there is an slow rate of cervical dilatation or descent

A

protraction disorder

291
Q

complete cessation of of dilatation or descent

A

arrest disorder

292
Q

pelvic inlet contraction (criteria)

A

diagonal conjugate less than 11.5cm
shortest AP diameter less than 9cm
greatest transverse diameter less than 12cm

293
Q

prominent ischial spine
convergent sidewall
narrow sacrosciatic notch

A

midpelvis contraction

294
Q

intertuberous

A

outlet contraction

295
Q

acromion presentation

A

transverse lie

296
Q

extremity proplapse alongside the presenting part with both presenting in the pelvis at the same time

A

compound presentation

297
Q

deep transverse arrest of the head is associated with what type of pelvis?

A

android and platypoid

298
Q

deep transverse arrest of the head can be delivered via?

A

kielland forcep

299
Q

flexion of the thigh upon patient’s abdomen.

A

mc robert’s maneuver

300
Q

progressively rotating the posterior shoulder 180 degrees.

A

wood’s corkscrew maneuver

301
Q

fetal shoulder rocks from side to side by applying force on the mother’s abdomen or pressure on the accessible fetal chest

A

rubin’s maneuver

302
Q

shoulder horn instrument consisting of a concave blade with long handle, slipped between the symphisis pubis and impacted shoulder

A

chavis maneuver

303
Q

posterior arm sweep across the chest wall, followed by delivery of the arm

A

delivery of the posterior shoulder

304
Q

pressure is applied to the infants jaw and neck in the direction of the mother’s rectum with strong fundal pressure applied by the assitant as anterior shoulder is freed

A

hibbard’s maneuver

305
Q

cephalic placement into the pelvis

A

zavanelli maneuver

306
Q

cutting of the clavicle with scissors or other sharp instruments

A

cleidotomy

307
Q

fetal macrosomia, weight?

A

> 4000 grams

308
Q

normal head circumference

A

32-38 cm

309
Q

in the presence of fetal hydrocephalus, cephalic presentation, cephalecentesis can be done on what cervical dilatation?

A

3cm

310
Q

rate of cervical dilatation: 5cm/hour for nulli and 10cm/hour for multi is called?

A

preciptous labor and delivery

311
Q

volume of blood loss in post partum delivery.

vaginal and cs route.

A

vaginal - >500ml

cs - >1000 ml

312
Q

management for uterine atony

A

uterine massage
oxytocin
methylergonovine
carboprost

313
Q

absence or imperfect development of these layers could lead to placenta accreta

A

decidua basalis and fibrinoid layer (nitabuch layer)

314
Q

pituitary infarct/necrosis following massive blood loss during delivery.

HPE: mother unable to lactate after massive blood loss.

A

sheehan syndrome

315
Q

squamous cells or debris of fetal origin in the central pulmonary circulation.

HPE: hypotension, DOB, DIC

A

amniotic fluid embolism

316
Q

a newborn weighs less than 2500 gms no matter the age of gestation is considered?

A

low birth weight

very low - less than 1500 grams
extremely low - less than 1000 grams

317
Q

fetal weight falls below 10th percentile for gestational age

A

SGA

318
Q

decrease in rate of fetal growth.

A

IUGR

319
Q

accurate at diagnosing IUGR related to placental insufficiency.

A

head to abdominal circumference

320
Q

Amniotic fluid index value for polyhydramnios.

A

> 24-25

321
Q

Amniotic fluid index value for anhydramnios.

A

less than 5

322
Q

if indomethacin is given as your management for polyhydramnios it could cause?

A

premature closure of ductus arteriosus

323
Q

fetal malformation of CNS and GIT could lead to?

A

polyhydramnios

324
Q

obstruction of fetal urinary tract or fetal renal agensis could lead to?

A

oligohydramnios

325
Q

earliest sonographic finding for IUFD/still birth

A

robert sign

gas bubble on fetal heart, aorta and big vessel

326
Q

gas bubble on fetal heart, aorta and big vessel

A

robert sign

327
Q

overlapping of fetal skull bones

A

spalding sign

328
Q

exaggeration of fetal spinal curvature

A

ball sign

329
Q

multiple placenta with a single fetus

A

bipartite/bilobata

330
Q

one or more small accessory lobe developed in the membranes at a distance from the periphery of main placenta.

A

succenturiate

331
Q

placental villi attached to the myometrium.

A

placenta accreta

332
Q

placental villi invade the myometrium.

A

placenta increta

333
Q

placenta penetrate the myometrium

A

placenta percreta

334
Q

UTZ: lack of normal “hypoechoic retroplacental zone”

colored doppler: dilated vascular channels with diffuse lacunar flow

A

placenta accreta/increta/percreta

335
Q

normal length of umbilical cord

A

55-60cm

336
Q

cord insertion at the placental margin

A

marginal insertion (battledore placenta)

337
Q

cord inserts in the membrane at a distance from the placenta, associated with vasa previa.

A

velamentous insertion

338
Q

fetal vessel in the membranes cross the region of internal os and occupy a postion ahead of the presenting part.

A

vasa previa

339
Q

fertilization of 2 different ova forming 2 embryos and 2 human beings.

influenced by race, heredity, parity and infertility drugs.

A

fraternal (dizygotic)

340
Q

fertilization of one ova that subsequently divide into 2 separate embryos.

not influenced by race, heredity, parity and infertility drugs.

A

identical (monozygotic)

341
Q

most common?

a. dichorionic, diamniotic
b. monochorionic, diamniotic
c. monochorionic, monoamniotic

A

monochorionic, diamniotic

342
Q

least mortality?

a. dichorionic, diamniotic
b. monochorionic, diamniotic
c. monochorionic, monoamniotic

A

dichorionic, diamniotic

343
Q

highest mortality?

a. dichorionic, diamniotic
b. monochorionic, diamniotic
c. monochorionic, monoamniotic

A

monochorionic, monoamniotic

344
Q

associated with twin-twin transfusion?

a. dichorionic, diamniotic
b. monochorionic, diamniotic
c. monochorionic, monoamniotic

A

monochorionic, monoamniotic

345
Q

cleavage at day 1 to 3

a. dichorionic, diamniotic
b. monochorionic, diamniotic
c. monochorionic, monoamniotic

A

a. dichorionic, diamniotic

346
Q

cleavage at day 4 to 8

a. dichorionic, diamniotic
b. monochorionic, diamniotic
c. monochorionic, monoamniotic

A

b. monochorionic, diamniotic

347
Q

cleavage at day 9 to 12

a. dichorionic, diamniotic
b. monochorionic, diamniotic
c. monochorionic, monoamniotic

A

c. monochorionic, monoamniotic

348
Q

cleavage after day 12

a. dichorionic, diamniotic
b. monochorionic, diamniotic
c. monochorionic, monoamniotic
d. none

A

none (conjoined twin)

349
Q

fusion of the chest

A

thoracophagus (MC)

350
Q

twin peak sign

A

dichorionic twin

351
Q

T signs/ hair like sign

A

monochorionic twin

352
Q

MC cause of morbidity and mortality in twin pregnancy

A

preterm labor

353
Q

mean age of twin pregnancy

A

35 weeks

354
Q

results from abnormal arerial-venous communications between monochorionic twins

causes anemia or polycythemia

A

discordancy

355
Q

MC presentation of twin

A

cephalic cephalic

356
Q

MC medical complication of pregnancy

A

DM

357
Q

MC CNS anomaly that is most specific with DM

A

caudal regression syndrome

358
Q

best time to screen for congenital anomalies

A

18-22 weeks

359
Q

inc in HBA1c will increase the risk for?

A

NTD/congenital heart defect

360
Q

the only mineral that is proven to prevent NTD, HPN and post partum depression

A

folic acid

361
Q

FBS value of GDM patient

A

> 92 to less than 126

362
Q

FBS value of overt DM

A

> 126

363
Q

OGTT values to diagnosed GDM

A

Fasting: >95mg/dl
1st hour: >180mg/dl
2nd hour: >155mg/dl
3rd hour: >140mg/dl

364
Q

define gestational HPN

A

HPN after 20 weeks AOG/ during 24 hours post partum.
no proteinuria.
BP returns to normal by 12 weeks post partum.
diagnosis made post partum.

365
Q

in GDM FPG should be maintained at?

A

60-90 mg/dl

366
Q

proteinuria. laboratory values for diagnosis.

A

dipstick: 30mg/dl 1+ taken Q6

367
Q

most important RF for gestational hypertension.

A

nulliparity

368
Q

most important etiology of gestation hypertension.

A

exposure to chorionic villi for the first time

369
Q

most consistent anatomical findings of HPN in pregnancy

A

glomerular capillary endotheliosis

370
Q

pathognomonic lesion in eclampsia.

A

periportal hemorrhagic necrosis

371
Q

most common cerebral findings in eclampsia.

A

edema

372
Q

hallmark of placental lesion in pre eclampsia/eclampsia.

A

acute atherosis of decidual arteries

373
Q

most common hematologic findings pre-eclampsia/eclampsia.

A

thrombocytopenia

374
Q

diastolic notch (doppler)
inc stuart index
absent or reversed end diastolic blood flow (ARED)

A

pre-eclampsia (?)

375
Q

most reliable sign in preeclampsia

A

diastolic pressure

376
Q

the only cure for pre eclampsia.

A

delivery

377
Q

what to monitor in patient administered with MgSO4

A

DTR
RR >12
UO >30cc/hr

378
Q

antidote for MgSO4 toxicity

A

calcium gluconate 1gm IV

379
Q

anesthesia of choice for pre eclampsia

A

epidural anesthesia

380
Q

main ingredient in spermicides

A

nonoxynol 9

381
Q

emergency contraception

A

levonorgestrel/mifepristone

382
Q

contraceptive for lactating mother

A

progestin only pill

383
Q

after vasectomy man should ejaculate how many times?

A

14 to 20 ejaculation

384
Q

similar to pomeroy but without excision, segment is lifted and crashed by hemostat and tied at base

A

madlener method

crash!!! = mad!

385
Q

isthmus is cut, proximal segment buried at myometrium, distal end in mesosalphinx.

A

irving method

burried “nilibing si irving”

386
Q

a window is made in the mesosalphinx and a segment of isthmus is tied proximally and distally and then excised.

A

parkland method

window sa park

387
Q

segment is tied and a suture is tied around the aprroximated base.

the resulting loop is excised, leaving a gap between the proximal and distal ends

A

pomeroy method

388
Q

epinephrine is injected beneath the serosa of the isthmus.
the mesosalphinx is reflected off the tube, and the proximal end of the tube is ligated and excised. the distal end is not excised. the mesosalphinx is reattached to the excised proximal stump, while the long distal end is left to “dangle” outside of the mesosalphinx.

A

uchida method

ui! kita ang nakadangle!

389
Q

resection of the distal ampulla and fimbrae following ligation around the proximal ampulla.

A

kroener method

F-K!!!

390
Q

Groove sign

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

OB Gyne (7 decks)

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