OB and Mental 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

38 weeks’ gestation patient. Upon vaginal examination, the nurse observe a segment of the umbilical cord extending out of the labia. Which nursing action is appropriate? SATA

a) Assist the client to lay on her left side
b) Encourage the client to ambulate
c) Help the client pull her knees to her chest
d) Perform frequent Leopold maneuvers
e) If the knee chest is not feasible, place the client in Trendelenburg position

A

c,e

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2
Q

A pregnant client who requires a cervical cerclage procedure. Which client statement indicates a need for additional instruction from the nurse? SATA

a) I need to plan on having the cerclage removed toward the end of my second trimester.
b) I will need to be placed on bed rest after the cervical cerclage to decrease premature dilation.
c) “I should expect some pressure in my pelvis after the procedure.
d) “If I have any low back pain, I will contact my doctor.
e) This procedure is done to assess for preterm labor

A

a,b,c,e
a) typically removed around 37 weeks’ gestation
second will be 13-27 wks
b) Bed rest is not required
c) This procedure should not produce feelings of fullness in the pelvis
e) The procedure is not done to assess preterm labor but to halt premature dilation of the cervix

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3
Q

PT with anorexia nervosa and is significantly malnourished. The client is refusing to consume food by mouth.
Which dietary order should the nurse anticipate for this client?

a) Soft diet
b) Liquid diet
c) Enteral nutrition
d) Total parenteral nutrition

A

c
A nasogastric tube can be inserted for the administration of formula that is rich in both calories and protein.

d
The use of TPN is more invasive that enteral nutrition by tube

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4
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed disulfiram for alcohol use disorder.
What nursing action(s) are appropriate for this client?
SATA
a) Teach the client to avoid common over-the-counter (OTC) cough medications.
b) Instruct the client that alcohol consumption while on the prescribe medication produces unwanted side effects.
c) Teach the client that, if a dose of disulfiram is missed, take an extra dose as soon as possible.
d) Teach the client to abstain from alcohol for two weeks after the medication is discontinued.
e) Inform the client that certain foods, such as vinegar and some sauces should be avoided while on this medication.

A

a,b,d,e
Avoid the consumption of any alcohol, including sources of hidden alcohol which may include cold and cough medications, mouthwashes, aftershaves, colognes
and certain foods

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5
Q

Use of crutches for walking. Which finding noted by the nurse illustrates the proper use of crutches? SATA

a) The client flexes the elbows approximately 30 degrees when using the crutches.
b) The client advances the crutches and affected leg at the same time in a 3-point gait.
c) The client supports the body weight solely using the axillae.
d) The client’s weight is on the crutches and supported by the hands and arms.

A

a,b,d

Body weight is supported by the arms and hands and not the underarm area; and a 20 to 30 degree of flexion at the elbow.

A 3-point gait is used for clients who cannot bear any weight as it allows for injured extremity and crutches are moved together at the same time.

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6
Q

The nurse is caring for a neonate who requires respiratory resuscitation.
In which position should the client’s head be placed?
a) The newborn is placed in a side-lying position.
b) The newborn’s head is placed in a neutral position.

A

b

a
A side-lying position may be appropriate for recovery; however, this position will not allow respiratory resuscitation efforts to effectively oxygenate the newborn.

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7
Q

The nurse provides care for a laboring client with hypertonic uterine dysfunction. Which is the priority action by the nurse?

a) Preparing for an amniotomy
b) Providing pain relief measures
c) Monitoring the oxytocin infusion
d) Encouraging frequent ambulation

A

b

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8
Q

A male client who has chickenpox with open wounds draining pus. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? SATA
a) Before entering the client’s room, don a gown, gloves and N95 respirator mask
b) Ensure that the client is placed in a negative pressure, private room
c) Continue to implement airborne precautions once lesions are dry and scabbed over.
d) Provide a disposable thermometer and stethoscope to stay in the client’s room.

A

Chickenpox=varicella
a,b,d

Airborne precautions are a specific type of transmission-based precautions.
Once the lesions are crusted over and dry, varicella is no longer considered contagious; therefore, airborne precautions are no longer necessary.

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9
Q

Which client in the first 3 months of pregnancy requires priority action by the nurse?

a) A client, who is pregnant for the first time, reports brown discoloration on her face.
b) A client who has not urinated for more than 3 hours.
c) A client experiencing scapular and abdominal pain after diagnosis of an ectopic pregnancy.

A

c
s/s of rupture includes abdominal firmness; abdominal pain; and pain that radiates to the back and shoulder

a) normal
b) need furture aseesmemt, but not priority

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10
Q

Which client is at the highest risk for developing a pressure injury while hospitalized?

a) A client with paraplegia, pneumonia, temperature of 101.5 F (38.6 C), and white blood cell (WBC) count of 12,000/mm3 (12x109 L).
b) A client who is receiving a dopamine infusion, has a documented weight loss of 15 lbs (6.2 kg) in 21 days, a history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), and a critically low prealbumin level.
c) A client who is 5 days post appendectomy, has an indwelling urinary catheter, and a hemoglobin of 12 g/dL (120 g/L).
d) A client who is 1 day postoperative for a knee replacement, with hemoglobin of 10 g/dL (100 g/L), temperature of 99 F (37.2 C) and a white blood cell (WBC) count of 12,000/ mm3 (12 x109 L).

A

b
4 risk factors
comorbidity -HIV
poor perfusion- dopamine infusion
poor nutrition-low serum prealbumin
weight loss

a)
2 risk factors
comorbidity-paraplegia
infection
c)
2 risk factors
medical device-cathter
comorbidity-appendectomy

Advanced age; Altered levels of consciousness (LOC); Comorbidities (e.g., HIV); Immobility; Incontinence; Infection; Use of medical devices; Poor oxygenation and perfusion (e.g., dopamine infusion); Poor nutrition (e.g., low serum prealbumin level); Unintentional weight loss.

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11
Q

The nurse is caring for a client exhibiting behaviors related to an untreated psychiatric disorder.
Which assessment finding would necessitate mandatory placement of a client in the psychiatric inpatient facility? SATA
a) Threats to harm self or others on multiple occasions.
b) Extensive family history of bipolar disorder left untreated.
c) The client appears malnourished due to the refusal to eat or drink for one week.
d) A client who states over and over, “I must hide from them or they’ll get me.”

A

a,c,d
Mandatory placement into a psychiatric facility would be needed if the client’s judgment is severely impaired.
d) due to hallucinations or potential substance use disorder. Additionally, this client is likely at risk for harm to self or others

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12
Q

Is a bluish discoloration on a newborn’s gluteus maximus normal?

A

That is a mongolian spot
gluteus maximus=around butt

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13
Q

An adolescent client who is diagnosed with a fear of school and has missed an excessive amount of classes.
What is an appropriate nursing action(s)?

a) Recommend the parent keep the client out of school for at least 3 months.
b) Explain to the parent that the child should be medicated before returning to school.
c) Have the parent promptly return the child to school, starting gradually with half days.
d) Have the parent inquire about allowing the child to finish the school year at home

A

c
Supportive interventions such as insisting on school attendance will help the child make a faster adjustment. A gradual approach decreases the child’s sensitization to the classroom.

a-Allowing the child to avoid school reinforces the behavior;
b-Medication interventions for school phobia are not considered a therapeutic

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14
Q

Couple asks, “Will we be able to find out the gender of our baby at 16 weeks’of pregnancy?” Which response by the nurse is accurate?
a) Depending on your baby’s position, the genitalia may be observed at that point in pregnancy
b) External structures, such as genitalia, are not formed at 16wks
c) Specific gender characteristics are not identifiable until 20Wks
d) The gender of the fetus will be determined when ballottement is felt

A

a
The gender of the fetus can be determined by ultrasound as early as 14 weeks’ gestation

d
a technique used to diagnose pregnancy by feeling the return impact of the displaced fetus after a sharp tap with the fingers on the uterus.

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15
Q

a) What is parenteral medication?
b) Is 18 gauge thicker than 25 gauge?

A

a) drugs given by routes other than the digestive tract
intradermal, ID
subcutaneous, SUBQ
intramuscular, IM
intravenous IV.
b) Yes, smaller number is thicker
like insuline use 29-32 gauge

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16
Q

The nurse preceptor is observing a newly hired nurse prepare a parenteral medication for administration. Which action by the newly hired nurse demonstrates to the nurse preceptor proper technique?

a) Uses a 90-degree angle of insertion to administer insulin into the lower abdomen of a client who is overweight
b) Selects a 1 inch, 18-gauge needle to administer a subcutaneous injection.
c) Places a client in a prone position for an intramuscular (IM) deltoid injection
d) Uses a filter needle to withdraw medication from a glass ampule then changes the needle prior to injection.

A

a,d

b) Subcutaneous injections usually require a 25 to 30 gauge needle with lengths from 1/2 to 5/8 inches
c) A supine, not prone

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17
Q

psychosomatic disorder?

A

a condition that causes physical symptoms due to psychological stress
usually lacking a medical explanation

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18
Q

A client with psychosomatic disorder. The client reports a headache with nausea, rating the pain as 9 out of 10 on a numeric pain scale.
What is the appropriate nursing action?
a) Discuss strategies to decrease stress and alleviate the current symptoms
b) Redirect the conversation to unrelated, general topics of conversation.

A

b
The primary nursing intervention when providing care for clients with this diagnosis is to focus on minimizing indirect benefits and developing client insight.the appropriate action by the nurse is to redirect the client to an unrelated, general topic of conversation.

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19
Q

Which mind-body intervention should the nurse consider implementing for a laboring client who does not wish to receive medication for the treatment of the pain?
a) Deep abdominal breathing
b) Therapeutic touch
c) Hydrotherapy

A

a

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20
Q

intermittent needle therapy?

A

an infusion of a volume of fluid/medication over a set period of time at prescribed intervals and then stopped until the next dose is required

21
Q

Preparing to administer a unit packed red blood cells (PRBC) to a client who is anemic. Which nursing action is appropriate for the nurse to take? SATA
a) Infuse the PRBCs as an IVPB through the infusion pump per blood transfusion protocol.
b) Ensure that the client has at least a 20-gauge or larger intravenous (IV) catheter to use for the transfusion.
c) Stop the client’s heparin infusion temporarily, flush the site, and infuse the PRBCs.

A

b,c
the nurse needs an appropriate-size IV catheter (e.g., 18 or 20 gauge) and blood administration tubing that has a special in-line filter.
Once IV access is established, the nurse obtains a complete set of vital signs prior to the beginning of the infusion.

22
Q

A client who is 4 hours postpartum and experiencing difficulty with urination. Which intervention should the nurse implement? SATA
a) Offer oral fluids
b) Run water in the sink.
c) Provide the client with privacy.
d) Encourage the use of a sitz bath, as needed.
e) Obtain an order for urinary catheterization.

A

a,b,c,d

23
Q

The nurse is caring for a premature neonate of 24 weeks gestation.
Which assessment finding(s) is expected? SATA
a) A large amount of fine hair on the shoulders.
b) Enlarged fontanelles during times of rest.
c) Desquamation and deep creases on soles of feet
d) Palpable breast buds noted with flat areolae.
e) Visible veins beneath pink skin.

A

a,e
b,c,d normal findins for full term

24
Q

sinus rhythm?

A

the normal rhythm of a healthy heart

25
Q

Administered amiodarone to an assigned client. Which finding indicates that the medication is effective?
a) Heart rate 86 beats per minute.
b) Blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg.
c) Lung sounds clear
d) Telemetry shows sinus rhythm.

A

d
Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic drug used to treat life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias

26
Q

UAP apply a condom catheter to an uncircumcised, incontinent client. Which action by the UAP requires follow up by the nurse?
a) Applies adhesive solution to the base of the penis before placing the condom catheter.
b) Secures the urine collection bag to the client’s leg.
c) Ensures a small space is left between the tip of the penis and the condom.
d) Pulls back the foreskin of the penis before applying the device.

A

d
While it is appropriate to pull the foreskin back to cleanse the penis prior to the application of the condom catheter, the foreskin should be returned before the condom catheter is applied

27
Q

Treatment for opioid dependence, which of the following meds is used for opiate ovedrdose and withdrawal?

A

Overdose
Naltrexone(revesrse)
-Short acting, wvery 3 mints

Withdrawal
Clonidine (lower BP)
Merhadone (low dose opioid,wean off addiction 依存症から抜け出す)

28
Q

A client who abuses opiates.
Which assessment finding might indicate withdrawal? SATA
a) Pupils that measure 1 mm in size.
b) Blood pressure of 190/100 mm Hg.
c) Diaphoresis
d) Fatigue
e) A heart rate 110 beats/minute
f) Nausea and vomiting

A

b,c,e,f
runny nose, insomnia, dilated pupulis
a) normal size of puplis is 2-4mm
1mm is constricted which abuse phase

29
Q

a) What does Wernicke’s encephalopathy result from?
b) What is Wernicke’s encephalopathy most often associated with?
c) s/s?

A

a) A thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency
b) Alcohol addiction
c) paralysis ocular muscle, diplopia, ataxia and stupor(near-unconsciousness)

30
Q

a) How does Korsakoff’s syndrome can occur?
b) s/s?
c) treatment?

A

a) Untreated wernicke’s encephalopathy
b) loss of recent memory
c) Thiamine and adequate hydration

31
Q

A primigravida client who is 39 weeks’ gestation who is receiving the prescribed oxytocin infusion at 10 mU/min. The nurse notes late decelerations on the fetal heart monitor. Which nursing action is appropriate based on the current data? SATA
a) Anticipate a need for an amnioinfusion bolus
b) Apply oxygen per face mask to the client at 6 L/minute.
c) Give a 500 mL bolus of 0.45% sodium chloride, as prescribed
d) Place the client in a right side-lying position.

A

b,d
These actions will enhance oxygenation and perfusion to the placenta and the fetus and decrease the risk of a poor fetal outcome.

a)Amnioinfusion is a technique of replacing amniotic fluid during labor for accelerations not late decelerations
c) 0.9% not 0.45%

32
Q

A client who is experiencing delirium tremens due to alcohol withdrawal.
What assessment finding(s) does the nurse expect? SATA
a) Agitation
b) Bradycardia
c) Confusion
d) Delusions
e) Excessive sweating
f) Fever

A

a,c,d,e,f

33
Q

Normal platlate count?
Normal WBC coungt?

A

150,000 - 450,000 platelets
4,500 to 11,000 WBC

34
Q

The nurse notes acrocyanosis during the newborn assessment.
Which nursing action is most appropriate?
a) Listen to the heart for the presence of a murmur.
b) Count respirations and apply blow-by oxygen.
c) Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
d) Initiate kangaroo care with the mother.

A

d
While acrocyanosis is expected during the newborn period, it is often caused by heat loss; therefore, an appropriate action is to initiate kangaroo care

35
Q

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder. The client states to the nurse, “Everyone here is out to get me except you.”
What is an appropriate response by the nurse?
a) Ask the client, “Why do you think everyone is, ‘out to get you’?”
b) Rotate assignment of this client to different members of the healthcare team.

A

b
Rotating assignment of this client to other staff negates the client’s ability to manipulate a single staff member; therefore, this is an appropriate response by the nurse.

a
This response will not change the behavior of the client and only encourage further manipulative speech.

36
Q

The neonate’s assessment data is as follows: skin blue; heart rate 112 beats/minute; regular crying noted; movement and flexion of extremities noted; whimpers when nares are suctioned.

➤Based on this data, which Apgar score is appropriate for the newborn?

A

7.
Appearance = 0; Pulse = 2 over 100 is good thing; Grimace = 1; Activity = 2; and Respirations = 2; therefore, the Apgar score is 0 + 2 + 1 + 2 + 2 = 7.

37
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with anorexia nervosa.
What assessment findings does the nurse anticipate? SATA
a) Lack of menses
b) Bradycardia
c) Emaciation
d) Excessive physical activity
e) Inability to tolerate cold

A

a,b,c,d,e
memses-period
Emaciation-abnormally thin

38
Q

The nurse develops a plan of care for a laboring client experiencing dystocia. Which is the priority intervention to include in the nursing plan of care?
a) Changing the client’s position frequently
b) Providing comfort measures to the client
c) Monitoring the fetal heart rate (FHR) patterns
d) Keeping the couple informed regarding labor progress

A

c
Dystocia = difficult labor
Everything are important but not priority

39
Q

The nurse is caring for a newborn admitted to the nursery one hour after birth.
Which medication should be administered to the neonate? SATA
a) Nystatin
b) Ampicillin
c) Phytonadione
d) Acetaminophen
e) Hepatitis B vaccine

A

c,e
Phytonadione=vitamin K

40
Q

A client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder states, “My partner has been cutting when left alone for any period of time.”
What is an appropriate response by the nurse?
a) Please bring your partner in to be evaluated by the practitioner as soon as possible
b) I can’t imagine how hard it must be to try and juggle all your responsibilities.

A

a
All self-harm activities need to be evaluated as soon as possible due to the high risk of suicide

b) This is a therapeutic response but it does not validate the severity of the situation

41
Q

Which immunization may be given safely by the nurse to a client who is in the third trimester of pregnancy?SATA
a) The mumps vaccine
b) The pertussis vaccine
c) The influenza vaccine.
d) The rubella vaccine.
e) The tetanus vaccine.

A

b,c,e
Vaccines that are safe during pregnancy are the influenza and the Tdap (tetanus toxoid, reduced diphtheria toxoid, and acellular pertussis) vaccines. Some vaccines, such as the MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) are not safe during pregnancy

42
Q

The nurse is planning care for a client who is diagnosed with bulimia nervosa
Which intervention should the nurse include in the client’s plan of care?SATA
a) Never leave the client unattended
b) Assist client in developing a realistic body image
c) Discard any diuretics the client might have
d) Establish adequate nutritional intake
e) Observe client elimination patterns.
f) Encourage the client to keep a log of food intake.

A

b,c,d,e,f
b-Clients often experience great guilt associated with bulimia and great care should be taken to assist clients in developing a realistic body image
f-A food diary helps the client track the type and amount of food that is eaten thus allowing the client to understand the health implications of the disorder

a-Constant supervision negates a positive nurse-client relationship and should be avoided unless absolutely necessary

43
Q

A pt with new prescriptions for scheduled for induction labor. The pt’s hx of previous cesarean birth and a positive test result GBS. Which med nurse should clarify?
a) oxytocin
b) ampicillin
c) misoprostol
d) nalbuphine hydrochloride

A

c
Misoprostol is a contraindication who had a section.
Also, this med is PO so once it is taken we cannot stop, but oxytocin is IV, so it can slow down and stop

44
Q

A pt with 3rd trimester of pregnancy, what statement indicates correct understanding? SATA

a) Fetal movement is expected to decrease toward end of the pregnancy
b)Lighting makes it easier to breathe but cause increased bladder pressure
c) True labor occurs when regular contractions cause progressive dilation of the cervical

A

b,c

Fetal movement should never never decrease!!!
Fetal movement should increase as the pregnancy

45
Q

Which medication is a contraindication to a pregnant women SATA

a) Penicillin to a pt who is in labor and has not been screened for GBS
b) Magnesium sulfate to a pt who is experiencing preterm labor
c) Terbutaline to a pt who has uncontrolled gestational diabetes
d) Hydralazine to a pt who has preeclampsia
e) Doxcycline

A

c
Terbutaline can cause a temporary increase in the baby’s heart rate and blood sugar levels

e
affect tooth and bone development

46
Q

A pt who had an uncomplicated vaginal delivery 1 day ago.
Which statements would require follow-up?
a) I may experience a dull headache for next week
b) I should perform leg exercises while I am resting in bed
c) I will have pinkish-brown vaginal discharge for the next 4 to 10 days

A

a
Postpartum preeclampsia is a rare but serious condition that can occur after childbirth

47
Q

a) Pt is first day postop, right knee, partial weight bearing allowed
b) Pt is in advanced stages of ALS

A

a) 3-point gait
b) 4 point

48
Q

What gait should the pt use?
a) A pt affected with early stages of rheumatoid arthritis. What gait should the pt use?
b) A pt has left ATK (above the knee) amputation 2 days ago. What gait should the pt use?

A

a) 2-point gait
b) Swing-through