Hip, Elbow and Cruciate Disease Flashcards
1
Q
what is hip dysplasia characterised by?
A
laxity of the hip joint
2
Q
how is hip dysplasia acquired?
A
inherited
3
Q
in what breeds is hip dysplasia common?
A
can be seen in all but most common in large and giant breeds
4
Q
when does laxity become apparent in puppies?
A
born normal
apparent around 4-5 months
5
Q
what is commonly linked to hip laxity?
A
hip dysplasia
6
Q
at what age may animals present with hip dysplasia?
A
either:
4-12 months
as an adult
7
Q
what do animals present with if coming to practice for hip dysplasia at 4-12 months?
A
laxity
8
Q
what do animals present with if coming to practice for hip dysplasia as an adult?
A
arthritis secondary to hip dysplasia
9
Q
what is often described in patient history of patients with hip dysplasia?
A
HL stiffness
reluctant to get up or jump
bilateral issues
bunny hopping
10
Q
what is seen on gait analysis of patients with hip dysplasia?
A
short stride
weight over FL
lateral sway - back taking strain of stride
bunny hopping
hind feet close together
hips adducted
11
Q
what will be detected on the orthopedic exam of a patient with hip dysplasia?
A
muscle atrophy
pain on hip extension but not necessarily flexion
crepitus on ROM
clunking heard or felt on manipulation
12
Q
what muscle usually atrophies in patients with hip dysplasia?
A
quads
13
Q
what radiographic views are needed to diagnose hip dysplasia?
A
ventrodorsal extended
VD frog leg
lateral pelvis
(orthogonal views)
14
Q
what is VD frog leg most useful for?
A
surgical planning rather than diagnosis of hip dysplasia
15
Q
what palpation techniques are involved in diagnosis of hip laxity?
A
ortolani test
bardens hip lift test
16
Q
what is indicated by a positive ortolani test?
A
hip laxity
17
Q
what is a downside of the ortolani test?
A
would be a negative test in animals with full luxation of the hip
18
Q
what is involved in the bardens hip lift test?
A
measure how much hip moves out of the acetabulum when lifted by the femur
19
Q
when is the bardens hip lift test performed?
A
under GA only
20
Q
what are the treatment options for hip dysplasia?
A
non-surgical / conservative
myotomies
growth plate fusion
osteotomies
THR
FHNE
21
Q
what is the myotomy that can be performed to treat hip dysplasia?
A
pectineal myotomy
22
Q
what growth plate fusion can be performed to treat hip dysplasia?
A
juvenile pubic symphysiodesis
23
Q
what osteotomies can be performed to treat hip dysplasia?
A
triple pelvic osteotomy
intertrochanteric
24
Q
where is juvenile pubic symphysiodesis most commonly performed?
A
young animals and even then often not suitable
25
what are the most common methods of treatment for hip dysplasia?
conservative / non-surgical
THR
FHNE
26
what is involved in conservative treatment of hip dysplasia?
exercise restriction - no vigorous off lead exercise
hydrotherapy
controlling food intake
use of NSAIDs and other medication
27
what is the purpose of exercise restriction in conservative treatment of hip dysplasia?
maintain muscle mass and reduce hip joint inflammation
28
what is the purpose of food restriction in conservative treatment of hip dysplasia?
restriction of weight
slowing growth but ensuring correct nutrition
29
how is lifestyle altered for patients receiving conservative management of hip dysplasia?
weight loss
exercise restriction
hydrotherapy
30
why is hydrotherapy so good for hip dysplasia patients?
exercise that causes low stress for hips
31
how effective is conservative management for hip dysplasia?
76% minimal or no lameness when assessed 4.5 years since diagnosis
actually works well
32
what are the 4 main areas of surgical management of hip dysplasia?
growth plate fusion
osteotomies
THR
ostectomies
33
what is involved in juvenile pubic symphysiodesis?
iatrogenic closure of the pubic symphasis using electrocautery to cause thermal necrosis
34
in what patients is juvenile pubic symphysiodesis performed?
young (4-5 month patients)
35
what is the aim of juvenile pubic symphysiodesis?
stop growth of pubic bone
creation of acetabular ventroversion so increasing dorsal cover of femoral head
36
when must juvenile pubic symphysiodesis be performed?
during early growth phase
37
what are the main issues with juvenile pubic symphysiodesis?
neutering needed due to hip dysplasia
diagnosis needed early which is often not possible
38
what patients are good candidates for triple/double pelvic osteotomy?
young - 6 to 7 months
no DJD present only laxity
good clunk on ortolani test
small angles of reduction and subluxation
39
what condition would mean an patient was not a good candidate for triple/double pelvic osteotomy?
DJD present
40
what angle of reduction makes a patient suitable for triple/double pelvic osteotomy?
25-35 degrees
41
what angle of subluxation makes a patient suitable for triple/double pelvic osteotomy?
5-10 degrees
42
what is the purpose of triple/double pelvic osteotomy?
increase dorsal cover of femoral head
43
what is involved in triple/double pelvic osteotomy?
cutting ileum, ischium and pubis
bones then rotated to increase dorsal cover of femoral head
44
what are the main complications associated with triple/double pelvic osteotomy?
usually implant related
screw pull out
screw breakage
45
what is the success rate of triple/double pelvic osteotomy?
90%
46
does triple/double pelvic osteotomy prevent arthritis?
not totally, some patients may still need THR
47
do implant issues with triple/double pelvic osteotomy need correction?
not usually
48
what is the aim of FHNE?
salvage procedure for advanced OA
relieving patient of pain of femoral head hitting acetabulum
49
what happens during healing once the femoral head and neck are removed?
pseudoarthrosis formed
50
what is a pseudoarthrosis?
area filled with bone and fibrous tissue
51
why is it crucial that all the femoral head and neck are removed during FHNE?
if neck remains it may still contact acetabulum and cause pain
52
what is the aim of denervation of the acetabulum?
removal of pain sensation in OA
53
is denervation common?
no
54
what are the aims of THR?
pain relief
return to high level function
55
what are the indications for THR?
end stage hip arthritis
hip dysplasia
fracture
56
what is involved in THR?
removal of acetabulum and femoral head and neck
implants placed to replace these
57
what are the types of hip implant available?
cemented
uncemented / BFX / biological fixation
58
what is the difference between cemented and uncemented hip implants?
cemented implants are held in with bone cement (no way!!)
non-cemented are hammered in and then rely on bony ingrowth to secure them in place
59
how are THR implant sizes chosen?
imaging measured with acetabular and femoral templates before surgery
selection available in theatre
60
what is a key concern in THR surgery?
infection risk and so strict asepis
61
what is the result of SSI in THR?
surgical failure
implant removal
FHNE
62
what are the steps involved in THR?
Femoral head excision
ream acetabulum
ream femur
cement or impact acetabulum
cement or impact femur
place femoral head
reduce hip
bacterial swab taken
suture joint capsule
routine closure
63
what is involved in reaming the acetabulum and the femur?
hollowing out femur
removal of acetabular cartilage
64
what is the aim of reaming the acetabulum and the femur?
tight fit for implant
65
how is the size of femoral head chosen?
size of acetabulum
patient
needs to be as tight as possible
66
why is the joint capsule sutured closed?
reduces risk of luxation in post op period
67
when are radiographs taken following THR?
immediately post op
6 weeks post op
68
what is being checked for during post op THR xrays?
positioning of femoral stem and acetabulum (particularly)
cement fill
presence of any fissures
69
what is being checked for during 6 week post op THR xrays?
no dislocation
positioning of femoral stem and acetabulum
any periosteal reaction
cement or bone interferance
70
what is periosteal reaction?
reaction to reaming seen in cemented implants and young dogs
71
what is the complication rate for THR?
5-15%
72
what are the main complications associated with THR?
fracture
loosening
dislocation
infection
subsidence
cement granuloma
neurological damage
73
when can fracture occur during THR?
reaming
stem placement
older dogs post op
74
what is the most common THR complication?
dislocation
75
what is subsidence?
BFX implants used to subside into bone before they were bolted in place
76
what decides what type of THR implant is used?
surgeon
patient
femur
77
can cemented and uncemented implants be mixed?
yes - often do cemented stem and BFX acetabulum
78
what are the common complications seen with uncemented THR?
subsidence
dislocation
femur fracture
79
how long should patients be rested for following THR?
strict 6 weeks
80
what is involved in the care of patients post THR?
keep quiet - possible sedation
cage rest
lead walks in sling for toiletting
care with surfaces to prevent slipping
no jumping
81
what can be used in THR patients to reduce ventral dislocation risk?
hobbles
82
what discharge advice would you give to owners regarding exercise post THR?
restricted
cage rest
avoid slippery floors
no playing or jumping
all to reduce dislocation risk
83
what is indicated by periosteal reaction on xray post THR?
infection
84
what indicates loosening of THR implants on Xray?
increased lucency between bone and cement
85
what is the purpose of the 6 week radiographs following THR?
check for complications
assess if slow return to normal exercise can start
86
how long may it take for a patient to return to normal exercise following THR?
up to 6 months post op
87
what is the most common cause of forelimb lameness in dogs?
elbow dysplasia
88
what is elbow dysplasia also known as?
developmental elbow disease
89
what are the main issues seen with developmental elbow disease?
uninited anconeal process of ulna
OCD of medial humeral condyle
fragmented medial coronoid process of ulna
asynchronous growth of radius and ulna leading to joint incongruity
90
can issues seen with developmental elbow disease be seen individually or together?
can occur together
91
what breed is commonly affected by developmental elbow disease?
large breeds e.g. labs, rottweillers, retrievers
92
at what age do dogs present with developmental elbow disease?
6 months
may be older
93
when dogs present with developmental elbow disease once they are older what secondary issue to they commonly have?
arthritis secondary to DED
94
what sex is commonly affected by DED?
males and females both affected
males slightly overrepresented
95
why may male dogs be slightly overrepresented with DED?
faster growth
heavier
96
what is often seen on patient history with DED?
low grade, mild lameness
bilateral
stiffness on rising
97
what would be seen on physical exam of a patient with DED?
elbow effusion
decreased ROM
pain on extremes of elbow flexion and extension
98
how is elbow effusion often seen?
bulge between lateral epicondyle and olecranon
99
what diagnostic tool is used in DED?
imaging - xray or CT
100
what xray views are required to assess the patient for DED?
orthogonal
flexed mediolateral
craniocaudal
(neutral mediolateral)
101
what are you looking for on xray to indicate DED?
evidance of degenerative joint disease as a result of DED
102
what signs on xray will indicate DJD and so DED?
osteophytes on dorsal anconeal process and radial head
sclerosis of ulna notch
flattened or blurred FCP
increased humeroradial joint space
103
what is a neutral lateral view of the elbow most useful for?
looking at incongruity
104
what is the purpose of a fully flexed mediolateral view of the elbow?
see anconeal process and osteophytes
remove superimposed humerus
105
what is seen on the craniocaudal view of the elbow?
OCD on medial humeral condyle
106
what are two additional xray views that can be used to assess the elbow?
craniolateral-caudomedial oblique
distomedial-proximolateral oblique
107
what is the purpose of craniolateral-caudomedial oblique elbow views?
see fragmentation of coronoid
108
what is the positioning for craniolateral-caudomedial oblique elbow?
slight rotation of limb with olecranon moved laterally
109
what is the purpose of distomedial-proximolateral oblique elbow views?
view of coronoid process
110
what is the best elbow imaging modality?
CT
no superimposition
111
in what breeds is ununited anconeal process commonly seen?
GSD
112
when should the anconeal process fuse?
4-5 months
113
what may lead to ununited anconeal process?
short ulna
development issues
114
what is the consequence of an ununited anconeal process?
elbow stability is compromised
inflammation
lameness
OA caused
115
what imaging is needed to diagnose ununited anconeal process?
fully flexed mediolateral xray
CT
116
what does treatment of ununited anconeal process depend on?
age of patient
degree of displacement
117
what are the treatment options for ununited anconeal process?
conservative
removal of anconeal process
proximal dynamic ulna osteotomy (PDUO)
lag screw fixation
118
when would the removal of anconeal process in the treatment of ununited anconeal process be performed?
very arthritic older dog
119
what is the aim of proximal dynamic ulna osteotomy (PDUO) in treatment of ununited anconeal process?
allows lengthening of the ulna as the radius grows removing shear stress on the anconeal process and allowing it to fuse with the ulna
120
what is the aim of lag screw fixation of the anconeus in treatment of ununited anconeal process?
reattachment of anconeus to ulna
121
what is elbow incongruity often caused by?
short radius relative to the length of the ulna
122
what is the result of elbow incongruity?
cartilage wear and fragmentation of the medial coronoid process
123
how is elbow incongruity treated?
ulna ostectomy +/- pin
124
what is involved in an ulna ostectomy?
segment of ulna is removed and ulna may or may not be supported through placement of a pin
125
what is the benefit of not pinning the ulna for elbow incongruity?
allows ulna to find 'best fit' location when healing
issues associated with pin placement and migration
126
what is the benefit of pinning the ulna during ulna ostectomy?
reduction of pain
prevention of excessive movement of proximal ulna
127
whereabouts in the elbow is osteochondrosis (OCD) most commonly seen?
medial humeral condyle
128
what breeds is osteochondrosis common in?
medium sized e.g. labrador
129
what will be seen in the history of a patient with OCD?
forelimb lameness
some improvement seen with NSAIDs
effusion
130
when do animals commonly present with OCD?
6 months old or younger
131
what is OCD?
thickened, partially detached flap of cartilage on the medial humeral condyle overlaying subchondral bone defect
132
what xray views are needed to diagnose OCD?
craniocaudal and flexed mediolateral
133
what may be seen on craniocaudal view of a patient with OCD if lesion is large enough?
flattening of medial humeral condyle
134
how can OCD be treated?
conservative management
surgery
135
what is involved in conservative treatment of OCD?
restricted exercise for 4-6 weeks
NSAIDs
136
what does treatment method of OCD depend on?
severity and size of lesion
if conservative treatment has been effective
137
what should be done for a patient with OCD if they have not improved on conservative management?
surgery considered
138
what are the surgical treatment options for OCD?
arthrotomy and debridement
arthroscopy and debridement
139
when is surgery a first line treatment for OCD?
large lesion
very lame
large effusion
140
what is the commonest elbow pathology diagnosed in dogs with elbow dysplasia?
fragmented coronoid process
141
where is the most common area of fragmentation seen in FCP?
craniolateral aspect of medial coronoid process
142
what are the causes of FCP?
hereditary
short radius
shallow ulna notch
143
what age do patients present with FCP?
6-10 months
144
what dogs is FCP most commonly seen in?
medium to large breed
145
is FCP often bilateral?
yes
146
what may be seen alongside FCP?
other concurrent elbow disease
e.g. incongruity, ununited anconeal process, fissures
147
how is FCP diagnosed?
xray
CT
148
what is the best method of diagnosis of FCP?
CT
149
what can be seen on xray of dogs with FCP?
secondary osteophyte formation and OA
150
what is the treatment for FCP?
arthroscopic debridement if young
medical management of arthritis if already well established
151
what do all dogs with elbow dysplasia develop?
osteoarthritis
152
what influences treatment of OA?
severity of disease
clinical signs
153
what is usually tried to treat OA before surgery?
medical management
154
what is involved in medical management of OA?
NSAIDs
weight loss
hydrotherapy
physiotherapy
155
why may arthroscopy be used in OA treatment?
evaluation of cartilage to assess damage
removal of loose or damage cartilage
156
what are the main surgical treatments for OA?
arthroscopy and abrasion arthroplasty or microfracture
long bone osteotomy
elbow replacement
arthrodesis
157
what is involved in abrasion arthroplasty?
cartilage and subchondral bone is removed using a burr until diffuse bleeding is seen over the lesion site
joint is the lavaged to remove bone debris
158
what is involved in microfracture for OA treatment?
necrotic cartilage removed
angled micropick is used to make holes in subchondral bone surface
joint is the lavaged
159
what is the aim of abrasion arthroplasty or microfracture?
encourage cartilage replenishment through neovascularisation and stem cell release
160
what is formed in a joint when mesenchymal stem cells are released?
hyaline and fibrocartilage
161
where in the elbow joint are most issues seen with elbow dysplasia?
medial aspect
162
what is the aim of long bone osteotomy to treat OA?
decrease medial compartment load
163
in long bone osteotomy for OA is a plate used?
depends on surgeon
164
how does long bone osteotomy decrease medial compartment load?
shifts weighbearing from medial to lateral to allow medial cartilage to heal
165
what is the purpose of a proximal abducting ulna osteotomy (PAUL) plate?
plate is positoned to shift ulna across to the lateral compartment and alter weightbearing
166
what scale is used to grade cartilage damage?
Outerbridge
167
when is elbow replacement surgery indicated
advanced arthritis
extreme cartilage loss
168
what are the main risks associated with elbow replacement?
complications are common
may need additional surgery
end result may still be arthrodesis or amputation
169
when is arthrodesis indicated?
last resort on end stage painful joint
final salvage procedure
170
what lameness level must be seen in patients undergoing arthrodesis?
unilateral as if bilateral arthrodesis could make contralateral limb worse
171
what is the benefit of elbow arthrodesis?
pain relief
172
what is the disadvantage of elbow arthrodesis?
gait abnormality
173
when is arthroscopy indicated?
Exploration of joints for diagnosis through observation, biopsy and culture
Removal of loose bodies
Topical treatment of OA – microfracture and abrasion arthroplasty
Joint debridement and lavage
Arthroscopic assisted joint stabilization or fracture repair
174
what are the advantages of arthroscopy compared to arthrotomy?
Decreased morbidity
More rapid recovery than arthrotomy
Decreased complications
Improved outcomes
Decreased surgery, anaesthesia and hospitalization times
175
what are the disadvantages of arthroscopy compared to arthrotomy?
High level of skill required
Long learning curve
High cost of equipment
Increased cost to client
176
what equipment is needed for arthroscopy?
arthroscope
camera
monitor
light source
cannula
irrigation
egress systems
hand instruments
power tools
electrocautery
other standard surgical kit
177
what diameter arthroscopes are commonly used for elbow arthroscopy?
1.9
2.4
2.7
178
what is the lens angle used in arthroscopy?
30 degrees
179
why is a 30 degree lens angle used for arthroscopy?
better view of field than 0 degrees
180
what working length of arthroscope is available?
short - 8.5cm
long - 13cm
181
what light source is commonly used for arthroscopy?
xenon
182
why are xenon bulbs often used for arthroscopy?
better quality picture
183
what does choice of arthroscope working length depend on?
joint depth
184
what is the downside of xenon bulbs for arthroscope light source?
can blow without warning so need a spare
185
what are the functions of arthroscope cannulas?
maintain arthroscope portal
protect arthroscope
ingress of fluid
186
why is irrigation needed for arthroscopy?
joint needs continual flushing with saline to keep it inflated and blood free. The fluid enters the joint through the cannula
187
what are egress systems used for in arthroscopy?
source for removal of the fluid – a needle or the instrument cannula can be used. Fluid siphoned away or allowed to go onto floor and suctioned.
188
what is the purpose of instrument cannulas for arthroscopy?
have a rubber seal that allows insertion of instruments without allowing egress of fluid
189
how should a patient be clipped for arthroscopy?
circumferential around elbow
enough to allow for open approach if arthrotomy needed
often bilateral
190
how should the patient be positioned in theatre for arthroscopy?
dorsal if bilateral
lateral otherwise
joints distracted over sandbag or edge of table
hanging leg for prep
191
how should the limb be held to faciliatate elbow arthroscopy?
abducted
pronated
192
what drapes may be needed in arthroscopy?
waterproof to prevent patient becoming saturated
193
where should the monitor be positioned in relation to the surgeon?
in line with scope and surgeon
194
what is the purpose of the instrument portal during arthroscopy?
instruments can be passed into joint through cannula
portal is secure so instruments can be changed
195
what cutting instruments are available for arthroscopy?
hooks
knives
forceps
196
what needs to be cut beofre cartilage fragments can be removed?
attachment to annular ligament
197
what is the role of fragment manipulators during arthroscopy?
movement of fragment before removal
198
what are common equipment types for fragment removal during arthroscopy?
alligator forceps
artery forceps
shaver motorised handpiece
199
describe the process of arthroscopy
Set everything up – camera, light source, arthroscope, ingress and egress, blunt probe and cannula.
Check camera working, white Aspirate joint fluid with needle and syringe – to ensure in the joint – (egress portal)
Inject saline through the needle to inflate the joint
Place second needle at the location where the arthroscopy cannula will enter the joint
Enlarge the hole with a scalpel
Place the cannula and blunt obturator into the joint
Remove the obturator and place the arthroscope
Connect egress tube / remove syringe and ensure egress needle functioning.
Turn on fluids, to ensure the arthroscope is correctly positioned in the joint
Inspect the joint – moving the light cable to rotate the end of the arthroscope
Make an instrument portal – insert a needle
Enlarge the hole with a No 11 scalpel blade
Place a blunt switching stick through the hole
Place instrument cannulas
Use a variety of instruments in the instrument cannulas to debride / treat the joint
Flush joint through at the end by switching the ingress fluid line to the egress line (so bigger hole for fluid to exit through.
Remove all equipment and place skin sutures through small incisions.
200
what is the cranial cruciate ligament formed from?
2 bands of tissue
201
what are the 2 bands called found within the cranial cruciate ligament?
craniomedial
caudolateral
202
what explains partial cruciate ligament tears?
2 bands that make up cranial cruciate ligament
203
what is the role of the cranial cruciate ligament?
resists stifle extension
resists internal rotation
prevents tibia moving cranially
204
what breeds are commonly affected by cranial cruciate disease?
any breed
205
what age group are commonly affected by cranial cruciate disease?
over 6 months
middle aged most common
206
when is cranial cruciate ligament rupture seen in small dogs?
avulsion fracture
207
what sex are commonly affected by cranial cruciate disease?
female
208
what body condition score are commonly affected by cranial cruciate disease?
overweight
209
what is the most common cause of cranial cruciate disease?
degenerative cause
210
what are the causes of cranial cruciate ligament disease?
trauma
inflammation
211
is traumatic cranial cruciate ligament rupture common?
no
212
what are the main tests for cranial cruciate disease?
cranial draw
tibial thrust
213
what may affect cranial draw test?
over extension of the stifle due to restriction by collateral ligaments
214
what is mimicked by the tibial thrust test?
standing
215
what radiographic views are needed to diagnose cranial cruciate disease?
orthogonal on both limbs
mediolateral stifle
caudocranial
216
what is seen on xray which indicates cranial cruciate disease?
Joint effusion most commonly seen
decreased size of infrapatella fat pad due to compression by effusion
Periarticular osteophytes near fabella, top and bottom of patella
217
what effect can joint effusion caused by cranial cruciate disease have on the joint space?
decreased size of infrapatella fat pad
218
what are the main treatment options for cranial cruciate disease?
conservative
surgical
219
what are the main surgical treatment options for cranial cruciate disease?
intra articular replacement of ligament
extra articular replication of ligament function
combination
alteration of joint angles
220
what is the aim of altering the joint angle in cranial cruciate disease treatment?
remove need for cranial cruciate ligamnet
221
what animals are candidates for conservative treatment for cranial cruciate disease?
dogs and cats <15kg
222
what is involved in conservative management of cranial cruciate disease?
strict rest for 6 weeks
surgery if no improvement
223
what does conservative treatment of cranial cruciate disease rely on?
fibrosis
224
what is involved in the Modified DeAngelis suture / lateral suture?
arthrotomy
confirm diagnosis
debride ligament
check meniscus
place suture
secure suture with crimps
repair fascia lata
225
where is Modified DeAngelis suture / lateral suture placed?
around femorofabella ligament and through bone tunnel in the tibial tuberosity
226
what suture is used for Modified DeAngelis suture / lateral suture?
monofilament leader line
227
how is the suture secured during Modified DeAngelis suture / lateral suture?
metal crimps
228
what suture is used to repair the fascia lata during Modified DeAngelis suture / lateral suture surgery?
modified mayo mattress
229
what is the purpose of crimping the suture in place during Modified DeAngelis suture / lateral suture?
holds suture in place
progresive increase in tension
230
how are crimp clamps placed during Modified DeAngelis suture / lateral suture surgery?
progressive increase of tension
cranial draw checked
crimp tube crimped in 3 places
231
what are the complications associated with Modified DeAngelis suture / lateral suture?
suture failure
instability
infection
meniscal tear
anchor pull out
232
what are the main ways suture may fail during Modified DeAngelis suture / lateral suture?
breakage
stretching
pull through crimp
233
what is the most common method of cranial cruciate ligament rupture management?
tibial plateau leveling
234
is the gastrocnemius attached to the tibia?
no
235
what direction does the tibial plateau slope?
caudally
236
what will happen to the tibia if not restrained by cranial cruciate ligament?
tibia will slide forwards and joint may subluxate
237
what are stifle forces?
compression forces caused by weight and muscular propulsion
238
what is the only passive restraint to tibia slippage in the stifle joint?
cranial cruciate ligament
239
what is cranial tibial thrust?
force created by compression between the femur and tibia
240
what is cranial tibial thrust proportional to?
slope of tibial plateau
241
what is measured in order to calculate tibial slope?
tibial slope
weightbearing axis
tibial plateau angle
242
where is the tibial slope measured?
between the cranial and caudal points of the tibial plateau
243
where is the weightbearing axis measured?
middle of tibia diaphysis up to highest point of tibia
244
what is the tibial plateau angle?
perpendicular line with weightbearing axis
245
what is the averae tibial plateau angle?
24 degrees
246
what does a higher tibial plauteau angle indicate?
steeper slope and increased tibial thrust force
247
what is the aim of TPLO?
altering slope of tibial plateau to prevent cranial tibial thrust during weight bearing
248
what approach is used during TPLO surgery?
medial parapatellar
249
how is diagnosis of cranial cruciate rupture confirmed?
arthrotomy or arthroscopy to assess ligament before TPLO
250
what may be done during the arthrotomy/arthroscopy before TPLO?
debride ligament
removal of torn meniscus if necessary
251
how should the patient be positioned for TPLO?
dorsal
hanging leg for prep
252
what should be checked during prep?
patient skin to reduce SSI risk
253
what is the difference between stifle distractors and gelpis?
SD have tips which cross over
254
what is the purpose of a meniscal probe?
check for meniscal tears
255
what saw blades are often used for TPLO?
oscillating
varying sizes
256
what is the purpose of a TPLO jig?
pins tibia
allows rotation of cut portion of tibia and prevents leg hanging or moving
257
how is a TPLO cut performed?
cut made
lines made on cut portion and rest of tibia to mark amount of pre calculated rotation required
tibia then cur through fully
258
what are pins used for during TPLO?
aid rotation of bone to match up pre made marks
259
how is the TPLO stabilised once the cut has been made?
plate is applied - contoured to the bone and a variety of screws used (locking and non-locking)
260
how are screws placed?
hole drilled appropriate to plate size
depth measured
appropriate length screw placed (either need hole to be tapped or use self tapping screws)
261
what is the aim of quick coupling drill connection?
easy change of drill bit
262
what should the tibial plateau angle be reduced to following TPLO?
6/7 degrees
not 0
263
why should the tibial plateau angle not be reduced to 0?
pressure then placed on caudal cruciate ligament
264
what happens to the step created by tibial plateau rotation during healing?
remodels
265
what is being assessed on post op TPLO xrays?
screw placement
post op angle
small gap between tibia and rotated portion
266
what are the possible complications associated with TPLO?
fibula fracture
peroneal nerve damage
popliteal artery trauma
tibial tuberosity avulsion fracture
patella ligament desmitis
pivot shift
osteomyelitis
267
what is pivot shift?
odd gait seen in TPLO post op complications
268
what is the complication rate of TPLO like?
low - around 10%
269
what are the other possible tibial levelling procedures?
triple tibial osteotomy
tibial tuberosity advancement
cranial closing wedge
270
what patietns is the cranial closing wedge used in?
those with small bones (e.g. little dogs)
271
what is the aim of tibial tuberosity advancement?
patella ligament is brought 90 degrees to tibial plateau to limit tibial thrust
272
what are the main menisci?
medial and lateral
273
what other ligament does the medial meniscus have attachment to?
medial collateral ligament
274
which meniscus is more commonly torn?
medial
275
how commonly is cranial cruciate ligament rupture associated with meniscal tear?
50% of cases
276
how can meniscal injuries be identified?
arthroscopy or arthrotomy
may be audible or palpable click
277
what is the treatment for meniscal tear?
removal of ruptured portion during arthroscopy/arthrotomy
278
what can occur after cruciate ligament surgery?
late meniscal tears - probably started at cruciate ligament rupture
279
what equipment is useful for assessing the integrity of the meniscus?
meniscal probe
280
what is involved in post operative care of cruciate disease patients?
strict rest / confinement for 6 weeks
radiographs to monitor healing at 6 weeks
gradual reintroduction of exercise over the following 6 weeks
physio and hydro useful
281
when is there poorer prognosis for outcome of cranial cruciate rupture?
older dogs
those with meniscal tears
282
what is the impact of reduced quality of outcome for dogs with meniscal tears?
dogs with cranial cruciate ligament rupture should be treated as soon as possible to reduce likelihood of tear
