OB Flashcards

1
Q

How does pregnancy affect minute ventilation? Why? What changes are seen?

A

It is increased by up to 50% due to increased progesterone

Vt increases by 40%
RR increases by 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How does pregnancy affect the mothers blood gas? How does mom compensate for this?

A

Due to progesterone, she is slightly respiratory alkalotic

Renal eliminates excess bicarb which normalizes the blood’s pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Moms;

pH?
PaO2?
PaCO2?
HCO3?

A

pH - no change
PaO2 - increased
PaCO2 - decreased
HCO3 - Decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does pregnancy affect mom’s oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?

A

Shifts it to the right - offloads O2 to the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does pregnancy affect the lung volumes and capacities?

A

FRC is reduced due to baby pushing up on lungs. ERV decreases more than RV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does cardiac output change during pregnancy?

A

Increases by 40% - uterus receives 10% of the cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does cardiac output change during the stages of labor?

A

1st - Increased by 20%
2nd - Increased by 50%
3rd - Increased by 80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When does CO return to baseline after delivery?

A

Pre labor values - 24 hours
Pre pregnancy values - 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does BP change during pregnancy?

A

Net effect due to an increase in blood volume and decrease in SVR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does SVR change during pregnancy?

A

Progesterone causes Increased nitric oxide which leads to vasodilation
+
Decreased response to angiotensin and NE

<15% in SVR
<30% in PVR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is aortocaval compression? Who is at risk?

A

Gravid uterus compresses the vena cava and aorta in the supine position

This leads to decreased CO and compromises fetal profusion

Sign and symptom - LOC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is aortocaval compression treated?

A

Displace the uterus away by elevating the right torso by 15 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does intravascular fluid volume change during pregnancy?

A

It increases by 35%

Plasma volume increases by 45% and RBC’s increase by 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which clotting factors are increased during pregnancy?

A

Increased clotting factors 1, 7, 8, 9, 10, 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which clotting factors are decreased during pregnancy ?

A

11 and 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What happens to fibrin during pregnancy ?

A

Decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Protein S and C during pregnancy?

A

Protein S decreaseS
Protein C - no change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What happens to MAC during pregnancy ? Why?

A

Decreases by 30-40% due to progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does pregnancy affect gastric volume and pH? Why?

A

Increases volume and decreases pH (more acidic)

Due to increased gastrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does pregnancy affect gastric emptying?

A

Before labor - no change

After labor - slowed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is normal uterine blood flow? During pregnancy ?

A

Normal - 100mL/min

Pregnancy - 700mL/min or 10% of cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Does the uterus autoregulate?

A

It does not autoregulate there it is dependent on MAP, CO, and uterine vascular resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What conditions can reduce uterine blood flow?

A

Anything that causes decreased perfusion;
-Sympathectomy
-Hemorrhage
-Aortocaval compression

Anything that causes increased resistance;
-Uterine contraction
-Hypertension that increases UVR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which law determines which drugs will pass through the placenta?

A

Ficks Law of diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Drug characteristics that favor placental transfer?

A

-Low molecular weight <500 Daltons
-High lipid solubility
-Nonionized
-Nonpolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is stage 1 of labor?

A

Beginning of contractions to full cervical dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is stage 2 of labor?

A

Full dilation to delivery of the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is stage 3 of labor?

A

Delivery of the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does uncontrolled pain affect the mother and fetus?

A
  • Increased catecholamines which leads to HTN and reduced uterine blood flow

-Maternal hyperventilation which leads to a left shift and reduced O2 delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which type of pain is felt during stage 1? Where?

A

Lower uterine segment and the cervix

T10-S1 posterior nerve roots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which type of pain is felt during stage 2? Where?

A

Vagina, perineum, and pelvic floor

S2-S4 posterior nerve roots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the afferent pathway during stage 1 of labor? Which segments?

A

Visceral c fibers hypogastric plexus

Dull, cramping, diffuse

T10-L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the afferent pathway during stage 2 of labor? Which segments?

A

Pudendal nerve

Sharp, localized

S2-S4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Regional technique for Stage 1?

A

-Neuraxial

-Paravertebral lumbar sympathetic block

-Paracervical block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Regional technique for Stage 2 of labor?

A

-Neuraxial

-Pudendal nerve block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Describe the needle through the needle for CSE

A
  1. Epidural needle identifies epidural space
  2. Spinal needle is placed through epidural needle and then LA is injected
  3. Spinal needle is removed
  4. Epidural catheter is placed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Bupivacaine vs ropivacaine; Which one is a racemic mixture?

A

Bupivacaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Bupivacaine vs ropivacaine; Which one has more CV toxicity?

A

Bupivacaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Bupivacaine vs ropivacaine; Which one has increased block?

A

Bupivacaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Bupivacaine vs ropivacaine; Which one has low placental transfer?

A

Bupivacaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Benefits of ropivacaine?

A

Decreased potency, CV toxicity, motor block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When giving Bupivacaine, what symptom occurs before seizures?

A

CV toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When can chloroprocaine be used for labor?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How is chloroprocaine metabolized?

A

Pseudocholinesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How does chloroprocaine affect opioids?

A

Antagonizes the mu and kappa - reduces the efficacy of epidural morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is one risk of chloroprocaine ?

A

Arachnoiditis due to preservatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What happens if the an epidural is placed in a subdural space?

A

10-25 minutes the patient will experience a high block because of how small the space is, the volume spreads high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the treatment for a total spinal ?

A

Vasopressors
IVF
Left uterine displacement
Elevation of legs
Intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How might a total spinal occur? Injected into what space?

A

Subarachnoid space
Subdural space
Single shot spinal after failed epidural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the normal fetal heart rate?

A

110-160

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What type of decelerations are of concerned?

A

Late and variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are early decelerations? Risk to fetal hypoxemia?

A

Head compression from uterine contraction

No risk of fetal hypoxemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are late decelerations? Risk to fetal hypoxemia?

A

Placental insufficiency (compressed vessels)
-Baby heart rate drops AFTER contraction
-Occurs with each contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are variable decelerations? Risk to fetal hypoxemia?

A

Cord compression

  • No consistent pattern between contractions and fetal HR
  • Cord compression causes baroreceptor mediated reduction in FHR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How is premature delivery defined as?

A

Before 37 weeks or less than 259 days from last cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Complications of premature delivery ?

A

-Respiratory distress syndrome
-Intraventricular hemorrhage
-NEC
-Hypoglycemia
-Hypocalcemia
-Hyperbilirubinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How do steroids affect delivery? How long till they take effect?

A

18 hours with peak benefit at 48 hours

They hasten fetal lung maturity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How do tocolytic agents affect delivery ?

A

They stop labor and provide a bridge that allows steroids to work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What other drug is given along with tocolytic agents? To prevent what?

A

Antibiotic agents for chorioamnionitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When are steroids usually given by?

A

Before 33 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How do beta-2 agonists affect labor? What are side effects?

A

Prevent uterine contraction

-Hypokalemia from an intracellular K shift
-Beta-2 can cross placenta, causing increase in FHR
-Hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is mom at risk for when given beta-2 agonists for preterm labor?

A

Hyperglycemia

Hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Side effects of hypermagnesemia ?

A

Apnea
Hypotension
Skeletal muscle weakness
CNS depression
Reduced responsiveness to ephedrine and phenyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How is hypermagnesemia treated?

A

Supportive
Diuretics
IV calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Where is oxytocin made and stored?

A

Hypothalamus and stored in the post pituitary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Side effects of oxytocin?

A

Water retention
Hyponatremia
Hypotension
Reflex tachycardia
Coronary vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is methergine? Dose? Route? Side effects?

A

Erogt alkaloid

0.2mg IM (not IV)

Significant vasoconstriction, HTN, and cerebral hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the most common cause of maternal death?

A

Failure to secure the airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Pros to a general anesthetic?

A

Faster time to baby out
Secured airway
Greater hemodynamic stability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What type of aspiration prophylaxis should a patient receive scheduled for a cesarean?

A

Sodium citrate to neutralized acid

H2 antagonist to reduce secretion

Gastrokininetic agent that increases emptying and improves LES tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

When are pregnant women considered full stomach?

A

18-20 weeks

Require RSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

When and why should NSAIDS be avoided?

A

After the first trimester - inhibits prostaglandins

May close ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

HTN chart

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

When are moms at risk for seizures when related to HTN?

A

With eclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

When is protein in the urine when related to HTN?

A

Preeclampsia and eclampsia

76
Q

What is the classic triad of preeclampsia ?

A

HTN after 20 weeks
Proteinuria

Generalized edema is no longer a requirement

77
Q

What does thromboxane A2 do?

A

Plt aggregation
Vasoconstriction
Increased uterine activity

Decreased uterineplacental blood flow

78
Q

What does prostacyclin do?

A

Increases uteroplacental blood flow

Decreases BP
Decreases uterine activity
Decreases platelet aggregation

79
Q

What happens to the balance of prostacyclin to thromboxane in preeclampsia ?

A

Too much thromboxane which causes vasoconstriction

80
Q

Mild vs Severe preeclampsia; BP?

A

Severe > 160/110

81
Q

Mild vs Severe preeclampsia; urine total?

A

Mild - >500mL

Severe < 500mL

82
Q

Mild vs Severe preeclampsia; pulmonary edema, cyanosis, headache, visual impairment, epigastric pain?

A

ALL SEVERE

83
Q

Mild vs Severe preeclampsia; proteinuria?

A

Mild <5g/24 hours

Severe >5g/24 hours

84
Q

How much magnesium should be given for seizure prophylaxis for preeclampsia ?

A

Load 4g over 10 minutes
Infusion of 1g an hour

85
Q

How should an anesthetic be tailored for preeclampsia?

A

-Balanced fluids
-Monitor Plt
-Higher incidence of airway swelling

86
Q

How does increased magnesium affect NMB?

A

Exhibit an increased sensitivity to them

87
Q

How does magnesium affect postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Increases it due to magnesium relaxing the uterus

88
Q

Is neuraxial anesthesia okay with preeclampsia?

A

Yes - recommended

89
Q

How do preeclamptic patients respond to sympathomimetics and methergine
?

A

exaggerated response

90
Q

What is HELLP syndrome?

A

Hemolysis
Elevated liver enzymes
Low Plt

5-10 of preeclampsia patients

Epigastric pain and upper abdominal pain

91
Q

What is the definitive treatment for HELLP and preeclampsia?

A

Delivery of baby

92
Q

Considerations if mom is a cocaine user?

A

Mom will have tons of NE in the synaptic cleft which increases SNS tone

Increases risk of abortion, rupture, premature labor

Careful with beta blockers

Need to monitor Plt

93
Q

What is placenta accreta, increta, percreta

A

-uterine contractility is impaired

A- attaches to myometrium

I- Invades myometrium

P - Extends beyond uterus

94
Q

GA or neuraxial for abnormal placental implantation?

A

Both safe but GA preferred

Possible massive blood loss

95
Q

What is placenta previa? Main sign?

A

Placenta attached to the lower uterine segment

Covers cervical OS

Painless vaginal bleeding

96
Q

What conditions are associated with increased risk for placenta previa?

A

Previous c sections and multiple births

97
Q

What are risk factors for placental abruption?

A

PIH
Preeclampsia
Chronic HTN
Cocaine
Smoking
Excessive alcohol

98
Q

Most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Uterine atony which increased by;

Multiple fetus’s
Multiple gestations
Polyhydramnios
Prolonged oxytocin

99
Q

What medication can be given with retained placental fragments?

A

IV nitroglycerine

100
Q

What is the treatment for uterine atony?

A

Uterine massage
Oxytocin
Ergot alkaloids
Intrauterine balloon

101
Q

What is the APGAR score?

A

Used to assess newborn at 1 and 5 minutes

Normal: 8-10
Moderate distress: 4-7
Impending demise: 0-3

102
Q

APGAR chart

103
Q

What is the best indicator of ventilation during neonatal resuscitation?

A

Resolution of bradycardia

104
Q

Dosage for epi on a newborn?

A

1:10,000

10-30mcg/kg IV

0.05-0.1mg/kg intrathecal

105
Q

Dosage for volume expanders in newborns

A

PRBCs
NS
LR

10ml/kg over 10 minutes

106
Q

Vital sign chart for kids

107
Q

Why is the neonates minute ventilation higher than adults?

A

They consume twice as much O2

Metabolically more efficient to increase rate than tidal volume

108
Q

How is TV calculated for NB?

A

It’s the same
6ml/kg

109
Q

What is the primary determinant of blood pressure in the neonate?

A

HR

Frank-Starling is underdeveloped

110
Q

SNS vs PNS in neonate?

A

SNS in less mature than PNS which is why stressful situations may cause bradycardia

111
Q

Baroreceptor reflex in neonate?

A

Poorly developed, fails to increase heart rate in hypovolemia

112
Q

How do infants breathe up to months of age?

A

Through their nose

113
Q

Tongue size in infant compared to adult?

A

Much larger

114
Q

Neck size in infant compared to adult?

A

Shorter neck

115
Q

Epiglottis size in infant compared to adult?

A

Infant have a stiffer, longer and U shaped epiglottis

116
Q

Vocal cord position in infant?

A

Anterior slant

117
Q

Larynx in adult vs infant?

A

Adult - C5-C6
Infant C3-C4

Normal at 5 years old

118
Q

Narrowest opening in infant and adult?

A

Adult - Glottis
Infant - Cricoid * possibly glottis now

119
Q

Best position for intubating; adult vs infant

A

Adult - Sniffing

Infant- head on bed with shoulder roll

120
Q

Normal RR of infant?

121
Q

Normal O2 consumption; Adult vs Infant?

A

Adult - 3.5 mL/kg/min

Infant - 6 mL/kg/min

122
Q

Normal alveolar ventilation; Adult vs Infant?

A

Adult - 60ml/kg/min

Infant - 130ml/kg/min

123
Q

Why do neonates desaturate faster?

A

Increased consumption and demand

Slightly smaller FRC

124
Q

Why is an inhalation induction faster?

A

Smaller FRC and greater alveolar ventilation

125
Q

What are type 1 muscle fibers? Type 2?

A

1- Slow twitch which are built for endurance and don’t fatigue?

2- Fast twitch for heavy work and tire easily

126
Q

Why are neonates at risk for respiratory fatigue and respiratory failure?

A

Smaller number of type 1 so they fatigue faster

127
Q

Compare and contrast Lung volumes

128
Q

Which lung volumes are decreased in infants when compares to adults?

A

Infants have decreased FRC, vital capacity, and total lung volumes

129
Q

Which lung volumes are increased in infants when compares to adults?

A

Infants have increased RV and closing capacity

130
Q

Which lung volume remains unchanged?

A

Tidal volume

131
Q

ABG of newborn

132
Q

How does pH, PaO2, and PaCO2 changes during the first 24 hours for the baby

A

pH. 7.2 goes to 7.35

PaO2 50 goes to 70

PaCO2 50 goes to 30

133
Q

How does hypoxemia affect a newborn? When does this change?

A

Respiratory control doesn’t mature till 44 weeks

Hypoxemia depresses ventilation till this is matured

134
Q

What level does Fetal Hgb have? What is normal ?

A

F - 19

Adult - 26.5

135
Q

Does fetal have a higher or lower affinity for oxygen?

A

Higher due to having 2 gamma chains instead of beta chains

2,3 DPG binds to beta chains

136
Q

Indications for FFP in neonate?

A

Reversal of Warfarin

Correction of bleeding with elevated PT or PTT

Correction of bleeding if >1 blood volume has been replaced

137
Q

What is the dose of FFP for a neonate?

A

10-20 ml/kg

138
Q

When are Plt recommended for neonate? Dose?

A

Plt < 50,000

1 pack / 10kg

139
Q

What happens to body temp during massive transfusion?

A

Hypothermia

140
Q

What happens to pH during massive transfusion?

A

Alkalosis due to citrate metabolism in the liver

141
Q

What happens to BG during massive transfusion?

A

Hyperglycemia due to dextrose being added in

142
Q

What happens calcium during massive transfusion?

A

Hypocalcemia due to binding of citrate

143
Q

What happens to potassium during massive transfusion?

A

Hyperkalemia due to older blood

144
Q

How can you decrease the risk of hyperkalemia in a neonate receiving blood?

A

Using washed or fresh cells under 7 days

145
Q

What happens to Hgb and Hct levels from birth to 12 months

A

Start higher then drop to below normal at 3 months then slowly come to adult levels

146
Q

Estimated blood volumes? Neonate, infant, >1

A

neonate - 90 ml/kg
Infant - 80 ml/kg
1> year 70 ml/kg

147
Q

Max EBL

148
Q

When does GFR achieve maturation?

A

8-24 months

Infants are sensitive to dehydration and fluid overload because of this

149
Q

Distribution of water

150
Q

Signs of dehydration in neonate?

A

-Sunken anterior fontanel
- Weight loss
-Dry mucus membranes
-No tears
-Decreased skin turgor
-Lethargy
-Irritable
-Increased Hct

151
Q

How should NPO fluid be replaced?

A

1st hour - 50%
2nd hour - 25%
3rd hour - 25%

152
Q

Fluid replacement due to third spacing in neonates?

A

Minor; 3-4ml/kg/hr

Moderate 5-6ml/kg/hr

Major 7-10ml/kg/hr

153
Q

Is glucose solutions recommended for neonates?

A

NO

only in prematurity, moms with diabetes, less than 48 hours old, children with diabetes

154
Q

What is a normal cardiac output of a newborn? What does this mean for drugs?

A

200ml/kg/min

Drugs are delivered and removed at a faster rate

155
Q

When do plasma levels level out for newborns?

A

6 months

<6 months, need less of the medication that is protein bound

156
Q

How do MAC requirements change with age?

A

Premature - less than neonate
Neonate - less than infant
Infant 1-6 months- higher than an adult
Infant 2-3 months highest level

157
Q

MAC requirements for Sevo?

A

0 days to 6 months - higher
6 months to 12-year-old…lower than infant but higher than adult

158
Q

Dose for succ?

A

2mg/kg IV
4mg IM

159
Q

Fastest approach for succ?

A

Intralingual via submental

160
Q

What happens if a child receives a second dose of succ?

A

May cause bradycardia or asystole

161
Q

If an infant laryngospasm and can’t receive succ due to MH, what drug is given?

A

Roc - only nondepolarizer that can be given IM

162
Q

What is the most common congenital defect of the esophagus? Which class?

A

Esophageal atresia Type C

163
Q

How is Esophageal atresia diagnosed? What does this mean?

A

Prevents fetus from swallowing amniotic fluid and causes increased amniotic fluid (polyhydramnios)

Unable to pass gastric tube after birth

164
Q

What is VACTERL?

A

25-50% of patients with TEF have other anomalies

V - Vertebral defects
A Imperforated anus
C Cardiac anomalies
T TEF
E Esophageal atresia
R Renal Dysplasia
L Limb anomalies

165
Q

If a patient has a type C TEF, where should the tip of the ETT be ?

A

Below the fistula and above the carina

If it’s above the fistula then gas will go into the stomach

166
Q

How should intubation go with a patient that has TEF?

A

-Head up with suction
-Awake or inhalation with spontaneous breathing
- Place G tube and open to air
-Avoid positive pressure
-Precordial doppler on left side of chest —listening for r mainstem which will cause rapid desaturation

167
Q

Why are neonates at risk for respiratory distress syndrome?

A

Might not produce enough surfactant which allows small alveoli to collapse and large alveoli to expand

Creates a V/Q mismatch and lead to hypoxemia

168
Q

What test can be done in utero to assess lung development?

A

Amniocentesis - looking for the ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin

L/S ratio > 2 is good
L/S ratio < 2 is bad

169
Q

Where is the preductal pulse ox placed? Where is the postductal pulse ox?

A

Pre - Upper RE
Post- LE (either side)

170
Q

What is suggested if a patient has a difference between pre and postductal values?

A

Pulm HTN

R-L cardiac shunt

Return of fetal circulation via the PDA

171
Q

What does it mean if a patient has a hernia at the foramen of Bochdalek ?

A

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia which allows abdominal contents to enter the thoracic cavity

Usually on left side

172
Q

S&S of congenital diaphragmatic hernia?

A

Sunken (scaphoid) abdomen and likely have respiratory distress

others;
Barrel chest
Cardiac displacement
Fluid filled segments

173
Q

How is a patient with a diaphragmatic hernia managed?

A

Keep PIP <30
Avoid PVR (hypoxia, acidosis, hypothermia)

A pulse ox can be on LE and can warn of increased intra-abdominal pressure

174
Q

Treatment for omphalocele? What other diseases may be present?

A

Surgery but less urgent

Trisomy 21
Cardiac defects
Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

175
Q

Treatment for gastroschisis? What causes it? What are patients at risk for?

A

Prematurity

Surgery within 24 hours

Risk for fluid and heat loss

Need 150-300 ml/kg/day

176
Q

What may occur when omphalocele or gastroschisis are closed?

A

Possible increased abdominal pressures which may lead to decreased systemic perfusion

May close in stages

Monitor SpO2 on LE

177
Q

How and when does pyloric stenosis present? More common in males or females?

A

Olive shape mass above xiphoid process

Infants with non-bilious projectile vomiting

2-12 weeks of life

More common in males

178
Q

Electrolyte balances with pyloric stenosis? Na, K, Cl, pH?

A

Vomiting depletes water and causes

Hyponatremia
Hypokalemia
Hypochloremia
Metabolic alkalosis

179
Q

Anesthetic management for pyloric stenosis?

A

MEDICAL emergency (not surgical)

Stabilize electrolytes
Full stomach
Drop OG/NG
Liberal fluids

May be apneic postoperative due to pH remaining alkalotic

180
Q

What is NEC and who is at risk?

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis at the terminal ileum and proximal colon

Early feeding is impaired and leads to bacterial growth and infection

Risk for bowel perforation

Premature babies are at highest risk

181
Q

How is NEC treated?

A

Medically unless there is a bowel perforation which can lead to short gut syndrome if removed

182
Q

What is retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)?

A

Phase 1 - inhibited growth of retinal vessels

Phase 2 - overgrowth of abnormal vessels with fibrous bands

183
Q

Risk factors for ROP?

A

Premature/low birth weight
Hyperoxia
Mechanical ventilation
Blood transfusion
Sepsis
Vit E deficiency

184
Q

How does FiO2 affect ROP?

A

Until retinal maturation is complete, FiO2 should be titrated between 89-94%

185
Q

What is apoptosis and which anesthetics can cause this?

A

Programmed cell death

ALL except for opioids, xenon, and precedex

186
Q

What is baby at risk for if mom is hyperglycemic?

A

Baby is at risk for hypoglycemia after birth due no longer having mom’s glucose supply but having baby’s insulin still circulating