Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Thurman > OB Complications- Test 2 > Flashcards

OB Complications- Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

preterm infant

A

prior to 37 weeks gestation

between 20 0/7 and 36 6/7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

low birth weight

A

<2500 gm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

very low birth weight

A

<1500 gm at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

extremely low birth weight

A

<1000 gm at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

threshold of viability

A

22-24 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

demographic characteristics of preterm

A 
non caucasian race
extremes in ages (<17 or >35 yrs)
low socioeconomic status
lowe prepregnancy BMI
history or preterm delivery
interpregnancy interval <6 months
abnormal uterine anatomy
truma
abd surgery during pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

behavioral factors

A

tobacco use

substance abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

obstetric factors

A 
vaginal bleeding
infection
short cervical length
multiple gestations
assisted reproductive technologies
preterm premature rupture of membranes
polyhydramnios
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

process of parturition

A

0-quiescence
1-activation
2-stimulation
3- involution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

causes of preterm labor

A

systemic and uterine infections (most common)
uteroplacental thrombosis
intrauterine vascular lesions (fetal stress or decidual hemorrhage)
uterine overdistension
cervical insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

preterm delivery due to

A

preterm premature rupture of membranes
spontaneous preterm labor
maternal fetal indications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

preterm anestheic management

A

neuroaxial
csection
tocolytic therapy (CCB, Indomethacin (cycooxygenase inhibitor), terbutaline (beta adrenergic receptor agonist), magnesium sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

side effects of terbutaline

A

hypotension, tachycardia, pulmonary edema, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

presentation

A

portion of fetus over pelvic inlet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

lie

A

alignment of fetal spine with maternal spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

position

A

relationship of specific fetal bony point to maternal pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

occiput

A

position for vertex presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

sacrum

A

postion for a breech presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

mentum

A

position for face presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

acromion

A

position for shoulder presenation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

uterine distension or relaxation factors associated with breech presentation

A

multiparity
multiple gestation
hydramnios
macrosomia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

abnormalities of the uterus or pelvis factors associated with breech presentaiton

A

pelvic tumors
uterine anomalies
pelvic contracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

abnormalities of the fetus factors associated with breech presentation

A

hydrocephalus

anencephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

obstetric conditions factors associated with breech presentation

A 
previous breech delivery
preterm gestation
oligohydramnios
cornual-fundal placenta
placenta previa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

anesthesia for breech delivery

A

should be in OR and prepped for emergency GA
may need more dense anesthesia
increase GA halogenated agents for uterine relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the worst fear for breech delivery

A

fetal head entrapment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what agent could be used to produce uterine relaxation for breech presentation if using NA

A

NTG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the LA of choice for a dense block while delivering breech baby

A

3% chloroprocaine or 2% lidocaine with epi and bicarb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

monoxygotic twins

A

single fertilized ovum divides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

disygotic twins

A

2 ova fertilized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

placentation

A

dichorionic diamniotic
monochorionic diamniotic
monochorionic amniotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

multiple gestation

A

cardiovascular and respiratory changes intensified
20% greater CO
15% great SV
3.5% increase in HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the two causes of hypoxemia occuring more rapidly?

A

decrease in FRC and increase in maternal metabolic rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

maternal weight is greater rate at what time for multiple gestation parturients?

A

30 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

plasma volume is increased with multple gestation parturients by what value

A

750mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

fetal complications associated with multiple gestation

A 
preterm delivery
congenital anomalies
polyhydramnios
cord entanglement
cord prolapse
fetal growth restriction
twin to twin transfusion
malpresentation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

maternal complications associated with multiple gestation

A 
preterm rupture of membranes
preterm labor
prolonged labor
preeclapsia or eclampsia
placental abruption
DIC
operative delivery
uterine atony
obstetric trauma
antepartum or postpartum hemorrhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the optimal management of multiple gestation labor?

A

epidural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

true or false multiple gestation pregnancies require full lateral position

A

yes increased risk for aortocaval compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

true or false multpile gestations require large bore IVs

A

true, increased risk of hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

when should epidurals be augmented for delivery of multiple gestations?

A

for delivery of twin A; augment with more concentrated local

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what should sensory level for delivery of twin A be?

A

T6-T8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

where should the sensory level be extended to for delivery of baby B?

A

T4-T8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

If cesarean required for twin B, what med should be added?

A

nonparticulate antacid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

gestational hypertension

A

HTN after 20 wks WITHOUT proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

when does gestational HTN resolve?

A

12 wks postpartum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

preeclampsia

A

new onset HTN and proteinuria after 20 wks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

if no proteinuria preeclampsia should be considered with new onset HTN after 20 weeks and the addition of?

A 
persistent epigastric or RUQ pain
persistent cerebral symptoms
fetal growth restriction
thrombocytopenia
elevated liver enzymes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

eclampsia is signaled with the onset of what?

A

seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

HELLP syndrome stands for what?

A

homolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count in woman with preeclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

chronic hypertension

A

prepregnancy systolic BP >140 and or diastolic >90 or elevated unresolved BP after delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

chronic HTN with superimposed preeclampsia

A

presence of HTN prior to pregnancy

new onset proteinuria or sudden increaes in proteinuria or hypertension or both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia without severe features

A

BP >140/90 after 20 wks
proteinuria (>300mg/24hrs)
protein-creatnine ration >0.3 or 1 on dipstick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

preeclapsia with severe symptoms

A

BP >160/110
thrombocytopenia (platelets <100,000/mm3)
serum cr concentration >1.1mg/dl or >2 from baseline
pulmonary edema
new onset cerebral or visual disturbances
impaired liver function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

maternal syndrome

A

HTN and proteinuria with or without other systemic abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

fetal syndrome

A

fetal growth restriction
oligohydramnios
abnormal oxygen exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

preeclampsia presents more frequently in this pooulation

A

nulliparous usually 3rd trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

when does preeclampsia usually resolve?

A

within 48 hrs of delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what CNS symptoms accompany preeclampsia

A 
severe HA
hyperexcitability
hyperreflexia
coma
visual disturbances (scotoma, amaurosis, blurred vision)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

true or false; eclampsia is outward manifestation of disease progression in the brain

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

airway changes in preeclampsia

A

pharyngolaryngeal edema

subglottic edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

pulmonary changes in preeclampsia

A

DECREASED colloid osmotic pressure
INCREASED vascular permeability
loss of intravascular fluid and protein into interstitium
–> pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

cardiovascular effects of preeclampsia

A 
hypertension
vasospams
end organ ischemia
hyperdynamic state
increase CO
hyperdynamic LV function
increased SVR
exaggerated response to catecholamines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

hematologic changes in preeclampsia

A

thrombocytopenia (most common) platelets <100,000

DIC (in liver involvement, intrauterine fetal demise, placental abruption, postpartum hemorrhage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

liver presentation in preeclampsia

A

periportal hemorrhage and fibrin deposits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

renal presentation in preeclampsia

A

proteinuria,
decreased GFR
hyperuricemia
oliguria (late but severe symptom)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

labetolol dose

A

20mg IV then 40-80mg q 10mins

max 220mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

hydralazine dose

A

5mg q 20mins

max 20mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

nifedipine dose

A

10mg PO q 20mins up to 50mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

nicardipine dose

A

initial infusion of 5mg/h, increase by 2.5mg/h every 5min to max of 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

sodium nitroprusside dose

A

0.25-5 mcg/kg/min IV infusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

nifedipine dose

A

10mg PO q 20mins up to 50mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

nicardipine dose

A

initial infusion of 5mg/h, increase by 2.5mg/h every 5min to max of 15

74
Q

sodium nitroprusside dose

A

0.25-5 mcg/kg/min IV infusion

75
Q

seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia

A

mag sulfate

76
Q

loading dose of mag

A

4-6gm over 20-30 minutes

77
Q

maintenance dose of mag

A

1-3 g/hr

78
Q

duration of maintenance mag

A

2hrs preop
during surgery
12-24 hrs postop

79
Q

therapeutic range of mag

A

5-9mg/dL chestnut

4-6 mEq/L M&M

80
Q

symptoms of hypermagnesemia

A

patellar reflexes lost at 12 mg/dL
respiratory arrest at 15-20 mg/dL
asystole at 25 mg/dL

81
Q

treatment of hypermagnesemia

A

stop infusion and start calcium gluconate

82
Q

how long is delivery deferred for HELLP?

A

24-48 hrs for corticosteroids to enhance fetal lungs

83
Q

thrombocytopenia of HELLP

A

platelets <100,000mm3

84
Q

hemolysis of HELLP

A

abnormal peripheral blood smear
increased bilirubin >1.2 mg/dL
increased LDH >600 IU/L

85
Q

elevated liver enzyme levels for HELLP

A

increased AST >70 IU/L

increased LDH >600 IU/L

86
Q

thrombocytopenia of HELLP

A

platelets <100,000mm3

87
Q

anesthesia plan for hypertensive disorders

A

expect difficult airway
may need a line or cvp
preferred continuous lumbar epidural or CSE

88
Q

when should neuroaxial be initiated with hypertensive disorders

A

early; avoids GA, optimizes placement before platelets decrease, beneficial effects on uteroplacental perfusion

89
Q

advantages of cont. epidural or CSE

A

analgesia
reduced catecholamines
improved intervillous blood flow
means for csection

90
Q

disadvantage of cont. epidural or CSE

A

cant evaluate function of epidural until spinal gone

91
Q

what signifies preeclampsia has progressed to eclampsia?

A

new onset seizures or unexplained coma

92
Q

when does fetal bradycardia occur with seizure associated with eclampsia?

A

during or immeditely after; persistant requires immediate delivery

93
Q

which drugs are appropriate to adminster during or after sz associated with eclampsia?

A

magnesium 4-6g over 20min
1-2 g for maint
2g for recurrence

antihypertensives
labetalol or hydralazine

94
Q

fluid balance required for managment of eclampsia

A

75-100mL/hr to prevent cerebral edema

95
Q

is continuous FHR monitoring required for eclampsia?

A

yes

96
Q

do you need coag studies regardless of platelet count?

A

yes

97
Q

total placenta previa

A

covers entire cervical os

98
Q

partial placenta previa

A

covers only part of the cervical os

99
Q

marginal placenta previa

A

lies within 2cm of the cervical os

100
Q

what is the classic sign of placenta previa?

A

painless vaginal bleeding in the 2nd and 3rd trimester

101
Q

when will placenta previa require csection?

A

for total previa or placental edge to os distance <1cm = significant bleeding

102
Q

what does the anesthetic plan for placenta previa depend on?

A

indication and urgency for delivery
severity of maternal hypovolemia
obstetric history

103
Q

what is the anesthetic plan of choice for placenta previa?

A

neuroaxial

104
Q

what is required for delivery of placenta previa?

A

2 large bore IVs

RSI if GA

105
Q

what drugs should be considered for GA of placenta previa?

A

low dose propofol
ketamine 0.5-1mg/kg
etomidate 0.3mg/kg

106
Q

placental abruption

A

complete or partial separation of placenta from decidua basalis before delivery of the fetus

107
Q

what are some of the complications associated with placental abruption?

A

hemorrhagic shock
coagulopathy
fetal compromise or death

108
Q

what ist the preferred technique for labor and vaginal delivery of placental abruption?

A

NA

109
Q

what is the preferred technique for CS of placental abruption?

A

NA if volume and coags ok

110
Q

what are the best agents for GA in urgent delivery of placental abruption?

A

ketamine and etomidate

111
Q

what is a potential risk associated with placental abruption?

A

trapped blood under placenta

112
Q

what are obstetric condiotions associated with placental abruption?

A 
advanced maternal age
multiparity
preeclampsia
premature rupture of membranes
chorioamnionitis
113
Q

maternal comorbitites associated with placental abruption?

A 
hypertension
acute or chronic resp illness
substance abuse
cocaine use
tobacco use (maternal or paternal)
114
Q

trauma associatd with placental abruption

A

direct (blunt abdominal)

indirect (acceleration/deceleration)

115
Q

obstetric conditions associated with uterine rupture?

A 
prior uterine surgery
induction of labor
high dose oxytocin induction
prostaglandin induction
morbidly adherent placenta
grand multiparity (>5)
congenital uterine anomaly (bicorniculate uterus)
116
Q

maternal comobidities associated with uterine rupture

A

connective tissue disorder (ehlers-danlos)

117
Q

obstetric characteristics of uterine rupture

A

corceps delivery
internal podalic version
excessive fundal pressure

118
Q

nonobstetric conditions associated with uterine rupture

A

blunt
penetrating
trauma

119
Q

presenting signs of uterine rupture

A

abdominal pain and abnormal FHR pattern

120
Q

what anesthesia method is necessary for uterine rupture

A

GA unless epidural is already established

121
Q

what should be part of the anesthetic plan for uterine rupture

A

agressive volume replacement
monitor UOP
invasive monitoring?

122
Q

vasa previa

A

fetal vessels cross fental membranes before presenting part

123
Q

what usually occurs to fetal membranes in vasa previa

A

rupture of fetal membranes usually tears vessels leads to fetal exsanguination

124
Q

what is generally the plan for vasa previa?

A

immediate delivery- GA

125
Q

primary postpartum hemorrhage occurs when?

A

first 24 hrs

126
Q

secondary postpartum hemorrhage occurs when?

A

between 24hrs and 6wks

127
Q

uterine atony accounts for what?

A

80% of hemorrhage

128
Q

treatment of uterine atony includes

A

IV crystalloids colloids, vasopressors
H&H, coags
blood products

129
Q

obstetric management associated with uterine atony

A

CS
induction of labor
augmented labor

130
Q

obstetric conditions associated with uterine atony

A 
multiple gestations
macrosomia
polyhydramnios
high parity
prolonged labor
precipitous labor
chorioamnionitis
131
Q

maternal comorbidities associated with uterine atony

A

advanced maternal age
hypertensive disease
diabetes

132
Q

other conditions associated with uterine atony

A

tocolytic drugs

high concentrations of halogenated volatiles

133
Q

oxytocin dose for postpartum hemorrhage

A

0.3-0.6 IU/min IV

short duration of effect

134
Q

side effects of oxytocin

A

tachycardia
hypotension
MI
free water retention

135
Q

ergonovine or methylergonovine dose for postpartum hemorrhage

A

0.2 mg IM

long DOA- may be repeated once after 1 hr

136
Q

side effects of ergonovine or methylergonovine

A

N/V
arteriolar constriction
HTN

137
Q

relative contraindications to ergonovine or methylergonovine

A

HTN
preeclampsia
CAD

138
Q

dose fo 15-methylprostaglandin

A

0.25 mg IM

may be repeated q15mins up to 2mg

139
Q

relative contraindications for 15-methylprostaglandin

A

reactive airway disease
pulm. HTN
hypoxemia

140
Q

side effects of 15-methylprostaglandin

A 
fever
chills
N/V
diarrhea
bronchoconstriction
141
Q

dose for misoprostol

A

600-1000ug per rectum, sublingual, or buccal

this is an off label use for this drug

142
Q

contraindications for misoprostol

A

none

143
Q

side effects of misoprostol

A

fever
chills
N/V
diarrhea

144
Q

placenta accreta

A

part or all of the placenta invades the uterine wall and is inseperable

145
Q

placenta accreta vera

A

adherance of basal plate of placenta to uterine myometrium without decidual later

146
Q

placenta increta

A

chorionic villi invade the myometrium

147
Q

placenta percreta

A

invasion through myometrium into serosa adn adjacent organs

148
Q

anesthesia management of placenta accreta

A

similar to other cases of postpartum hemorrhage

149
Q

peripartum hysterectomy

A

requires GA

150
Q

exact trigger of amniotic fluid embolism

A

unknown

151
Q

amniotic fluid embolism

A

systemic inflammatory response associated with inappropriate release of endogenous inflammatory mediators.

152
Q

clinical presentation of amniotic fluid embolism

A

acute resp distress
cardiovascular collapse
coagulopathy near delivery
OCCURS MOST OFTEN IN LABOR

153
Q

2 most important risk factros in developing DVT or PE in pregnancy

A

history of thromboembolism

diagnosis of thrombophilia

154
Q

3 factors that increase risk of DVT or PE

A

venous stais
vascular damage
hypercoagulability

155
Q

how many major risk factors must be present for increased risk of venous thromboembolism postpartum?
minor?

A

one for major, two for minor

156
Q

major risk factors for venous thromboembolism in the postpartum period

A 
immobility (>1week)
prevous VTE
preeclampsia with fetal grown restriction
thrombophilia (antithrombin III def, factor V leiden, prothrombin G20210A)
SLE
heart disease
sickle cell
postpartum hemorrhage + surgery
blood transfusion
postpartum infection
157
Q

minor risk factors for VTE in postpartum

A 
BMI >30
emergency c section
mult. pregnancy
postpartum hemorrhage
smoking >10/day
fetal growth restriction
thrombophilia (protein C or S deficiency)
preeclampsia
158
Q

DVT symptoms

A

nonspecific lower leg pain and edema
erythema
tenderness
palpable cord

159
Q

PTE symptoms

A 
palpitations
anxiety
chest pain
cyanosis
diaphoresis
cough with or without hemoptysis
SOB
160
Q

signs of RV failure with PTE

A

split S2
JVD
parasternal heave
hepatic enlargement

161
Q

ECG changes in PTE

A 
RV strain=
RAD
p pulmonale
ST abnomalities
T wave inversion
supraventricular arrhythmias
162
Q

hemodynamic monitoring for embolic disorders

PAOP

A

normal to low (<15)

163
Q

hemodynamic monitoring for embolic disorders

MEAN PAP

A

increased (usually <35)

164
Q

hemodynamic monitoring for embolic disorders

CVP

A

increased (>8)

165
Q

management for embolic disoders

A

anticoagulation

166
Q

potential anesthetic complications for embolic disorder treatments

A

spinal/epidural hematoma-NA

airway bleeding- GA

167
Q

warfarin should be held for

A

4-5 days for INR to normalize

168
Q

avoid neuroaxial catheter with which drug

A

fondaparinux

169
Q

neuroaxial not recommended with which class of drugs

A

direct thrombin inhibitors

170
Q

which class is an ABSOLUTE contraindication for NA

A

thrombolytics

171
Q

when should you switch oral anticoagulants to LMWH or UFH?

A

36wk gestation

172
Q

when should LMWH be discontinued?

A

36hrs prior to delivery

173
Q

when should IV UFH be discontinued?

A

4-6 hours prior to delivery

174
Q

when is VAE likely to occur?

A

after placental separation, potential for air entrapment

175
Q

what are the clinical symptoms of VAE?

A

mostly without symptoms

massive: hypoTN, hypoexemia, potential cardiac arrest

176
Q

pathophysiology course of VAE

A 
small amount of air ->
pulmonary vasospasm ->
VQ mismatch->
hypoxemia->
right sided heart failure->
arrhythmias->
hypoTN
177
Q

what volume of air can lead to an RV outflow tract obstruction leading to cardiovascular collapse?

A

> 3mL/kg

178
Q

suspect VAE if

A

complaints of intraop chest pain, dyspnea

sudden hypoxemia, hypoTN, arrhythmias

179
Q

how do you prevent further air entrapment during VAE

A

flood surgical field with saline solution

lower the surgical field lower than the heart if tolerated

180
Q

what should be evaluated in the postrescuscitation period after VAE

A

intracerebral air and potentially hyperbaric O2 therapy

Thurman (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions