Nutrition Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Distinguish between the terms autotrophic and heterotrophic.
A

Autotrophic:
- Synthesises its complex organic molecules from simpler molecules (inorganic) using light or chemical energy.

Heterotrophic:
- Cannot synthesise complex organic molecules, obtains them from consuming other organisms.

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2
Q
  1. What does holozoic nutrition mean?
A

The mode of nutrition which involves digesting internally.

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3
Q
  1. What does photoautotrophic mean?
A

Synthesises complex organic compounds from inorganic ones during the process of photosynthesis using light energy.

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4
Q
  1. What are organisms that makes organic compounds from inorganic ones using chemical energy called?
A

Chemoautotrophs (all prokaryotes)

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5
Q
  1. How does a saprophytic organism obtain nutrients?
A

Saprophytic organisms secrete digestive enzymes externally and absorb the digested substance.

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6
Q
  1. Define the term parasite.
A

An organism which obtains nutrition at the expense of the host it lives in or on.

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7
Q
  1. What five processes occur in holozoic nutrition?
A

5 stages of holozoic nutrition:
Ingestion
Digestion
Absorption
Assimilation
Egestion

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8
Q
  1. Distinguish between the terms egestion and excretion.
A

Egestion is getting rid of undigested food as faeces through the anus. Excretion is the removal of toxic materials, waste products of metabolism and excess substances from organisms.

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9
Q
  1. Describe how an Amoeba obtains nutrients.
A

They absorb nutrients directly through their cell membrane by diffusion.

Holozoic nutrition
The amoeba engulfs large food particles by endocytosis and fluid by pinocytosis in a vacuole, a lysosome fuses with it and digestive enzymes are secreted into it.
The digested material is absorbed into the cytoplasm, and the undigested waste is egested by exocytosis.

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10
Q
  1. Describe the gut of a Hydra.
A

Single body opening.
Tentacles paralyse prey and pull them into their hollow body cavity through the mouth.
Protease and lipase enzymes are secreted to digest the food extracellularly, and the products are absorbed before the indigestible remains are egested back out of the mouth.

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11
Q
  1. Draw a labelled diagram to show the layers in the wall of a human gut.
A

OUT

Serosa
- Tough connective tissue protects the gut and reduces friction with other organs.
Longitudinal muscles
Circular muscles
- Muscles contract in coordinated fashion to push food along
Submucosa
- Connective tissue contains blood and lymph vessels to take away absorbed products of digestion. Nerves are also present to coordinate muscular contractions.
Mucosa
- Innermost layer lining of the gut, bar the epithelium. Secretes alkali mucus to lubricate and protect from enzymes and HCl. Depending on the region, it secretes enzymes and absorbs digested food and nutrients.
Epithelium
Lumen

IN

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12
Q
  1. What is the main function of the buccal cavity teeth and tongue?
A

Mechanical digestion of the food and the tongue rolls the food into a bolus to be pushed to the back of the throat to the oesophagus.

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13
Q
  1. Which enzyme is present in saliva and what reaction does it catalyse?
A

Salivary Amylase Starch into disaccharides

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14
Q
  1. Describe the muscle action that transfers a bolus of food from the buccal cavity to the stomach.
A

Peristalsis
Smooth muscles contract and relax in a wave-like motion to push the bolus of food down.

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15
Q
  1. The stomach has 3 layers of muscle circular longitudinal and oblique; how does this structural feature relate to one of the functions of the stomach.
A

The muscles are for churning in the stomach.
Oblique is an extra layer of muscle for this function

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16
Q
  1. State three functions of hydrochloric acid in the stomach.
A
  • Kill bacteria
  • Optimum pH for pepsin
  • Activates pepsinogen into pepsin
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17
Q
  1. Explain why pepsin is released from the cells that make it in the form of pepsinogen.
A

If it was released in its active form of pepsin it would digest the cells that produce it.

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18
Q
  1. Describe the reaction that pepsin catalyses.
A

The hydrolysis of peptide bonds. Endopeptidase that digests proteins into polypeptides.

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19
Q
  1. Describe the ways in which acidic chyme is neutralised in the duodenum.
A

Sodium hydrogen carbonate ions in Pancreatic juice
Bile salts in Bile
Alkali mucus (Hydrogen carbonate ions) in intestinal juice

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20
Q
  1. Where is bile manufactured and stored?
A

Produced in the Liver and Stored in the Gall bladder

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21
Q
  1. What is the function of bile in fat digestion?
A

Emulsifies large lipid globules into smaller globules to increase surface area for lipase to act on.

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22
Q
  1. Which enzymes does the pancreas produce and what reactions do they catalyse?
A

Pancreatic juice:
- Amylase hydrolyses remaining starch or glycogen into maltose.
- Lipase hydrolyses lipids to fatty acids and glycerol
- Trypsinogen (Inactive endopeptidase) activates chymotrypsinogen
- Chymotrypsinogen (inactive endopeptidase) Active form catalyses the hydrolysis of casein.
- Carboxypeptidase (an exopeptidase which hydrolyses terminal carboxyl end peptides)

23
Q
  1. Draw a labelled diagram of a villus from the small intestine.
A

Capillary network
Lacteal

24
Q
  1. Which products of digestion are absorbed into capillaries?
A

Amino acids
Glucose
Water absorbed by osmosis
Water-soluble vitamins

25
15. What leaves the gut via a lacteal?
Fatty acids and glycerol enter epithelial cells via diffusion, where they recombine as triglycerides Fat-soluble vitamins
26
16. What is absorbed in the colon?
Inorganic ions, Vitamins and a little water
27
17. Distinguish between the terms endopeptidase and exopeptidase.
Endopeptidases hydrolyse non-terminal peptide bonds Exopeptidases hydrolyse terminal peptide bonds
28
18. What activates trypsinogen and what does trypsinogen active?
Enterokinase activates trypsinogen into Trypsin Trypsin activates Chymotrypsinogen into Chymotrypsin (catalyses the hydrolysis of the milk protein casein- coagulates)
29
19. Precisely where are dipeptides and disaccharides digested into their monomers.
The ileum by embedded enzymes on the apical membranes with their active sites facing outwards.
30
20. Describe the absorption of glucose including the role of secondary active transport.
Sodium-glucose cotransport 1) Glucose and sodium are deposited into the cell via symport carrier proteins. High to low 2) To maintain Na+ gradient, Na+ is actively transported out cell into the Blood to keep it low so that S-G are continually deposited in from the extracellular fluid. 3) Passive transport of Glucose and Sodium into the cell, Glucose conc is higher inside the cell than it is in the constantly flowing blood. Thus, Glucose is facilitated and diffuses into the blood.
31
1. What is the key difference between the diets of carnivores and herbivores.
Herbivores have high cellulose diets whereas carnivores do not and mostly eat diets of protein and lipids.
32
2. Which has the longer gut herbivore or carnivore?
herbivore
33
3. Which area of a non-ruminant herbivore contains mutualistic bacteria.
Non-ruminant herbivores have mutualistic bacteria in their enlarged caecum and appendix.
34
4. What is the role of the mutualistic bacteria?
Secretes cellulase to digest cellulose in herbivores
35
5. How many chambers are there in a ruminant stomach?
4 chambers: Rumen Reticulum Omasum Abomasum
36
6. What is “chewing the cud” in ruminants?
They regurgitate cud from the rumen (a mixture of grass and saliva) after it has been digested into glucose and fermented. They regurgitate reformed cud from the reticulum and rechew it several times before passing it into the omasum.
37
7. Which chamber of the ruminant stomach does protein digestion take place in?
Abomasum "true stomach"
38
8. Which chamber of the ruminant stomach contains mutualistic bacteria?
Rumen
39
9. Describe the features of herbivore dentition.
Horny pad on top instead of top incisors for chiselled lower jaw incisors to cut plant material against. Canines are indistinguishable from incisors Diastema is the gap to allows the tongue space to manipulate plant material to the molars to be ground down. Premolars and Molars have an interlocking W M shape for chewing and grinding plant material.
40
10. Describe the features of carnivore dentition.
Incisors for cutting meat Large canines for gripping and piercing prey Premolars and Molars to crush bones Large carnassial teeth to shear meat off bones and crush bones
41
1. Distinguish between the terms endoparasite and ectoparasite.
Endoparasites live inside hosts eg Tapworms Ectoparasites lives on hosts eg Headlice
42
2. What is the common name for Pediculus?
Headlice
43
3. How does Pediculus feed?
Obtains nutrition from the blood of the host
44
4. Why does Pediculus have claws?
To latch onto the hosts' hair
45
5. Where does Pediculus lay eggs?
Glued at the base of hairs
46
6. How is Pediculus transmitted from host to host?
Direct contact
47
7. Which type of parasite is Taenia solium?
Endoparasite
48
8. What organism is the primary host of Taenia solium?
Humans
49
9. What organism is the secondary host of Taenia solium?
Pigs
50
10. How does infection of the primary host happen?
Eating infected pork meat that has not been cooked thoroughly
51
11. How is a tapeworm adapted to not be dislodged by peristalsis?
Hooks and suckers on its scolex to hook onto the gut wall.
52
12. How is the cuticle of a tapeworm adapted to resist gut secretions like enzymes?
Thick waxy cuticle protects it from digestive enzymes
53
13. Why does a tapeworm lack a mouth?
It absorbs digested food/nutrients from the host directly through its body surface.
54
14. What is the significance of a tapeworm producing a large number of eggs that are egested with faeces?
It increases the likelihood of transmission to another secondary host (pig) to consume and be infected by.