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Nutrition Flashcards

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1
Q

what are the 2 categories of dietary sensitivities?

A

non-immunologically mediated
immunologically mediated

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2
Q

what are the 2 sub categories of non-immunologically mediated dietary sensitivities?

A

repeatable
non repeatable

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3
Q

what are repeatable non-immunologically mediated dietary sensitivities?

A

those that happen on every exposure

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4
Q

what is an example of a non-immunologicaly mediated repeatable dietary sensitivity?

A

food intolerance e.g. lactose deficiency in adult cats

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5
Q

what are examples of a non-immunologicaly mediated non- repeatable dietary sensitivity?

A

dietary indiscretion
intoxication
contamination (poisoning)

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6
Q

what is an immunologicaly mediated dietary sensitivity?

A

food allergy (hypersensitivity)

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7
Q

can immunologicaly mediated dietary sensitivities be repeated?

A

yes

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8
Q

are immunologicaly mediated dietary sensitivities often proven?

A

no - owners will often stop investigations once pet improves

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9
Q

what is the definition of a food allergy?

A

immunologically mediated, adverse food reaction to a dietary component - usually a protein

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10
Q

what dietary component often leads to food allergy in animals?

A

proteins

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11
Q

why is it remarkable that more adverse food reactions do not occur?

A

the gut is always exposed to foreign antigens

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12
Q

what is in place within the body to reduce the likelihood of AFR?

A

defence mechanisms

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13
Q

what are some of the defence mechanisms found within the gut to prevent AFR?

A

gut is designed not to let large molecules through
large molecules are broken down into unrecognisable components by the time they reach the blood stream
peristalsis leads to constant movement of food
villi enhance food movement

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14
Q

what is oral tolerance?

A

body learns food is not harmful through complex sequence of signalling and processing events which result in tolerance of foreign antigens

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15
Q

what happens if there is a failure of oral tolerance?

A

leads to adverse food reaction

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16
Q

what type of hypersensitvity reaction do most AFRs manifest as?

A

type 4 - delyed hypersensitivity

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17
Q

when are signs of most AFRs seen?

A

days after the food is eaten
anaphylaxis is rare

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18
Q

where are clinical signs of AFR commonly seen?

A

dermatological
GI

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19
Q

what are the most common food allergens in dogs?

A

beef
dairy
wheat

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20
Q

what are the most common food allergens in cats?

A

beef
dairy
fish

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21
Q

what do the common food allergens of dogs and cats reflect?

A

common ingredients in commercial diets

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22
Q

what food intolerance is commonly seen in boarder terriers?

A

canine epileptoid cramping syndrome

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23
Q

in what animals is canine epileptoid cramping syndrome commonly seen?

A

boarder terriers

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24
Q

what AFR is seen in canine epileptoid cramping syndrome?

A

allergy to gluten

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25
Q

what are the cutaneous signs of food allergy?

A

pruitus
erythema

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26
Q

what is the most common food allergic reaction?

A

cutaneous

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27
Q

if a patient presents with dermatological issues is it likely to be food allergies?

A

no - much less common than atopy and flea allergy

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28
Q

are cutaneous food allergy signs seen with GI signs?

A

no - usually seen without

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29
Q

what are the GI signs of food allergy?

A

V
D

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30
Q

what are the 3 broad signs of food allergy?

A

cutaneous
GI
systemic

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31
Q

what are the systemic signs of food allergy?

A

anaphylaxis

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32
Q

what type of diarrhoea is seen with food allergy?

A

LI
colitis and blood seen within

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33
Q

what is the urge to defecate like with LI diarrhoea?

A

urgent

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34
Q

if GI signs of food allergy are seen what must be investigated?

A

all causes as GI signs are non-specific

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35
Q

at what age do pets tend to present with food allergy?

A

young
likelihood decreases with age but not impossible in an older pet

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36
Q

what must be done before allergy is investigated?

A

other causes of the clinical signs excluded as/when appropriate

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37
Q

what type of diarrhoea is seen with food allergy?

A

large intestinal pattern most common but any pattern possible

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38
Q

what are the 4 stages of diagnosis and management of food allergy?

A

exclusion/limitation
challenge and rescue
provocation and rescue
maintainance

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39
Q

what is involved in the exclusion/limitation stage of food allergy management?

A

all possible allergens excluded from diet
novel protein used
patient fed water and diet only
lasts several weeks

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40
Q

what will the patient be fed during the exclusion/limitation phase of food allergy diagnosis?

A

specific diet
may use novel protein
water and diet only

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41
Q

how long does the exclusion/limitation phase of food allergy diagnosis last?

A

several weeks

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42
Q

what is involved in the challenge and rescue phase of food allergy diagnosis?

A

patient is put back on their normal diet
if their symptoms reoccur then it proves the diet is an issue

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43
Q

what is involved in the provocation and rescue phase of food allergy diagnosis?

A

one food added in at a time to see if symptoms are triggered

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44
Q

what is the benefit of the provocation and rescue phase of food allergy diagnosis?

A

may enable animal to eat a wider range of foods

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45
Q

how long should pets be on an exclusion diet to see skin improvement?

A

10 weeks to marked improvement

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46
Q

how long should pets be on an exclusion diet to see GI improvement?

A

6 weeks to full resolution

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47
Q

should blood testing be used for GI manifestations of food allergies?

A

no- has no clinical utility

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48
Q

what are chronic inflammatory enteropathies?

A

group of diseases with chronic GI inflammation

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49
Q

what signs suggest chronic inflammatory enteropathies?

A

V
D
dysorexia
weight loss
any lasting more than 3 weeks

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50
Q

what must be done before chronic inflammatory enteropathies suspected?

A

all other causes of GI clinical signs of inflammation must be excluded first

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51
Q

what extra GI diseases can cause GI clinical signs?

A

exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
local abdominal inflammation (hepatic/renal)
metabolic diseases - PSS, hypoadrenocorticism, hyperthyroidism

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52
Q

how can other causes of GI signs be excluded before chronic inflammatory enteropathies suspected?

A

lab testing (faecal analysis, bloods)
abdominal US

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53
Q

how is CIE diagnosed?

A

if al other diagnostic tests are normal

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54
Q

what are the causes of chronic inflammatory enteropathies?

A

food responsive disease
antibiotic responsive disease
idiopathic disease

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55
Q

how can food responsive chronic inflammatory enteropathies be managed?

A

diet trial

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56
Q

how can antibiotic responsive chronic inflammatory enteropathies be managed?

A

metronidazole or other antibiotic used to manage patient

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57
Q

what patients is antibiotic responsive chronic inflammatory enteropathies considered in?

A

GSD

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58
Q

how is idiopathic chronic inflammatory enteropathies diagnosed?

A

endoscopy to diagnose / confirm and exclude other microscopic or structural disease

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59
Q

how is idiopathic chronic inflammatory enteropathy thought to occur?

A

patient identifies own gut as harmful causing inflammation and damage to villi which worsens inflammation

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60
Q

what were idiopathic chronic inflammatory enteropathies previously known as?

A

IBD

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61
Q

what causes idiopathic chronic inflammatory enteropathy?

A

loss of immune tolerance of mucosal flora
GI inflammation
shift in flora
leads to further inflammation

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62
Q

how is chronic inflammatory enteropathy diagnosed?

A

exclusion of other causes
biopsies indicative of inflammation and architectural changes

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63
Q

what architectural changes may be seen which indicate chronic inflammatory enteropathy?

A

villi atrophy

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64
Q

what are the 2 methods of obtaining intestinal biopsy?

A

laparotomy
endoscopy

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65
Q

what is the benefit of laparotomy for intestinal biopsy?

A

enables multiple full thickness biopsies
enables full exploration of other organs

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66
Q

what is the risk of laparotomy for intestinal biopsy?

A

risk of dehiscence ~10%
surgical risks e.g. peritonitis

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67
Q

what are the benefits of endoscopic intestinal biopsies?

A

minimally invasive
small biopsies

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68
Q

what are the disadvantages of endoscopic intestinal biopsies?

A

small biopsies
cannot reach jejunum so will not reflect disease here

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69
Q

what are the main complications and consequences of chronic inflammatory enteropathies?

A

dehydration
protein malabsorption
hypocobalaminaemia
GI haemorrhage
GI perforation (rare)

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70
Q

why can chronic inflammatory enteropathies lead to protein malabsorption?

A

gut inflammation prevents protein absorption

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71
Q

what is the result of protein malabsorption?

A

PLE
hypoalbuminaemia

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72
Q

what is the effect of hypoalbuminaemia?

A

reduction in oncotic pressure
fluid begins to leak from vessels

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73
Q

what signs can be seen with protein malabsorption?

A

effusions (pleural and peritoneal)
oedema
thromboembolic events

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74
Q

why are patients with protein malabsorption more at risk of thromboembolic events?

A

blood more viscose due to reduced fluid

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75
Q

what can be an effect of GI haemorrhage?

A

anaemia

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76
Q

what is hypocobalaminaemia?

A

low B12

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77
Q

what can be an effect of GI perforation?

A

septic peritonitis

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78
Q

what are the standard therapies for chronic inflammatory enteropathies?

A

maintain fluid balance
nutrition
anti-emetics
appetite stimulants

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79
Q

what must be stabilised in chronic inflammatory enteropathy patients before nutrition starts?

A

haemodynamically stable (hydration and volaemia)

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80
Q

what are the main supportive therapies for nutrition of patients with chronic inflammatory enteropathies?

A

exclusion diet
dietary modification
tube feeds if necesary

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81
Q

what may affect appetite in chronic inflammatory enteropathy patients?

A

low B12

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82
Q

when should a new diet be introduced?

A

once home to prevent aversion

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83
Q

what are the standard therapies for idiopathic chronic inflammatory enteropathies?

A

immunosuppression

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84
Q

what additional drugs may be given for idiopathic chronic inflammatory enteropathies?

A

fenbendazole
metronidazole
B12
anti-platelet drugs

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85
Q

what drugs can be used for immunosuppression of idiopathic chronic inflammatory enteropathies?

A

preds

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86
Q

what is the benefit of immunosuppression for treatment of chronic inflammatory enteropathies?

A

allows gut time to recover normal flora

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87
Q

what should animals be fed if on a dietary trial?

A

diet exclusively and water

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88
Q

will improvement be seen with dietary trials if the patient does not have food allergy?

A

possibly as if patient is being fed high quality, highly digestible diet they may improve

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89
Q

what are the main diet options for food intolerance or sensitivity trials?

A

novel protein / carbohydrate
hydrolysed protein

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90
Q

what are the main novel protein / carbohydrate diet options?

A

home cooked
commercial

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91
Q

what should you do if a client wishes to feed home cooked diet to their pet?

A

advise they seek a referral to a specialist nutritionist

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92
Q

what are the main novel protein / carbohydrate diets?

A

hills d/d
eukanuba Dermatosis FP
Dechra specific food allergen management (non HY)

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93
Q

what are the main hydrolysed protein diets?

A

purina HA
Hill’s z/d
Royal canin hypo/allergenic
dechra specific food allergen management (-HY)

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94
Q

what are the main nursing considerations for chronic inflammatory enteropathy patients?

A

hydration status
inappectance
nausea
nutrition or malnutrition status
abdominal discomfort
hypoproteinaemia
diarrhoea or faecal scauld

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95
Q

how should hydration status be managed?

A

replace ongoing losses (v/D)
calculate deficits

96
Q

how may inappetance or nausea be managed?

A

TTE
antiemetics

97
Q

how can nutrition / malnutrition be assessed?

A

WSAVA assessment

98
Q

what patients are more at risk of malnutrition?

A

septic
burns

99
Q

what % weight loss would suggest that a patient is likely malnourished?

A

WL >10%

100
Q

how should nutrition of chronic inflammatory enteropathy patients be managed?

A

tube feeds
B12 and potassium supplementation

101
Q

how can abdominal discomfort be managed?

A

analgesia

102
Q

where should all food intake be recorded?

A

hosp sheet

103
Q

what parameter related to nutrition should be assessed and recorded daily?

A

BCS
weight

104
Q

what effect can fluid balance have on weight?

A

most weight loss seen in hospital patients is due to fluid changes

105
Q

how much weight fluctuation in hospital is likely due to WL?

A

1%

106
Q

when is patient nutritional support needed?

A

if <80% RER voluntary intake
>10% weight loss after fluid balance
>3 days hyporexia
severe underlying disease present

107
Q

what is microenteral nutrition?

A

small amounts of nutrient rich fluid given to help prevent villi atrophy and maintain gut integrity

108
Q

what is the benefit of microenteral nutrition?

A

prevent villi atrophy and maintain gut integrity so that when the patient begins to eat again the gut is ready

109
Q

should syringe feeding be used?

A

no - especially not cats

110
Q

how can animals be encouraged to eat?

A

feed little and often
change feeding posture
low fat diet
feed from height
supplement fibre
encourage voluntary eating with warmed foods, owner, own food

111
Q

what is the benefit of feeding little and often?

A

enrichment

112
Q

what is the benefit of low fat diets?

A

faster gastric emptying to reduce nausea
good for reflux and regurge

113
Q

what is the benefit of fibre supplementation?

A

supports large bowel or colonic disease

114
Q

what may be causing abdominal discomfort in chronic inflammatory enteropathy patients?

A

GI ulceration
GI dilation
reflux pain

115
Q

how can GI ulceration be managed?

A

omeprazole
sucralfate

116
Q

how can pain from reflux be managed?

A

manage oesophagitis
postural feeding

117
Q

what is the disadvantage of using opioids for GI pain?

A

may exacerbate or cause ileus

118
Q

what drug may be given for GI pain?

A

buscopan

119
Q

how can diarrhoea / scald be managed?

A

keep bottom clean and dry
apply topical barrier
avoid patient grooming
use absorbent bedding
ensure top layer of bedding is soft not vetbed!

120
Q

what is the role of buscopan?

A

spazmolytic

121
Q

how can patients with diarrhoea be kept clean and dry?

A

tail bandage
clip
use towels gently
warmish hairdryer over fur

122
Q

what topical barriers may be used for diarrhoea patients?

A

cavilon spray
vasaline as extra barrier in extreme cases

123
Q

what is cavilon spray?

A

no sting barrier film

124
Q

how can patient grooming be prevented when necessary?

A

distraction
enrichment
buster collar

125
Q

how can beds be made absorbent?

A

layers of inco sheets

126
Q

what should be monitored daily about chronic inflammatory enteropathy patients?

A

weight
appetite
demenour
V/D - try to quantify
hydration status
HR
RR
comfort
bloods: electrolytes and proteins

127
Q

what is the benefit of adequate and appropriate nutrition to hospitalised patients?

A

reduces morbidity and mortality
reduces length of hospitalisation and complications
improves recovery time

128
Q

when should nutrition be started in hospital?

A

asap

129
Q

why should nutrition be started as soon as possible in hospital?

A

many positive benefits
prevention of villi atrophy and bacterial translocation

130
Q

what does WSAVA class nutrition as?

A

the 5th vital sign

131
Q

what can be used to asses malnutrition?

A

WSAVA toolkit

132
Q

what may indicate malnourishment/

A

loss of muscle mass
low BCS
weight loss of >10%
poor coat condition

133
Q

what amount of weight loss is considered significant?

A

> 10%
5% if short term

134
Q

what are the risk factors for malnutrition?

A

anorexia
poor appetitie for >3 days
disease
large protein loss
burns
head trauma

135
Q

what are the types of muscle mass loss?

A

sarcopenia
cachexia

136
Q

what is sarcopenia?

A

loss of muscle mass seen in old age
no underlying disease process

137
Q

what is cachexia?

A

loss of muscle mass due to disease process

138
Q

what are the 2 types of starvation?

A

simple
stress

139
Q

when is simple starvation seen?

A

healthy patients who don’t have access to food

140
Q

what happens to metabolism during simple starvation?

A

normal adaptions, glycogen stores utilised

141
Q

what happens to protein stores during simple starvation?

A

conserved so no loss of lean muscle mass

142
Q

what happens to fat during simple starvation?

A

fat usage increased

143
Q

when is stress starvation seen?

A

when patients are unwell
clinical disease

144
Q

what effect does stress starvation have on metabolism?

A

hypermetabolism

145
Q

what effect does stress starvation have on protein stores?

A

breakdown of protein/muscle wasting
cachexia

146
Q

what metabolic state are patients in during stress starvation?

A

catabolic

147
Q

is time to malnutrition faster in simple or stress starvation?

A

stress

148
Q

what is the difference in prognosis for recovery between simple and stress starvation?

A

poorer with stress starvation

149
Q

what should be done before beginning nutrition?

A

assess hydration, electrolytes, acid-base balance and pain
ensure euhydrated

150
Q

what effect does pain have on the gut?

A

slows peristalsis

151
Q

what are the short term aims of nutrition?

A

provide for any ongoing nutritional requirements
prevent or correct nutritional deficiencies or imbalances
minimise metabolic derangements
prevent further catabolism of lean body mass

152
Q

what are the long term aims of clinical nutrition?

A

restoration of optimal body condition
provision of required nutrients to the animal within its own environment

153
Q

what are the main types of enteral feeding tubes?

A

NO/NG tube
O tube
gastrostomy (PEG)
jejunostomy

154
Q

how long can NO/NG tubes be in place for?

A

5-7 days
short term

155
Q

what is the main issue with jejunostomy tubes?

A

high rate of complication

156
Q

what does the choice of feeding tube depend on?

A

patient tolerance
length of time tube needed
anaesthesia risk
clinician experience
complication risk
type of diet needed
cost
owner ability to use at home

157
Q

what is refeeding syndrome?

A

complex metabolic derangements that occur when enteral or parenteral nutrition is fed to severely malnourished patients or those following a period of prolonged starvation

158
Q

is refeeding syndrome common?

A

no but potentially fatal

159
Q

how can refeeding syndrome be avoided?

A

patient needs time to adjust to food again so it must be reintroduced slowly

160
Q

what is an anabolic state?

A

normal metabolism and digestion

161
Q

why do patients need to be reintroduced to food slowly?

A

avoidance of refeeding syndrome
changing from a catabolic to anabolic state

162
Q

what are metabolic changes in refeeding syndrome due to?

A

sudden increased insulin release

163
Q

what metabolic changes are seen with refeeding syndrome?

A

severe hypophosphataemia
hypokalaemia
hyponatraemia
hyperglycaemia
hypocalcaemia

164
Q

what are the clinical signs associated with refeeding syndrome?

A

peripheral pitting oedema
haemolytic anaemia
cardiac failure
neurological dysfunction
respiratory failure

165
Q

how rapidly can refeeding syndrome progress to death?

A

within 2 days

166
Q

how can patients be monitored for refeeding syndrome?

A

monitor bloods

167
Q

when should feeding only commence?

A

once the patient is haemodynamically stable (fix fluid and electrolyte deficits)

168
Q

what should reintroduction of feeding start with?

A

microenteral nutrition

169
Q

what can be used as microenteral nutrition?

A

oral rehydration solution

170
Q

how long should patient be tube fed for?

A

until voluntarily eating >85% of calculated energy requirements regularly

171
Q

if no anorexia is seen how long should it take for the patient to be given full RER?

A

assess tolerance on day 1
could give 1/2 day one and then full day 2

172
Q

if anorexia of <3 days is seen how long should it take for the patient to be given full RER?

A

over 3 days
D1 - 1/3 RER
D2 - 2/3 RER
D3 - full RER

173
Q

if anorexia of >3 days is seen how long should it take for the patient to be given full RER?

A

over 5 days

174
Q

describe reintroducing feeding for a patient anorexic for >3 days

A

D1: 1/4 RER
D2: 1/2 RER
D3: 2/3 RER
D4: 3/4 RER
D5: full RER

175
Q

what is parenteral nutrition?

A

providing patients with nutrition via IV route when enteral is not available

176
Q

what is the downside of parenteral nutrition?

A

multiple complications
can worsen outcomes if incorrectly managed

177
Q

what must be first line nutritional support?

A

supported enteral nutrition

178
Q

what makes up PN solution?

A

lipid
amino acids
carbohydrates

179
Q

what forms of carbohydrate are included in PN?

A

dextrose
glycerol

180
Q

where should PN lines be placed?

A

peripheral only

181
Q

why must PN only be given peripherally?

A

high infection risk

182
Q

what should the PN lines be monitored for?

A

signs of phlebitis
infection at cannula site

183
Q

what must happen to PN mixture while it is being administered?

A

must be kept moving to prevent separation

184
Q

what complications must be monitored for during PN?

A

metabolic complications
mechanical issues e.g. line occulsion
patient interference
sepsis

185
Q

what is the most common complication seen with PN?

A

metabolic complications

186
Q

how must PN lines be managed?

A

aseptically

187
Q

what are the RER protein requirements for dogs?

A

4-5g per 100 kcal

188
Q

what are the RER protein requirements for cats?

A

6g per 100kcal

189
Q

once protein requirement has been met how should the rest of the PN components be divided?

A

50:50 lipid:dextrose

190
Q

what patients have decreased protein needs?

A

those with hepatic or renal failure

191
Q

what patients have increased protein needs?

A

protein losing conditions
sepsis
burns
head trauma

192
Q

practice

A

calculations

193
Q

how can PN risks be minimised?

A

experienced personnel involved in all aspects
clear SOP
aseptic technique
prevention of patient interference
regular monitoring and recording of metabolic state

194
Q

how should PN be delivered?

A

via CRI

195
Q

how long should PN bags be open for?

A

24-48 hours max

196
Q

when changing PN bags what must be replaced?

A

line and bag

197
Q

why must PN be protected from light?

A

prevention of degeneration of B vitamins

198
Q

should PN lines be removed for walking?

A

no - minimal removal to reduce infection risk

199
Q

what can be done to avoid intestinal atrophy while on PN?

A

small amount of microenteral nutrition

200
Q

what must be done to avoid hyperglycaemia in PN patients?

A

over 50% dextrose
over 4ml/kg/min

201
Q

how must PN be stopped?

A

gradually

202
Q

why must PN be stopped gradually?

A

avoid hypoglycaemia

203
Q

why may hypoglycaemia be seen if PN is stopped too abruptly?

A

PN causes higher circulating insulin

204
Q

how much weightloss is usually due to actual weight loss rather than fluid?

A

1%

205
Q

what are the reasons that owners may have for choosing raw, vegetarian or vegan diets for their pets?

A

cheaper?
social media trends
personal beliefs
perception of quality of commercial food
allergies/problematic ingredients
health benefit claims
cooking for their pet is viewed as bonding
mistrust of companies

206
Q

what are raw food diets known as?

A

BARF

207
Q

what does BARF stand for?

A

bone and raw food
biologically appropriate raw food

208
Q

what are the main options for raw feeding?

A

home prepared
preprepared and commercially available

209
Q

why is the idea of a wild diet incorrect?

A

domestic dog is genetically different from wild relations
more omnivorous
lifestyle different so energy and nutrient needs are also

210
Q

what makes domestic dogs more omnivorous?

A

increased capacity for starch digestion

211
Q

what are the risks of raw feeding?

A

imprecise nutritional measurements
low vitamin and mineral content
microbiological infection
zoonoses

212
Q

what is the most common bacteria found in raw feeds?

A

salmonella

213
Q

what zoonoses are a risk with raw feeding?

A

listeria
toxoplasma
crypto
mycobacterium bovis

214
Q

what is the link between raw feeding and hyperthyroidism?

A

if animals are ingesting gullet tissue they ingest the thyroid which can lead to hyperthyroidism

215
Q

what are the risks with feeding bone?

A

fragments may damage the GI tract leading to peritonitis

216
Q

what type of host are humans for toxoplasma?

A

paratonic host

217
Q

what can toxocara cause in children?

A

blindness

218
Q

what effect does home freezing have on pathogens in raw food?

A

not cold enough to kill them

219
Q

what is the recommendation of WSAVA regarding raw feeding?

A

no properly documented evidence of health benefits
well documented risks
not advised

220
Q

what are the raw feeding veterinary society counter arguments to WSAVA on raw feeding?

A

health benefits are researched and documented
outdated studies on microbiological risks
lack of evidence around risk of ingested bones

221
Q

is there evidence of recent disease outbreaks relating to raw feeding?

A

yes - TB/salmonella

222
Q

what are the key points to discuss with owners regarding raw feeding?

A

why do they want to feed a raw diet
risk management

223
Q

when discussing with an owner why they want to feed a specific diet what are you main areas to consider?

A

dispel misconceptions with evidence
understand perspective (beliefs/culture/past experiences)

224
Q

what should be involved in risk management discussions with owners that want to raw feed?

A

individual patient assessment with the vet
assess home environment - children/immunocompromised
sourcing and preparation of food
encourage monitoring in practice

225
Q

what is essential when advising owners about raw feeding?

A

not to alienate

226
Q

what type of diet can be used if raw feeding to remove some pathogens?

A

irradiated

227
Q

what meat should not be used for raw food?

A

ground meat

228
Q

why should ground meat not be used for raw diets?

A

more surface area and processing so more risk of surface bacteria

229
Q

what can be done to reduce bacterial risk in food preparation?

A

cook food to 74 degrees prior to eating
ensure scrupulous hygiene

230
Q

what treatment must all raw fed pets receive?

A

worming (anthelmintic)

231
Q

why are vegetarian diets not suitable for pets?

A

cats and dogs have increased protein requirement than that of humans

232
Q

what diet must cats be fed on?

A

obligate carnivores - must eat meat
essential dietary nutrients only found in animal sources

233
Q

what may be lacking in vegetable proteins that is needed for pets?

A

essential amino acids e.g. taurine and arginine

234
Q

what are the issues with commercially available vegetarian/vegan diets?

A

vast majority nutritionally inadequate
low palatability
reduced digestibility
low biological value

235
Q

what support is available for owners that wish to do home cooking?

A

american college of veterinary nutrition specialists

236
Q

what are the important considerations of client perspective around nutrition?

A

ensure non dismissive
supportive
educate about risk management
be understanding
empathetic
encourage monitoring

237
Q

what should you discuss within practice regarding raw feeding?

A

discuss as a team
decide practice position
ensure individualised advice for owners
signposting to most knowledgeable staff member
evidence based leaflet for staff to take away

Advanced Clinical Nursing Theory (36 decks)

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