Med-surg 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GSC) score
What are the 3 factors to determine?
What score is considered OK?

A

Eye opening
Motor response
Verbal response
13-15, less than 8 need to intubate

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2
Q

Brudzinski sign
Babinski sign

A

Medical sign that can indicate meningitis
Severe neck stiffness causes a patient’s hips and knees to flex when the neck is flexed
Kernig sign
their back with their hips and knees flexed at 90-degree angles, and then slowly extending one knee at a time. A positive Kernig’s sign is indicated by pain, resistance, or an inability to extend the knee past 135 degrees, or in severe cases, past 90 degrees.

babinski sign
-Plantar reflex

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3
Q

A client admitted with a diagnosis of AKI. What interventions should the nurse include in this plan? SATA
1. Provide meticulous skin care.
2. Reposition every 2 hours.
3. Maintain a high carbohydrate, high protein diet.
4. Provide foods low in phosphate.
5. Monitor intake and output.
6. Give IV medications in smallest volume allowed.

A

1,2,4,5,6
The leading cause of death from acute renal injury is infection, so meticulous skin care and aseptic technique are critical. Repositioning every 2 hours will help to prevent pressure ulcers.
Clients in acute renal injury have high phosphorus levels and low calcium levele,so they need foods low in phosphorus.
Monitor intake and output. The client cannot handle excess fluid at this time. This is also why all IV meds should be administered in the smallest possible volume allowed.

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4
Q

A client report a sharp pain, rated 10/10, radiating from the right flank around to the lower right abdomen. What s/s?
1. Glomerulonephritis
2. Renal lithiasis
3. Nephrotic syndrome
4. Acute kidney injury

A

2
=kidney stone

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5
Q

Which medication prescription should the nurse question for a client diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome?
1. Ibuprofen
2. Enalapril
3. Prednisone
4. Cyclophosphamide

A

1
NSAIDs can cause acute interstitial nephritis and acute tubular nephritis. The client with nephrotic syndrome currently has damage to the micro blood vessels in the kidneys.

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6
Q

Which data supports the diagnosis of glomerulonephritis?
SATA
1. Malaise
2. Blood pressure – 160/92
3. 24 hour urinary output – 960 mL
4. Costovertebral angle tenderness
5. Urine specific gravity of 1.040

A

1,2,4,5
Malaise-general feeling of discomfort
The normal range of urine specific gravity ranges from 1.005 to 1.030. An elevated urine specific gravity of 1.040 is reflective of highly concentrated urine.
3- The normal range for a 24 urinary output is 800-2000 mL.

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7
Q

COPD can cause your lungs to produce #1 leading to #2.
Not all coughs are effective in clearing excess mucus from, uncontrolled coughing causes airways to collapse and spasm, trapping mucus.

A

1)excess mucus
2)frequent coughing
They need to controlling their coughing

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8
Q

What residual volume indicates the pt likely not absorbing the tube feeding?

A

More than 200mL for tow consecutive check
More than 500mL at 6 hurs

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9
Q

Myasthenia gravis (MG)
s/s?

A

Weakness muscle
Ptosis(dropping eye)
Decrease eyelid movements
Diplopia
Double vision

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10
Q

Cholinergic crisis
s/s?

A

Diarrhea
Increase urination
Nausea and vomiting

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11
Q

Chest tube
If there are 2 tubes upper and bottom, what is the upper tube for?

A

upper: air
bottom:fluid
Remember, air rises and fluid settles down lower

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12
Q

Which of the following should the nurse teach regarding nutrition for a pt with celiac disease?
a) Glute is a protein found in wheat and oats
b) A gluten-intolerant person can eat food that is made with barley or rye
c) Fruits can be eaten on a gluten-free diet
d) Gluten causes inflammation of the large intestines
e) Accidentally eating gluten may result in abdominal pain and diarrhea

A

a,c,e

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13
Q

What preferred lab value would the nurse expect to see the HCP prescribed for a pt admitted with generalized malnutrition?

a) Albumin
b) Prealbumin
c) Iron
d) Calcium

A

b
a-It can take weeks to drop

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14
Q

a) What is Lactase deficiency and what causes in the body?
b) which statement understand teaching?
1:I can still eat cheese and yogurt
2:I should take a daily calcium and vitamin D supplement
3:My lactase enzyme supplement should be taken with meals containing dairy
4 This means that I have developed an allergy to milk

A

1,2,3

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15
Q

Asthma requires follow up

a) appears agitated
b) audible wheezing bilaterally
c) peak flow readings are 65-70%

A

a,b,c

agitated suggests potential exacerbation
Wheezing indicates bronchospasm and airway resistance
PEF reding less than 70% of baseline indicates respiratory distress

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16
Q

A pt with COPD and limited mobility, what physiological responses to prolonged immobility should the nurse assess?
a) Inc insulin production
b) Dec RBC production
c) Dec nitrogen exertion
d) Inc calcium excretion

A

d
leads to the breakdown of bone tissue. This results in calcium exertion and put the pt at risk for fractures

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17
Q

A client with a right below-the-knee amputation (BKA). The client responds, “What is the purpose of the compression sock on my stump?” Which statement by the nurse is appropriate
a) The compression sock on the stump will increase your balance when crutch walking
b) Phantom limb pain will decrease by applying the compression sock tightly around the stump
c) A compression sock is applied to shape the stump smaller and rounder on the bottom

A

c

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18
Q

Amputation
a) Post-ope
Limb should what position?
b) BKA, what positon pt recommended?
c) Phatom pain, what to teach?

A

a) lie complete flat
b) prone opsition
c) diversional activity (hobbies, exercise) first then pain medication

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19
Q

A client’s skeletal traction has been accidently released. What signs/symptoms does the nurse expect to see? SATA
a) Pain
b) Foot drop
c) Muscle spasm
d) Bone displacement
e) Itching under the straps

A

a,c,d
The purpose of traction is to stabilize and realign bone fractures and reduce pain.

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20
Q

A nursing instructor is presenting a discussion on nephrotoxic medications. Which class of medications would the instructor discuss?
1. Opioids
2. Antidiabetic
3. Corticosteroids
4. Aminoglycoside

A

4
Aminoglycoside antibiotics are nephrotoxic. Nephrotoxic medications can cause damage to the kidneys. Examples of aminoglycoside antibiotics are tobramycin, gentamicin, streptomycin, and paromomycin.

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21
Q

What are 4 liver functions?

A

-produces clotting factors
-detoxifies the body
-breaks down medications
-synthesizes albumin

22
Q

What is the most important action for the nurse to take prior to a client having a liver biopsy?
a) Make certain the consent has been signed
b) Obtain vital signs
c) Check clotting study results
d) Position client supine with right arm above head

A

c
All actions should be done by the nurse, however, the nurse better check the clotting study results. The client could hemorrhage if the clotting factors are too messed up

23
Q

What signs/symptoms would lead the nurse to suspect that a client diagnosed with cirrhosis may be developing hepatic coma? SATA
a) Asterixis
b) Fetor
c) Grey Turner’s sign
d) Hyperactive reflexes
e) Squiggly handwriting

A

a,b,e
Fetor=a strong, foul smell

24
Q

A client being treated for bleeding esophageal varices asks the nurse why the client is receiving octreotide. How should the nurse respond?
a) Octreotide is an antibiotic given to decrease the risk of developing an infection
b) This medication forms a protective barrier over the varices to prevent bleeding recurrence
c) Octreotide helps eliminate ammonia from the body
d) This medication lowers the pressure in the liver, so bleeding stops

A

d
Octreotide is a synthetic hormone that selectively inhibits the release of vasodilating hormones in the internal organs. By doing this it decreases blood flow to the liver. When you decrease blood flow to the liver, the pressure in the liver lowers. Less volume, less pressure. So, bleeding should stop.

25
Q

The nurse is teaching a client who is diagnosed with Addison disease about prescribed steroid therapy.Which statement(s) should the nurse include? SATA
a) You should check your blood sugar before meals and at bedtime
b) During stressful times, the dosage may need to be decreased.
c) Have your eyes checked yearly while on hydrocortisone
d) mmediately stop hydrocortisone if you feel emotional or irritabl
e) Take your prescribed hydrocortisone by mouth with a meal.”

A

a,c,e
c-Cataract formation is a side effect of steroid therapy
e-Steroid therapy causes stomach upset and should be taken with meals

26
Q

The physician wants to wean pt off the vent in the morning. At 6 am, the ABGs say respiratory acidosis. What would do next?

A

Notify the HCO that the pt is not ready to be weaned off the vent
Why?
Because pt is respiratory acidosis=under ventilated

27
Q

CCBs
a) act like what medication?
b) side effect?
c) name ends in?

A

a) diazepam
b) headache
hypotension
c) dioine
also,Cardizem,verapimil

28
Q

If question mentions
QRS depolarization means?
P wave means?

A

QRS=Ventricular
P=Atrial

29
Q

Asystole and V-fib
These are high priorities to care, why?
What treatment?

A

Because NO cardiac output
will kill a pt in 8mints or less
Defib for V-fib!!
Epinephrine and atropine for asystole

30
Q

ECG
V-fib
V-tach
Asystole

A

V-fib=No parttern
V-tach=Sharp peaks(down wards QRS) with pattern
Asystole=A flat line

31
Q

Chest tube
a) Pneumothorax chest remove what?
b) Hemothorax chest remove what?

A

a) air
b) blood

32
Q

A chest tube is placed in a pt for a hemothorax(blood). What would you report to the HCP?
What about pneumothorax?
a) Chest tube is not bubbling
b) Chest tube drains 800mL in the first 10 hrs
c) Chest tube is not draining
d) Chest tube is intermittently bubbling

A

Hemothorax=c
Pneumothrax=a

33
Q

The water chamber of the chest tube in a pt brakes. What is the action the nurse should take?
a) Cut the tube away
b) Clamp the tube
c) Unclamp the tube
d) Submerge(or stick) the end of the tube under sterile water

A

Order is what we are doing first
Clamp the tube
Cut the tube away
Submerge the end of the tube under sterile water
Unclamp the tube
If we can do only one thing, what BEST thing to do?
-do submerge the end of the tube under sterile water

34
Q

If a chest tube gets pulled out
a) what is the first step?
b) What is the best step?

A

a) Take a gloved hand and cover the opening
b) Take a sterile Vaseline guze and tape 3 sides

35
Q

Chest tube is it OK or BAD?
water seal chamber
if it is intermittent bubble?
If it is continuous?

A

a) OK
b) Bad
Suction control chamer is the opposite direction

36
Q

Contact precautions?
Droplet precautions?

A

a) Anything enteric (GI or fecal)
C.diff, Hep A, E.Coli
Steph,RSV,Herpes
No Mask
b) Meningitis, Hinfluenza b
Need Mask
No gown

37
Q

PPE order
a) order to put in on
b) order to take it off

A

a) Gown, mask,goggle, gloves
b) Gloves,goggle,gown,mask
alphabetical order

38
Q

Which gait do we advice to the pt?
2point, 3point, 4point or swing-through
a) A pt affected with early stage of RA.
b) A pt left ATK amputation 2 days ago
c) Pt is first-day postop, right knee, partial weight bearing allowed

A

a) RA=systemic=both=2 point
b) swing through
c) odd number=3 point

39
Q

a) Pt is an advanced stage of ALS
b) Pt with a left hip replacement, 2nd day postop on non-weight bearing instruction
c) Pt with bilateral total knee replacement 3 wks ago

A

a) 4 point
b) swing through
c) 2point

40
Q

Ventilator
High-pressure alarms?
Low-pressure alarms?
What to do?

A

High-abstraction
unkink-empty water of tubing-turn pt-suctioning
Low-leak
check connection

41
Q

Overdose
uppers?
s/s

A

a) caffeine
cocaine
PCP/LSD
Methamphetamines
Adderall

Things go up!
Restlessness irritability
hyperreflexia(+3,+4)
tachy

42
Q

a) The pt brings in ER d/t overdose of cocaine. s/s?
b) The pt brings in ER d/t withdrawal cocaine. s/s?

A

a) cocaine is upper so everything up
b) withdrawal is the opposite, everything down

43
Q

Newborn baby, always assume intoxication or withdrawal? within the first 24hr and toxic or withdrawal after 24hrs?

A

First 24hrs intoxication
After 24 hr withdrawal

44
Q

An infant born to Quaalude-addicted mother 24 hrs after birth s/s?

A

after 24hr=withdrawal
Quaalude=downer
So everything up!
Difficult to console, seizure risk, high-pitched cry, exaggerated reflex

45
Q

Alcohol withdrawal syndrome will occur after what hrs? and Delirium tremens occur?
Delirium treatment’s treatment

A

24hrs/72hrs
AWS is just everything up to nothing harm self and other
DT self-harming and other/life-threatening
NPO, private room, restraints

46
Q

Aminoglycosides
what treat for?
side effect?

A

ABXs
A men Old Mysin
Treat-serious, restrain, life-threatening, gram-negative infections
Ototoxicity
Nephrotoxicity

47
Q

a) Is TB viral or bacterial?
b) Rifampin/clasification?

A

a) Caused by a type of bacterium called Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
b) Antibiotic

48
Q

A client who was diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) and began rifampin therapy 7 days ago.
➤ Which client statement prompts the nurse to provide further education?
a) I should take the medication with food to enhance absorption
b) I will continue to take my prescribed oral contraceptives to avoid pregnancy
c) I will wear my glasses instead of contact lenses while on this medication.
d) I will need monthly blood work while on this medication.

A

b
Antibiotics may decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives
c-rifampin can cause body secretions to become orange-red in color which can cause permanent staining of contact lenses

49
Q

A client who is prescribed chemotherapy for breast cancer and now reports nausea, vomiting, and anorexia.
➤Which prescribed medication should the nurse include in the client’s plan of care?
a) Metoclopramide
b) Ondansetron
c) Dronabinol
d) Scopolamine

A

c
an effective antiemetic for clients experiencing nausea and vomiting from chemotherapy; additionally, this medication is also an appetite stimulant thus it also addresses the client’s anorexia.
a,b,d
effective antiemetic, it does not stimulate the appetite

50
Q

A client who is newly prescribed lisinopril.

➤Which information should the nurse include? SATA
a) Adding foods rich in potassium to the diet
b) Dangling legs at the side of the bed prior to standing up
c) Monitoring the apical pulse prior to medication administration.
d) Monitoring therapeutic serum drug levels.
e) Holding the medication for a pulse that is less than 60 beats/minute
f) Monitoring blood pressure daily

A

b,f
ACE inhibitor medication designed to decrease blood pressure in hypertensive clients. Orthostatic hypotension is common with lisinopril and other antihypertensive medications
Lisinopril lowers blood pressure, not heart rate