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Healthy Animals 2 > Nutrition Block > Flashcards

Nutrition Block Flashcards

1
Q

What’s the most common nutritional disorder?

A

Obesity

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2
Q

What is considered overweight?

A

6/9 - 7/9

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3
Q

What is considered obese?

A

BCS 8/9 - 9/9

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4
Q

What are 4 negative consequences of obesity?

A

Source of inflammatory cytokines
Skin disorder
Respiratory compromise
Shortened life span

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5
Q

What are 3 increased risks associated with obesity?

A

Increased risk of diabetes mellitus
Increased risk of orthopedic disease

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6
Q

When should you switch a puppy to an adult maintenance diet?

A

Once skeletal maturity is reached

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7
Q

What BCS should large breed dogs be kept at?

A

4/9

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8
Q

Why keep large breed puppies lower on BCS during development?

A

Reduce orthopedic disease

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9
Q

When will some large breed dogs switch to adult maintenance diets?

A

12-15 months

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10
Q

What is each BCS point roughly equal to?

A

About 10%

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11
Q

What percent of body weight would a dog need to lose to go from a 7 to a 5?

A

About 20% of BW to reach IBW

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12
Q

What is the RER equation for smaller dogs (3-25kg)

A

30(BW)+70

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13
Q

What is the RER equation for larger dogs 25kg+?

A

70(BW^0.75)

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14
Q

What is the absolute minimum protein for dogs (g per 100kcal)

A

6.0g/100kcal

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15
Q

What is the absolute minimum protein for cats (g per 100kcal)?

A

8.9g/kcal

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16
Q

What will an increase in dietary fiber cause?

A

Increased volume and frequency of bowel movements

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17
Q

How should you measure your food?

A

ON A g/DAY basis!

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18
Q

Are vegetables a good low calorie treat?

A

Yes! Green beans, carrots, cucumbers, and celery

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19
Q

What’s a good weight loss goal per week?
For low protein diets?

A

1%-2% per week
Low protein diets 0.5%-1%

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20
Q

What is the obesity paradox?

A

Being obese can predispose to chronic wasting diseases but once a chronic wasting disease is diagnosed, it may be better to be obese/overweight

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21
Q

What’s a good BCS for an animal with a chronic wasting disease?

A

7/9

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22
Q

What 2 things should you do when an animal reaches a plateau?

A

1) Reassure owner its normal
2) Reduce feed intake by 2.5-5%

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23
Q

What is the best tool for managing obesity?

A

Prevention!

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24
Q

What are the 2 components to a weight loss plan?

A

Animal assessment
Diet assessment

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25
Q

What are the only 3 words with legal definitions in weight loss pet foods?

A

Lite
Light
Low-calorie

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26
Q

Can you just feed less food per day to have weight loss?

A

No, nutritional deficiencies

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27
Q

What are the 4 unconventional diets?

A

Raw
Vegetarian/Vegan
Home prepared
BEG

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28
Q

What does BEG stand for?

A

Boutique, exotic, grain free

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29
Q

What are some health risks associated with unconventional diets?

A

Infectious disease transmission
Nutritional inadequacy
Hyperthyroidism
Dietary associated cardiomyopathy (DCM)

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30
Q

What time period is the most profound inadequacies of home prepared meals found?

A

Growth/puppy stage

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31
Q

What are the 4 most common disease risks (bacterial) of feeding raw?

A

E. coli
Salmonella
Cryptosporidium
Toxoplasma Gondii

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32
Q

Who else is especially at risk with feeding raw diets?

A

Immunocompromised
Children
Elderly
(Even if now showing disease, can still spread it)

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33
Q

What metabolic disease is sometimes seen in dogs eating raw diets?

A

Hyperthyroidism
-Likely from consuming thyroid tissue, normal thyroid resumes after stopping raw diet

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34
Q

Are all vegan/vegetarian diets bad?

A

No

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35
Q

What is something common that Vega/vegetarian diets are deficient in?

A

Essential amino acids

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36
Q

What’s the website that the Dr. Recommends using?

A

BalanceIT

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37
Q

What are the 2 types of blood needed to test for taurine deficiency? CHECK TAURINE ON DCM DOGS

A

Spun down plasma
Whole blood

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38
Q

What can hyperintensive lesions on brainstem be caused by?

A

Thiamine deficiency

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39
Q

What are 3 ingredients that have been shown to not be good for dogs?

A

Peas, chickpeas, lentils
-Probably not good if one of top ingredients

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40
Q

What is something that should be considered before recommending a diet?

A

If at least 1 full time veterinarian is on staff

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41
Q

Generational changes lead to increased incidence of postpartum __________

A

Displaced abomassums

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42
Q

When does most of the growth of a fetus occur?

A

During the latter 1/3rd of gestation

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43
Q

As a pig gets older, does it need more or less crude protein, metabolizable protein, and lysine as a percent of its diet?

A

Less, more, more

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44
Q

What is the goal for a dairy calf?

A

Double weight from birth to weaning (6-8 weeks)

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45
Q

What is the rough body weight and height gain for Holsteins to reach appropriate size and weight by breeding at 13 months?

A

1.7lb/day
1.2”/month

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46
Q

What is the rough body weight and height gain for Jerseys to reach appropriate size and weight by breeding at 13 months?

A

1.3lb/day
1.1”/month
NEED TO ACHIEVE BOTH. DONT WANT SHORT FAT HEIFER

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47
Q

What is the SIP of colostrum quality?

A

S = supply of colostrum
I = amount of immunoglobulins
P = Pathogens should not be present (less than 100,000 cfu/mL)

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48
Q

What is the total solids measurement?

A

(0.9984 x Brix reading) + 2.077 = Total solids (%)

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49
Q

How do humans and rabbits transfer their Ig?

A

Through the placenta

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50
Q

How do ungulates transfer their Ig?

A

Through their colostrum

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51
Q

How do rats, dogs, and cats transfer their Ig?

A

Through both placenta and colostrum

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52
Q

What stimulates the production of carbohydrase activity?

A

Consumption of solid feed

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53
Q

What stimulates development of rumen in calves?

A

Butyrate production

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54
Q

Which ungulate species has the lowest milk fat?

A

Mares

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55
Q

What ungulate species has the highest milk fat production?

A

Sows
Ewes are also up there

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56
Q

When is the weaning time for dairy cows?

A

5-6 weeks

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57
Q

When is the weaning time for foals?

A

4-5 months

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58
Q

When is the weaning time for piglets?

A

3-4 weeks / 10-16lb

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59
Q

When is the weaning time for goats?

A

60 days

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60
Q

When is the weaning time for sheep?

A

60 days

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61
Q

When is the weaning time for beef cows?

A

300lbs

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62
Q

How much colostrum should a dairy calf get at birth?
Within 12-24hrs?

A

2 quarts
Another 2 quarts

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63
Q

What is the definition of immunity?

A

The ability to decern self from nonself

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64
Q

What is a PAMP and what is its role?

A

Pathogen associated molecular pattern
It is a conserved region which is recognized by the body

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65
Q

What are PRRs and what are their roles?

A

Pathogen recognition receptor (like an LPS receptor)
Senses the PAMPs to tell cells to respond

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66
Q

What is the most well-characterized PRR

A

TLR (toll like receptors)

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67
Q

Which TLR recognizes LPS?

A

TLR 4 (very evolutionarily conserved)

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68
Q

True/False
An infection is only recognized by a single type of PRR resulting in only a single downstream cascade?

A

False

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69
Q

What are some examples of pro inflammatory factors?

A

IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha

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70
Q

What cell is the very first line of defense for the innate immune system (NETs, phagocytosis, enzymes)

A

Neutrophils

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71
Q

What are the innate cells best at phagocytosis and also present antigens to T cells?

A

Macrophages

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72
Q

What are the parasitic or allergic reaction innate cells?

A

Eosinophils

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73
Q

What innate cells produce heparin and histamine to encourage blood flow to areas? Also recruit eosinophils

A

Mast cells

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74
Q

What is the innate cell that just focuses on elimination (for the most part)?

A

Natural killer cells

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75
Q

What innate cell is able to trap antigens to present to T cells as its primary job?

A

Dendritic cells

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76
Q

What is the word antigen derived from?

A

ANTIbody GENerating molecule

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77
Q

What do T and B cells actually bind to on the antigen?

A

The epitope

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78
Q

What does APC stand for?

A

Antigen presenting cell

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79
Q

What must an antigen be bound to to be recognized by a T lymphocyte?

A

An MHC

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80
Q

Which MHC is expressed by almost every cell in the body?

A

MHC 1

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81
Q

What does MHC1 present intracellular peptides to?
What does MHCII present extracellular peptides to?

A

CD8 T cells
CD4 T cells

82
Q

What cells express MHC II?

A

Macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells

83
Q

Describe the 3 steps to antigen presentation?

A
  1. Bring it in (phagocytosis)
  2. Break it down into smaller structures
  3. Antigen presentation on MHC
84
Q

What are the best professional antigen presenting cells?

A

Dendritic cells

85
Q

What manor do professional antigen presenting cells present antigens?

A

With MHC II (dendritic cells, macrophages, and sometimes B lymphocytes)

86
Q

What are primary lymphoid tissue?

A

Where initial maturation, programming and differentiation occurs
Bones and thymus

87
Q

What are secondary lymphoid tissues?

A

Where lymphocytes reside and mount a response?
Lymph nodes and spleen

88
Q

How many epitopes can a single B and T cell recognize

A

Just a single epitope!

89
Q

What are the specialized venues that connect the blood system to the lymphatic system?

A

High endothelial venues (HEVs)

90
Q

What is the first thing that happens when a specific T lymphocyte comes in contact with its specific antigen?

A

This is called clonal selection then clonal expansion occurs where many more of the same T lymphocyte form

91
Q

What are the 2 general cell populations that form during clonal expansion?

A

Effector population
Memory population

92
Q

Do you supplement sheep with copper and why?

A

No, they can develop copper toxicity

93
Q

What is the fix for polioencephalomalacia?

A

Thiamin injection

94
Q

What reduces fiber quality in goats?

A

Overfeeding energy and protein

95
Q

What are the compartments of a camelid stomach

A

C1
C2
C3 (fermentation vat)

96
Q

What does C1 do in the camelid?

A

Similar to reticule-rumen, buffering secretion

97
Q

What does C2 do?

A

Similar to omasum, absorb VFA and water

98
Q

Why are camelids less prone to ketosis than ruminants?

A

Propionate higher than ruminant

99
Q

What should the primary diet of horses be?

A

Forage diet

100
Q

What nutritional factor can cause laminitis/founder in horses?

A

Pasture (spring) or over feeding of grain

101
Q

What can nutritional change can decrease colic in horses?

A

Limiting starch intake

102
Q

What increases risk of insulin resistance?

A

Over conditioning, age

103
Q

When are pigs usually weaning?

A

10-16lb
3-4 weeks

104
Q

How should you feed gilts vs barrows?

A

Gilts have better feed efficiency, require higher level of protein and need more energy dense diets than barrows

105
Q

What are high quality protein diets?

A

Soybean meal and fish meal

106
Q

What are low quality protein diets?

A

Peanuts meal or cottonseed meal

107
Q

What occurs when you use low quality protein in feed?

A

Excess nitrogen excretion

108
Q

What critical enzyme do swine lack?

A

Phytase which disallows swine from utilizing bound phosphorus

109
Q

How is the lack of phytase fixed?

A

Synthetic phytase enzyme can be added

110
Q

How long do chickens need to reach market weight?

A

6-7 weeks

111
Q

How much time elapses before fetus weighs as much as membranes?

A

50%

112
Q

What nutritional requirement decreases as pigs grow older?

A

Less protein is needed

113
Q

What is the goal for a dairy calf in terms of BW at weaning

A

Goal is to double BW from birth to weaning

114
Q

What is the growth weight per day for Holsteins at breeding time?

A

1.7lb/day
1.2”/month

115
Q

What does SIP stand for?

A

Supply of colostrum
Immunoglobulin concentration
Pathogens of low presence

116
Q

How do humans and rabbits transfer Ig?

A

Through placenta

117
Q

How do ungulates transfer Ig?

A

Through colostrum

118
Q

What stimulate the development of carbohydrase development?

A

Solid feed consumption

119
Q

What stimulates rumen development?

A

Butyrate production

120
Q

Do mares have high or low milk fat?

A

Very low

121
Q

Do sows and ewes have high or low milk fat?

A

Very high

122
Q

Do heifers get forage before weaning?

A

NO!

123
Q

What is the difference between accelerated snd traditional weaning?

A

Accelerated aims to wean calves a couple week earlier while traditional stays at 8 weeks

124
Q

What are the 2 greatest health risks at parturition?

A

Hypocalemia
Ketosis

125
Q

Why does plasma vitamin E decrease at parturition?

A

Decreased intake prior to calving
Increase vitamin E in colostrum
Use of vitamin E in immune system

126
Q

What are 2 examples of passive immunity?

A

Maternal antibodies and anti-serum

127
Q

What are the 2 categories of active immunity?

A

Infectious
Non-infectious

128
Q

What are 4 examples of infectious active immunity?

A

Live
Live-attenuated
Heterologous
Recombinant

129
Q

What are 3 examples of non-infectious active immunity?

A

Killed (whole)
Subunit
DNA/RNA/mRNA

130
Q

What is another term for wild-type strain?

A

Street virus

131
Q

What is the capability of an organism to induce clinical disease as a result of infection?

A

Virulence

132
Q

What is a reduction in the ability of a pathogen to induce clinical disease?

A

Attenuation

133
Q

What is a viable organisms capable of infection and replication?

A

Live

134
Q

What is a substance added to a vaccine to promote induction of the immune response towards the vaccine components?

A

Adjuvant

135
Q

What does passive immunity (pre-formed antibodies) help to eliminate?

A

The lag phase

136
Q

What are live virulent vaccines?

A

Vaccine contains the full infectious form of the pathogen
Uncommon due to risk of clinical disease

137
Q

What are live attenuated vaccines?

A

VERY COMMON
Composed of intact organisms capable of infection and replication but has modifications that limit the infectivity and virulence reducing morbidity and mortality

138
Q

What are ways to attenuate a vaccine?

A

Heat
Virulence gene modification/mutation

139
Q

What is a risk of live attenuated vaccines?

A

Risk of reversion of pathogen through a mutation
Risk of disease in immunocompromised
Less stable (storage to preserve viability)

140
Q

What are heterologous vaccines?

A

Usage of antigenically related pathogen (probably lowest ability to work)

Like a virus that infects another species but a virus within the same family causes enough of an immune response to reduce disease

141
Q

What are recombinant vaccines?

A

Organism that expressed modified protein to be targeted by immune system without virulent pathogen use

142
Q

How can you tell the difference between an immune response to a vaccine vs a wild type exposure?

A

Can check for epitope specific antibodies in order to discern vaccine Ig vs wild-type Ig

Basically the Ig will have a slightly different gene expression between the two

143
Q

What are non-infectious vaccines?

A

Those incapable of replication or expression of virulence factors (no clinical disease)

144
Q

What is a subunit vaccine?

A

Does not contain entire organism, just specific proteins derived from that organism that are highly antigenic (FeLV)

145
Q

What are naked DNA vaccine/mRNA vaccines?

A

Insertion of antigenic gene into bacterial plasmid (good at both humoral and cell-mediated)

146
Q

What are mucosal vaccines?

A

Increased local immunity

147
Q

What are needle-free vaccine?

A

Induce a more natural immune response through transdermal administration

148
Q

Is vaccination a medical procedure?

A

YES

149
Q

What is the most common cause for failure of vaccine protection?

A

Not storing or using correctly

150
Q

What is the most common adverse reaction to vaccines?

A

Transient lethargy, pyrexia, hyporexia

151
Q

What are the 3 major goals of vaccination?

A

Prevent infection
Reduce risk / severity of morbidity
Reduce risk of mortality

152
Q

What is higher? The minimal antibody level to reduce risk of morbidity/mortality? Or minimal antibody level to prevent infection?

A

Minimal antibody level to prevent infection

153
Q

What do maternal antibodies interfere with?

A

Interfere with development of their own antibody response to infection OR vaccination

154
Q

Why would vaccinating really young animal not result in an adequate response?

A

Maternal antibodies are still protecting the neonate

155
Q

What is the window of susceptibility?

A

When young animals are neither protected by maternal antibodies or endogenous antibodies

156
Q

When is the best time to vaccinate a neonate?

A

At the tail end of the window of susceptibility

157
Q

Does the window of protection vary between animals?

A

YES! Depends on maternal antibody quality/quantity

158
Q

Which is older, innate or adaptive immunity?

A

Innate

159
Q

What is LPS a component of?

A

Gram-negative bacteria

160
Q

What is the major PRR discussed in this course?

A

TLRs

161
Q

What TLR recognizes LPS?

A

TLR4

162
Q

Where are TLRs that sense viruses?

A

Intracellular

163
Q

What do IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha do?

A

Proinflammatory both systemically and locally

164
Q

What do eosinophils primarily respond to?

A

Parasites and allergic reactions

165
Q

How do T cells recognize antigens?

A

As peptide sequences

166
Q

How do B cells recognize antigens?

A

As 3D structures

167
Q

What expresses MHCII?

A

Professional antigens presenting cells

168
Q

What type of T cell expresses CD4?

A

Helper T cells

169
Q

What type of T cell expresses CD8?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

170
Q

WHat is VDJ recombination?

A

TCR is generated as a completely random receptor that functions to produce a unique TCR for each T cell created

171
Q

What are T cells released from the thiamus called?

A

Naive T cells

172
Q

What are the 3 steps necessary to activate a naive T cell?

A

Antigen presented via MHC
Costimulation via accessory surface molecules
Cytokine stimulation

173
Q

What cytokine signals to replicate an activated T cell?

A

IL-2

174
Q

What is a cell-mediated response?

A

Primarily dominated by T CD8 cells

175
Q

What is humoral immunity?

A

Primarily dominated by B cells and antibodies

176
Q

What is Th1 skewed?

A

Cell-mediated

177
Q

What is th2 skewed?

A

Humoral

178
Q

Why does it make sense that MHC1 trigger CD8 and a cell-mediated response?

A

Because almost all cells have MHC1 receptors so the CD8 causes cytotoxic killing of many viruses before they can occur while MHC II is only carried by professional antigen presenting cells and activated CD4 which are T helper cells thus releasing cytokines to cause more of a response

179
Q

What is the secreted version of BCR?

A

Antibodies / immunoglobulins

180
Q

What is the main antibody present in the primary antibody response?

A

IgM

181
Q

What is the main antibody present in the secondary antibody response?

A

IgG

182
Q

What is the primary antibody present in allergic reactions?

A

IgE

183
Q

What immunoglobulin is released on mucosal surface?

A

IgA

184
Q

What are the rapid acting type of B cell?

A

Plasma B cell

185
Q

What are the 2 types of B cells?

A

Plasma cells
Memory cells

186
Q

What activates B cells?

A

Helper T cells

187
Q

Why is a secondary response so much faster in terms of B cells?

A

Skips lag phase and IgGs (better at opsonization) are already there to bind pathogen

188
Q

What is a lite, light, or low calorie diet in cats?

A

Less than 3250 kcal/kg dry
Less than 950 kcal/kg wet

189
Q

What is lite, light, and low calorie in dog?

A

Less than 3100 kcal/kg dry
Less than 900 kcal/kg wet

190
Q

What are the 4 levels of MCS in dogs?

A

Normal muscle mass
Mild muscle loss
Moderate muscle loss
Severe muscle loss

191
Q

Is AAFCO a regulatory agency?

A

NO!

192
Q

What is the difference between “formulate to meet AAFCO diet” and AAFCO diet trial

A

Formulated to meet AAFCO: Has the nutrition but does not take bioavailability into consideration
AAFCO diet trial: Has been tested in animals but may not meet every requirement

193
Q

What is NOT a life stage that can be claimed?

A

Senior

194
Q

What are life stages that can be claimed?

A

All-ages
Gestation/lactation
Adult maintenance
Growth

195
Q

What is more accurate, guaranteed analysis or typical (as fed) nutrient analysis?

A

Typical (as fed) nutrient analysis

196
Q

About how many calories do cats need to have a day?

A

180-225kcal

197
Q

Do energy requirements increase or decrease after neuter?

A

Decrease

198
Q

Is there a max Ca large breed dogs can have? How much should they have?

A

Max: 450g/100kcal
Suggested: 300g

199
Q

What is sarcopenia?

A

Muscle loss associated with age in absence of disease

200
Q

What is cachexia?

A

Muscle loss associated with disease

Healthy Animals 2 (4 decks)

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