Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dip GUM > O+g For GUM > Flashcards

O+g For GUM Flashcards

1
Q

What is Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome

A

Müllerian agenesis - absent / rudimentary uterus + upper vagina.
Primary amenorrhea after normal pubertal development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What age defines precocious puberty

A

Before 8 in F

Before 9 in M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

2 categories of precocious puberty

A

Central (gonadotropin dependent - 75% cause unknown.)

Peripheral (always pathological)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Causes of central precocious puberty

A

75% unknown

25% due to CNS malformation or brain tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Causes of peripheral precocious puberty

A

Always pathological

Oestrogen secretion - e.g. Hormone producing tumour, exogenous ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Age definition of delayed puberty

A

No secondary sexual characteristics
by age 13 In girls
14 in boys

Due to - hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism
- hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What causes hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

A 
Constitutional 
Anorexia nervosa
Excessive exercise 
Diabetes 
Renal failure
(Pituitary tumour, kalman's syndrome) - rare
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What causes hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism

A

Turner syndrome
XX gonadal dysgenesis
Premature ovarian failure
Following chemo or radio therapy for child cancers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does gonadotropin releasing hormone do

A

Controls pituitary hormone secretion
GnRH secreted in a pulsatile way to stimulate LH and FSH
GnRH at constant high dose reduces LH and FSH secretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the effect of oestrogen on LH

A

Low oestrogen inhibits LH production.

High oestrogen increases LH production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Effect of progesterone on LH and FSH

A

Low progesterone levels increase LH and FSH productions.

High progesterone levels decrease LH and FSH productions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Causes of heavy menstrual bleeding

A 
Fibroids
Endometrial polyps
Coagulation disorders 
PID
thyroid disease
Drug tx - warfarin
Copper coil
Endometrial ca
Cervical ca
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Management of heavy menstrual bleeding

A 
Mefenamic acid (NSAID) 
Tranexamic acid 
Mirena coil
COCP
Norethisterone - taken from day 6 to 26 
GnRH agonists - short term
Endometrial ablation 
Hysterectomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Causes of dysmenorrhea

A 
Idiopathic
Endometriosis 
Adenomyosis
PID
Cervical stenosis
Haematometra
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Diagnosis of endometriosis

A

laparoscopy - gold standard

often clinically suspected and managed without laparoscopic confirmation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Management options for endometriosis

A

COCP - continuous is best
IUS - Mirena / Levosert
Surgical laser ablation, diathermy or excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Complication of endometriosis

A

Pain - dysmenorrhoea / dyaparunia
Adhesions
‘Chocolate’ ovarian cysts = endometriomas
possible increased risk of Infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is adenomyosis

A

Ectopic endometrial tissue within myometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Management of dysmenorrhea

A 
NSAIDS - ibruprofen, mefenamic acid
COCP
IUS - Mirena / Levosert
Exercise
Heat packs 
GnRH anaologues - short term only
?Low fat diet nay help
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Causes of dyspareunia

A 
PID 
Endometriosis
Ovarian cysts
STIs - CT most common cause
Vaginal atrophy / lack of lubrication 
UTIs
Thrush / vulvovaginitis / genital skin conditions / HSV (superficial dyspareunia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define primary amenorrhea

A

Failure to menstruate by age 16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define secondary amenorrhea

A

Absence of menstruation for >6m that isn’t due to pregnancy, lactation or menopause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Causes of secondary amenorrhea

A 
Obesity
BMI <18.5
Excessive exercise 
Severe anxiety 
Pituitary tumour
Chemotherapy 
Antipsychotic drugs
Thyroid overactivity
PCOS
POI
Ashermans syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Causes of primary amenorrhea

A 
Anatomical 
 - cervical stenosis
 - imperforate hymen
 - Müllerian agenesis
 - transverse vaginal septum
Hypothalamic-pituitary dysfunction
 - Anorexia 
 - Chronic illness 
 - excessive exercise
 - head injury
Ovarian failure
 - Turners syndrome 
 - POF
 - chemotherapy 
 - pelvic irradiation
Hypothyroidism 
Hyperthyroidism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Investigation of amenorrhea

A

Pregnancy test
Blood - LH, FSH - if premature menopause suspected
Prolactin level
TFT
USS of ovaries
Hysteroscopy if ashermans / cervical stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Clinical manifestations of PCOS

A 
Menstrual irregularity - oligomenorrhoea / amenorrhea 
Hirsutism 
Subfertility
Recurrent miscarriage (50%)
Obesity
High LH 
insulin resistance 
Acanthosis nigricans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Diagnosis of PCOS

A

2 or more of:

  • amenorrhea / oligomenorrhoea
  • hyperandrogenism
  • polycystic ovaries on USS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Management of PCOS

A

COCP - for endometrial protection, cycle regulation and contraception
OR Cyclical oral progesterone - for endometrial protection
Metformin
Clomiphene
Weight reduction
Exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Management of hirsutism

A 
Eflornithine cream
Cyproterone acetate (Dianette) 
Metformin
GnRH analogues
Laser / electrolysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Causes of post menopausal bleeding

A 
Atrophic vaginitis - 60%
Endometrial polyps - 12%
Endometrial hyperplasia - 10%
Endometrial carcinoma - 10%
Hormonal effects - 7%
Cervical carcinoma - <1%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Investigation of post menopausal bleeding

A

TV USS of endometrial thickness (<3mm)
Endometrial biopsy
Hysteroscopy (+curettage of polyps)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Management of atrophic vaginitis

A 
Topical oestrogen cream 
Oestrogen pessaries 
Oestrogen ring pessaries 
Vaginal moisturisers - daily use
Vaginal lubricants for SI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Management of simple or complex endometrial hyperplasia (without atypia)

A

Oral progesterone
Mirena (NOT Levosert)
Usually regresses with progestogen treatment - needs monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How can we explain endometrial hyperplasia to a patient

A

Endometrial hyperplasia is when the endometrium, the lining of the womb, becomes too thick.
It is not cancer, but in some cases if we leave it it could become cancer of the lining of the womb (uterus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Management of atypical endometrial hyperplasia

A

Total abdominal hysterectomy - risk of progression to malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Management of endometrial cancer

A

Total abdominal hysterectomy + BSO + washing +/- adjuvant therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Management of pre-menstrual syndrome

A 
Stress reduction
Exercise
Alcohol and caffeine reduction 
COCP / oestrogen patches / IUS
SSRIs
CBT
GnRH analogues - short term
GnRH analogues - long term with add back HRT continuous combined
Hysterectomy + BSO
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Causes of cervical excitation

A

Ectopic pregnancy
PID
gonorrhoea / CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Drugs for heavy menstrual bleeding

A 
Mefenamic acid
Tranexamic acid
Norethisterone day 15 or 19 - 26
Levornagesterel IUD
Danazol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How frequent should HIV +Ve women have cervical smears?

A

Yearly.

Despite CD4 count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the recommended frequency of cervical smears for women aged 25-49?

A

3 yearly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the recommended frequency of cervical smears for women aged 50-64?

A

5 yearly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is Sheehan syndrome

A

Intrapartum pituitary haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Does smoking affect the menopause?

A

yes - earlier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Define postmenopausal bleeding

A

PV bleeding occurring at least 12 months after the cessation of menstruation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Causes of postmenopausal bleeding include

A 
Vaginal atrophy
Endometrial carcinoma
Endometrial hyperplasia
Cervical cancer
Ovarian cancer
Liver cirrhosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A retroverted uterus may be associated with what symptoms

A

none
Backache
dyspareunia

48
Q

Characteristics of lichen sclerosis

A

Thickened skin and accentuated markings of the vulva

Itching and pain

49
Q

What is the malignant potential of lichen sclerosis in %

A

Potential of squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva in 2 - 5%

50
Q

Treatment of lichen sclerosis

A

Topical steroids emollient

Avoid irritants, heat and allergens

51
Q

What may koilocites on a cervical smear suggest

A

HPV

52
Q

Possible presentation of antiphospholipid syndrome

A 
Recurrent miscarriage
Arterial or venous thrombosis
Livedo reticularis rash
Stroke
Adrenal haemorrhage
Migraine
Myelitis
Myocardial infarction
Multi-infarct dementia
53
Q

Antibodies found in antiphospholipid syndrome

A

Anti-cardiolipin antibodies

54
Q

What happens to CIN on colposcopy when acetic acid and iodine are applied

A

Aceto-white change

Failure of iodine staining

55
Q

Persistent gestational trophoblastic disease occurs in what percentage of molar pregnancies?

A

0.5 - 15%
treatment = surgery + methotrexate
or dactinomycin and etoposide

56
Q

what proportion of VIN would progress to invasive cancer if left untreated

A

> 80%

57
Q

how much of the endometrium does a pipelle biopsy sample?

A

4%

58
Q

risk factors for cervical cancer

A

smoking
multiple sexual partners
immunosuppression
COCP use

59
Q

risk factors for ovarian cancer

A 
1st degree relative with ovarian cancer
known BRCA1 or 2 gene
age >63
obesity 
early menarche <12yo
nulliparous
first child when aged >30
menopause later than age 50
previous fertility drug use
60
Q

What is the RMI formulae

A

risk of malignancy index

RMI = (ultrasound score x menopausal status) / CA125

61
Q

What ultrasound features score 1 point when calculating the RMI score for ovarian cancer

A

Ultrasound features - 1 point for each of:

  • multi-locular cysts
  • solid areas
  • metastasis
  • acsites
  • bilateral lesions

Then for RMI calculation use the following numbers
0 if scored 0
1 if scored 1
3 if scored 2-5

62
Q

What susceptibility does the BRCA1 gene confer for breast cancer and ovarian cancer

A

BRCA1
= 83% risk of breast cancer
= 63% risk of ovarian cancer

63
Q

What may endometrial hyperplasia be associated with

A 
obesity 
anovulation
unopposed exogenous estrogens
tamoxifen
oestrogen secreting tumours
64
Q

What risk factors are associated with endometrial hyperplasia?

A 
Increasing age 
White race
Nulliparous
Older age at menopause
Early menarche
Diabetes mellitus,
PCOS 
gallbladder disease
thyroid disease
Obesity
Cigarette smoking
Family history of ovarian, colon, or uterine cancer
65
Q

Lynch II syndrome is a familial predisposition to what

A

non-polyposis colon cancer
endometrial cancer
ovarian cancer

66
Q

Common signs of ectopic pregnancy (3)

and other less common signs (9)

A

common - pelvic tenderness / adnexal tenderness / abdominal tenderness

less common - cervical motion tenderness / rebound tendernesss / peritonitis / abdo distension
pallor / tachycardia >100 / Hypotension BP <100/60 / postural hypotension / shock or collapse

67
Q

How may women with an ectopic pregnancy have no risk factors

A

1 in 3

68
Q

Who would be referred to Early pregnancy Assessment unit and how urgent

A

Immediate / ED if - UPT +Ve and pain on examination or cervical motion tenderness

Non-urgernt referral if - UPT +ve and one of:

  • reports pain but not found on examination
  • pregnancy >6 weeks + bleeding
  • pregnancy unknown gestation + bleeding
69
Q

RCOG recommended management of a F with +ve UPT <6/40 with bleeding but no pain

A

expectant management
repeat UPT in 7-10 days
A negative UPT at that point would suggest complete miscarriage
advise return if bleeding worsens or develops pain

70
Q

management in EPAU if CRL on TV USS <7mm and no FH

A

perform a second scan in a MINIMUM of 7 days before diagnosing miscarriage

71
Q

management in EPAU if CRL on TV USS >/=7mm and no FH

A

Second opinion re presence of FH to confirm diagnosis of miscarriage
OR - repeat USS in 7/7

72
Q

Steps for confirming viability on an EPAU TV scan

A

Look for FH
if no FH measure CRL if fetal pole seen
if no fetal pole measure the gestational sac diameter

73
Q

management in EPAU if no FH but CRL measured by TA scan only

A

Record CRL

repeat scan in 14 days before making diagnosis of miscarriage

74
Q

management in EPAU if TV USS shows mean sac diameter <25mm and no fetal pole

A

repeat scan in 7/7

75
Q

Symptoms of ectopic pregnancy

  • common (3)
  • less common (7)
A

common

  • abdo or pelvic pain
  • amenorrhoea / +ve UPT
  • PV bleeding +/- clots

less common

  • breast tenderness
  • GI symptoms
  • Dizziness / fainting
  • shoulder tip pain
  • urinary symptoms
  • passage of tissue
  • rectal pressure / pain on defecation
76
Q

What are the cervical screening guidelines in Scotland

A

Changed to the same as rest of UK
i.e. 25 - 49 years = 3 yearly
50 - 64 years = 5 yearly
Until June 2016 was 20 - 60 years old - 3 yearly

77
Q

Karyotype and phenotype of Androgen Insensitivity Syndome

and inheritance pattern

A 
Karyotype = 46 XY
Pheonotype = female 
inheritance = X-linked recessive
78
Q

Pathophysiology of androgen insensitivity syndrome and result

A

46XY
failure of normal masculinisation of male genitals
Due to complete or partial insensitivity of the androgen receptor
Normal androgen synthesis and levels

79
Q

What age and frequency is breast cancer screening offered?

A

50 - 71 = 3 yearly

>71 on request

80
Q

Presentation of triple X

47 XXX

A

Female
1 : 1000 female births

Neuromotor or developmental delay
Immature behaviour
Reduced IQ
tall stature

81
Q

what may annovulation be associated with

A 
contracpetion 
Drugs 
stress / depression 
excess exercise
excess weight loss
chronic renal failure
PCOS
Cushings 
asthma
82
Q

Normal range of oestradiol

A

oestradiol = 130 - 830 pmol/l

83
Q

Normal range of LH

A

LH = 1 - 10 mU/l

84
Q

Normal range of FSH

A

FSH = 1 - 10 mU/l

85
Q

Normal range of prolactin

A

Prolactin = 50 - 450 mU/l

86
Q

Normal range of testosterone in women

A

normal testosterone level in women - <3pmol/l

87
Q

Azoospermia and a normal FSH is consistent with what diagnosis

A

Obstructive cause of male subfertility

  • congenital absence of the vas
  • varicoceles
  • tubal blockage secondary to infection or trauma
88
Q

Azoospermia and a raised FSH is consistent with what diagnosis

A

testicular failure

89
Q

what signs or symptoms would merit admission for OHSS

A 
tachypnoea / SOB
hypotension
tense ascites
oliguria
electrolyte imbalances
intractable vomiting
90
Q

long term risks of premature ovarian insufficiency

A 
subfertility
cardiovascular disease risk
decreased BMD / risk of osteoporosis
reduced cognitive function
decreased verbal fluency 
impaired memory 
possible increased risk of Alzheimers
91
Q

What is the age cut off for diagnosis of premature ovarian insufficiency

A

40 yo

92
Q

what are possible autoimmune causes of premature ovarian insufficiency

A 
addisons
pernicious anaemia
hashimotos 
ITP
Rheumatoid arthritis with vitiligo 
bushings
myaasthenia gravis
93
Q

Effects of metformin when used in treatment of PCOS

A 
Decrease insulin secretion 
improved insulin sensitivity
increased conception rate
decrease androgen levels
decrease hepatic gluconeogenesis
NOT effective for weight loss
94
Q

What is the role of FSH in men

A

Stimulates the formation of sperm in the testes

95
Q

How many days does spermatogenesis take?

A

70 - 80 days

96
Q

What is type 1 FGM

A

Partial or total removal of the clitoris

Or in rare cases removal of the just the clitoral prepuce

97
Q

What is type 2 FGM

A

Partial or total removal of the clitoris and labia minora

with or without excision of the labia majora

98
Q

What is type 3 FGM

A

Infibulation

Narrowing of the vaginal opening by creating a covering seal
cutting + repositioning the inner or outer labia
+/- removal of the clitoris

99
Q

What is type 4 FGM

A

All other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes

e.g.
pricking, piercing, incising, scraping, cauterising

100
Q

Short term consequences of FGM

A 
Haemorrhage
infection 
urinary retention
sepsis
death
tetanus
gangrene
transmission of HIV / Hepatitis
101
Q

long term consequences of FGM

A 
recurrent UTI
painful menstruation
psychological problems
Sexual difficulties
pregnancy complications
subfertility 
Cysts
Keloid scarring
102
Q

At what age are women first invited for cervical screening

A

24.5 years

to ensure women can be screened for the first time by their 25th birthday

103
Q

In what circumstances may women have a cervical smear taken at age 65+

A

Invitation as required for women who have had recent abnormal tests.

Women who have not had an adequate screening test reported since age 50 may be screened on request

104
Q

what can be done for women who do not want cervical screening

A

Voluntary withdrawal from the programme by written request.
Reasons for voluntary withdrawal may include:
• women at low risk of cervical cancer. e.g. never had intimate contact with another male or female
• A physical or learning disability of a nature that makes taking a sample very difficult or distressing, who do not wish to receive further invitations
• women who may not benefit from screening. e.g. terminally ill
• women unable to give an adequate sample – e.g. FGM - alternative options such as gynaecological referral should be discussed
• women who do not want to participate at any point

105
Q

Medical reasons for ceasing a womans invitation for cervical smears

A

Women should be ceased from the programme where they do not have a cervix due to:
• total hysterectomy (women with a subtotal hysterectomy remain at risk and should remain in the programme)
• congenital absence of the cervix
• being a male-to-female transsexual
• having undergone a radical trachelectomy for cervical cancer
• after radiotherapy for cervical, bladder, rectal and other pelvic cancers - difficult to accurately report samples - provide with gynaecological follow-up instead

106
Q

Management of a patient where cervical stenosis is preventing adequate cervical screening smears

A 
Refer for colposcopy examination
AND
Consider cervical dilatation 
OR
Consider hysterectomy - if a history of high- grade dyskaryosis or cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN)

If neither options are appropriate or acceptable then discuss voluntary withdrawal from the screening programme.

107
Q

What is the HPV triage protocol for cervical screening

A

HR-HPV triage protocol
= cervical samples reported as borderline / low-grade dyskaryosis
given a HR-HPV test
IF
HPV positive - referred to colposcopy
HR-HPV negative - returned to routine recall

IF high-grade dyskaryosis or worse - referred straight to colposcopy without a HR-HPV test

108
Q

What is the HPV test of cure protocol fro cervical screening

A

After treatment for all grades of CIN
women are invited for screening at 6 months

IF sample is negative / borderline / low-grade dyskaryosis then do HR-HPV test.

IF the HPV test is negative - recall in 3 years (irrespective of age) and return to routine recall if that test is negative.

IF the HR-HPV test is positive - referr back to colposcopy.

IF cytology is high-grade dyskaryosis or worse - refer straight to colposcopy without an HR-HPV test

109
Q

What is Primary HR-HPV testing

A

Cervical screening algorithm - introduced 2019

Smear sample is taken as usual
Tested for HR-HPV first
if HR-HPV +ve then perform cytology

Women who are:

  • HPV negative = returned to the routine screening programme
  • HPV positive = cytology performed AND referred to colposcopy OR rescreened in 12 months
110
Q

Why is the primary HR-HPV testing algorithm for cervical screening superior to cytology primary testing?

A

Primary HR-HPV testing = higher sensitivity for high grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) than primary cytology.

Lower false negative rate

111
Q

When should cervical screening be delayed ?

A

A cervical sample should not be taken (unless you think the woman will not re-attend), if the woman:

  • Is menstruating.
  • Is less than 12 weeks postnatal.
  • Is less 12 weeks after a termination of pregnancy, or miscarriage.
  • Has a vaginal discharge or pelvic infection — treat the infection and take the sample on another occasion.
  • If the woman is pregnant
112
Q

Should women who are immunosuppressed be offered more frequent cervical screening?

A
  • HIV positive - offer annually + colpscopy at HIV diagnosis
  • Kidney failure requiring dialysis (any disease with a high chance of needing organ transplantation) - offer AT diagnosis
  • Patients about to undergo organ transplantation - offer within 1 year BEOFRE transplantation
  • Patients starting cytotoxic drugs for rheumatological disorders - offer at START of treatment if the screening history is incomplete

There is NO indication for increased surveillance in women taking:

  • Post-transplantation immunosuppressive drugs after the 1st year
  • Cytotoxic chemotherapy for non-genital cancers.
  • Long-term biologic agents.
  • Oestrogen antagonists (such as tamoxifen).
113
Q

Stages of CIN

A

CIN1 — one-third of the thickness of the surface layer of the cervix is affected

CIN2 — two-thirds of the thickness of the surface layer of the cervix is affected.

CIN3 — sometimes called high-grade or severe dysplasia or stage 0 cervical carcinoma in situ.
The full thickness of the surface layer is affected

114
Q

Causes of a cervical cytology result being inadequate

A

cervix was not fully visualized.
Sample was taken in an inappropriate manner (e.g. using an unapproved device)
Sample contains insufficient cells.
Sample contains an obscuring element (e.g. lubricant / inflammation / blood).

Is incorrectly labelled

115
Q

Management of a patient with actinomyces-like organisms (ALOs) reported present on the cervical cytology result

A

If patent has no IUD/ IUS - No follow up is required.

If patient has an IUD / IUS is in situ and is asymptomatic - it does not need to be removed.

If patient has an IUD / IUS is in situ and is symptomatic
e.g. pelvic pain / deep dyspareunia / ntermenstrual bleeding / vaginal discharge / dysuria / significant pelvic tenderness
= consider removing device after excluding STIs +/- treating for PID

116
Q

When should a referral to colposcopy be made on the basis of consecutive inadequate cervical screening samples

A

After 3 consecutive inadequate samples

Dip GUM (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions