nutrition Flashcards

1
Q

The nurse is teaching a patient about distinguishing between “good” fats and “bad” fats. Which type of fat is peanut butter?

A

Monounsaturated fat
Monounsaturated fats are good fats because they help develop and maintain the body’s cells. Sources include canola, olive, and peanut oils; sesame seeds; avocados; and cashews.

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2
Q

Polyunsaturated fat

A

Polyunsaturated fats can help reduce bad cholesterol levels, which reduces the risk for heart disease. Sources include corn, safflower, sesame, soybean, and sunflower seed oils and fish.

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3
Q

Saturated / trans fat

A

Saturated fats are bad fats because they increase cholesterol, which increases risk for heart disease. Sources include meats, shortening, pastries, crackers, fried foods, cheese, ice cream, and processed foods.

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4
Q

A young adult female patient recently gave birth to a baby with a neural tube defect. The patient was most likely deficient in which B vitamin?

A
Folic acid (vitamin B9)
Vitamin B9, also known as folic acid, plays a critical role in neural tube formation.
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5
Q

Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

A

Vitamin B6, or pyridoxine, assists in protein metabolism. Deficiencies in vitamin B6 are not associated with neural tube defects.

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6
Q

Niacin (vitamin B3)

A

Vitamin B3, also known as niacin, is important for nutrient oxidation. Deficiencies in vitamin B3 are not associated with neural tube defects.

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7
Q

Riboflavin (vitamin B2)

A

Vitamin B2, also known as riboflavin, is important for nutrient oxidation.

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8
Q

Which statements are accurate regarding the process of catabolism?

A

Breaks complex substances into simpler substances
Catabolism breaks complex substances into simpler substances.
Correct

Results in a release of energy
Catabolism results in a release of energy.

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9
Q

The nurse is educating a patient regarding nutrition. Which nutrient would the nurse describe as a micronutrient?

A

Folic acid

Folic acid is a mineral, which is a micronutrient.

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10
Q

The student nurse is discussing weight loss and macronutrients with an adult patient. Whole wheat bread is a source for which macronutrient?

A

Complex carbohydrates

Whole wheat bread takes longer to break down before absorption and is therefore a complex carbohydrate.

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11
Q

The nurse is educating a family about nutrition. When discussing food choices for constipation prevention, which statement explains why the nurse would recommend choosing whole wheat bread over white bread?

A

Whole wheat is an insoluble fiber.
Insoluble fiber does not retain water but allows formation of bulk, resulting in the effective passage of end products of food through the intestines.

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12
Q

An obese male patient has a goal of losing 100 pounds and states that he is going to remove all fat from his diet. The student nurse advises him against this because fats have multiple functions. Which function would the student nurse describe to support this recommendation?

A

Fats help produce energy for the body.
Benefits of fat in the body include energy production, support and insulation of major organs and nerve fibers, and lubrication for body tissues.

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13
Q

Which foods would be ideal for a weight lifter to consume as a complete protein?

A

Eggs

Eggs are a complete protein.

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14
Q

A 30-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with chief complaints of headache associated with loss of concentration, dry mouth, and weakness after 2 days of diarrhea and vomiting. The patient is deficient in which macronutrient?

A

Water
Water is a macronutrient. Failure to meet the body’s hydration needs or loss of a disproportionate amount through excessive sweating, diarrhea, or vomiting can result in dehydration. Physical symptoms of dehydration include headaches and loss of concentration.

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15
Q

A student nurse is providing nutrition counseling to a patient regarding different types of vitamins. Which statement is an indicator that the patient needs further teaching?

A

“Vitamins produce energy.”

This is an incorrect statement, which shows the patient requires further teaching. Vitamins do not produce energy; however, they are crucial in chemical reactions in the body from macronutrients, such as fats, carbohydrates, and proteins.

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16
Q

Which vitamin should be prioritized for an older adult patient with osteoporosis?

A

Vitamin D

Vitamin D works in conjunction with minerals, such as calcium and phosphorus, to develop and strengthen bones.

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17
Q

Vitamin K

A

Vitamin K is essential for synthesizing the proteins that cause the blood to clot. Deficiency of vitamin K can result in bruising and bleeding.

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18
Q

Vitamin C

A

Vitamin C helps the body synthesize the protein collagen, which is important in connective tissue growth and maintenance, wound healing, and repair and maintenance of cartilage, bones, and teeth.

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19
Q

Vitamin E

A

Vitamin E is an antioxidant that protects cells from injury from free radicals, the accumulation of which can lead to the development of health conditions, such as cancer, heart disease, and various inflammatory conditions. Therefore vitamin E helps maintain a healthy immune system.

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20
Q

A patient has been diagnosed with poor anal sphincter tone. Which structure of the digestive system would be affected by this disorder?

A

Rectum

The rectum holds and expels feces via the anus. Poor anal sphincter tone may lead to fecal incontinence.

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21
Q

A patient’s basal metabolic rate (BMR) varies depending on which factor?

A

Physical and genetic makeup
A patient’s BMR, which is a calculation of the minimum amount of energy necessary to keep the body functioning, varies depending on physical and genetic makeup.

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22
Q

Which cognitive function would likely be affected when the patient’s temporal lobe is injured?

A

Speech
Speech is a cognitive function of the temporal lobe.
Correct

Behavior
Behavior is a cognitive function of the temporal lobe.

Memory (long-term)
Long-term memory is a cognitive function of the temporal lobe.

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23
Q

Where are tactile receptors located?

A

Dermis
Tactile receptors for the sense of touch are located in the dermis.
Correct

Subcutaneous tissue
Tactile receptors for the sense of touch are located in the subcutaneous tissue.

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24
Q

Which sense organ structure is responsible for equilibrium?

A

Semicircular canals
A second set of labyrinths in the inner ear, known as the semicircular canals, has receptor cells that interpret the head’s position and maintain a state of equilibrium/balance.

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25
Q

Which cerebral lobe is likely damaged when the patient is having difficulty with voluntary motor function?

A

Parietal

The parietal lobe is responsible for intelligence, language, and reading, not voluntary motor function.

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26
Q

brain

A

Frontal
The frontal lobe is responsible for voluntary motor function.

Parietal
The parietal lobe is responsible for intelligence, language, and reading, not voluntary motor function.

Occipital
The occipital lobe is responsible for vision, not voluntary motor function.

Temporal
The temporal lobe is responsible for behavior, long-term memory, and speech, not voluntary motor function.

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27
Q

Which normal age-related changes would the nurse expect to encounter when caring for an older adult patient?

A

Presbyopia
Presbyopia is a normal age-related change in visual ability, so the nurse would expect this change.
Correct

Presbycusis
Presbycusis is a normal age-related change in hearing, so the nurse would expect this change.

Decreased taste
Decreased taste is associated with normal age-related changes, so the nurse would expect this change.
Correct

Anosmia
Anosmia is a decreased ability to sense odors as a result of normal age-related changes, so the nurse would expect this change.

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28
Q

Place in order the pathway a sensory impulse would travel to the brain.

A
Stimulates sensory receptor  
Enters spinal cord
Decussates    
Travels to medulla oblongata
Ascends to pons 
Travels to cerebrum   

The sensory impulse travels in the following sequence: stimulates sensory receptor, enters spinal cord, decussates, travels to medulla oblongata, ascends to pons, and travels to cerebrum.

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29
Q

Which lifestyle factors can lead to hypertension and stroke?

A

Stress
Stress can lead to hypertension and stroke, which can alter sensation and cognitive functioning.
Correct

Obesity
Obesity can lead to hypertension and stroke, which can alter sensation and cognitive functioning.
Correct

Smoking
Smoking can lead to hypertension and stroke, which can alter sensation and cognitive functioning.

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30
Q

Which medications are ototoxic?

A

Gentamicin
Gentamicin is ototoxic, damaging to the ear.
Correct

Furosemide
Furosemide is ototoxic, damaging to the ear.
Correct

Aspirin
Aspirin is ototoxic, damaging to the ear.

Aminoglycosides
Aminoglycosides are ototoxic, damaging to the ear.

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31
Q

Which cranial nerve would the nurse suspect has been affected in a patient who uses cocaine and reports a diminished ability to smell?

A

First
The first cranial nerve (olfactory) regulates the sense of smell; thus the first cranial nerve is affected in a patient with diminished smell.

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32
Q

nerves

A

First
The first cranial nerve (olfactory) regulates the sense of smell; thus the first cranial nerve is affected in a patient with diminished smell.

Second
The second cranial nerve (optic) regulates the sense of vision, not smell.
Eighth
The eighth cranial nerve (vestibulocochlear) regulates the sense of hearing and balance/equilibrium, not smell.
Ninth
The ninth cranial nerve (glossopharyngeal) regulates the sense of taste, not smell.

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33
Q

Which sensation effects can result from smoking?

A

Diminished taste
Diminished taste is a sensation effect associated with smoking.
Correct

Reduced smell
Reduced smell is a sensation effect associated with smoking.

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34
Q

Match the sensation(s) to its cranial nerve(s).

A

First cranial nerve - Smell
Second cranial nerve - Vision
Eighth cranial nerve - Hearing and equilibrium
Seventh and ninth cranial nerves - Taste

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35
Q

Which lobe of the cerebrum would the nurse suspect has been affected when a patient has difficulty making decisions, is unable to focus on a topic being discussed, and has poor short-term memory?

A

Frontal

The frontal lobe is involved in communication, concentration, decision-making, and short-term memory.

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36
Q

brain

A

Frontal
The frontal lobe is involved in communication, concentration, decision-making, and short-term memory.

Parietal
The parietal lobe is involved in intelligence, language, and reading; it is not involved in decision-making, concentration, or short-term memory.

Occipital
The occipital lobe is involved in vision, a type of sensation, not cognition.

Temporal
The temporal lobe is involved in behavior, long-term memory, and speech; it is not involved in decision-making, concentration, or short-term memory.

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37
Q

Which patient findings are examples of impaired special senses?

A

Hearing loss
Hearing loss is an example of impaired hearing, a special sense.
Correct

Visual difficulties
Visual difficulties are examples of impaired vision, a special sense.

Inability to smell food
Inability to smell food is an example of impaired olfaction (smell), a special sense.

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38
Q

Which cranial nerve is likely affected when the patient experiences problems with hearing?

A

Vestibulocochlear
The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, plays a role in hearing; thus if the patient is experiencing hearing problems, this nerve is affected.

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39
Q

Which special sense structure is responsible for color vision?

A

Cones

Cones are photoreceptors in the eye that sense color.

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40
Q

Which area of the brain is injured when a patient cannot speak properly from aphasia?

A

Temporal lobe

The temporal lobe is the part of the brain involved with speech, so an injury to this area can result in aphasia.

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41
Q

Which effect is associated with the administration of narcotic pain medications?

A

Decreased level of consciousness

An effect of narcotic pain medication is a decrease in level of consciousness.

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42
Q

Which findings indicate that a patient is experiencing an ototoxic effect?

A

Tinnitus
Tinnitus, ringing in the ears, is an example of an ototoxic effect because the inner ear cochlea helps patients hear.
Correct

Hearing loss
Hearing loss that may or may not be permanent is an example of an ototoxic effect.
Correct

Problems keeping balance
Problems keeping balance is an example of an ototoxic effect because the inner ear semicircular canals help patients maintain balance.
Correct

Issues with equilibrium
Issues with equilibrium is an example of an ototoxic effect because the inner ear semicircular canals help patients maintain balance.

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43
Q

Which information by the nurse indicates a correct understanding of cognition or sensation?

A

Alertness is controlled by the reticular activating system in the brain.
Alertness is controlled by the reticular activating system (RAS) located in the brain.

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44
Q

Which effects would the nurse expect to find when caring for a patient who uses street drugs?

A

Dizziness
Dizziness is an effect of street drug use.
Correct

Confusion
Confusion is an effect of street drug use.

Pupil size changes
Street drugs can cause changes in pupil size.

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45
Q

The patient has a health care provider prescription for NPO (nothing by mouth) and is complaining of a dry, sticky mouth. Which action would the nurse suggest to relieve the patient’s dry, sticky mouth?

A

Rinsing the mouth with water
Mouth care for NPO patients includes rinsing the mouth with water.

Brushing the teeth
Brushing teeth is part of mouth care for NPO patients.

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46
Q

Which foods should be avoided by a patient on a renal diet?

A

Foods high in potassium and phosphorus
Foods high in potassium and phosphorus should be avoided on a renal diet. Potassium and phosphorus can build up in the bloodstream of these patients. Too much potassium in the bloodstream can cause heart issues; too much phosphorus can cause calcium to be pulled from bones

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47
Q

diets

A

Foods with a high glycemic index should be avoided on a diabetic diet but are not of concern for renal diets.

Foods high in potassium and phosphorus should be avoided on a renal diet. Potassium and phosphorus can build up in the bloodstream of these patients. Too much potassium in the bloodstream can cause heart issues; too much phosphorus can cause calcium to be pulled from bones.

High-fiber foods do not need to be avoided on a renal diet.

High-sodium foods should be avoided on a cardiac diet but are not of concern for renal diets.

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48
Q

A patient who is borderline diabetic has expressed a desire to make lifestyle changes in an effort to avoid taking medications. Which dietary modification would be appropriate for this patient?

A

Eating high-fiber complex carbohydrates
High-fiber complex carbohydrates from vegetables and fruits are preferred to simple carbohydrates, sugars, and starchy foods, such as bread or pie.

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49
Q

The student nurse is providing feeding assistance to a patient at risk for aspiration. Which actions would the student nurse avoid?

A

Offering large bites to the patient
Offering large bites may put a patient at risk for aspiration.

Having the patient finish all foods, then drink all fluids
Finishing all foods and then drinking all fluids may put a patient at risk for aspiration. Instead, foods and fluids should be alternated.

Having the patient use a straw when drinking
Using a straw when drinking may put a patient at risk for aspiration.

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50
Q

Which statement by the nurse to a patient demonstrates culturally competent nutritional care?

A

“When you use the terms ‘hot’ or ‘cold’ to describe foods, you may not be talking about the temperature.”

In some cultures, describing foods as “hot” or “cold” may be in relation to healing qualities, not temperature or spiciness. This clarifying statement by the nurse is an example of culturally competent nursing care.

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51
Q

A patient does not eat meat or animal products of any kind. The nurse would instruct the patient about which nutritional deficiencies?

A

Vitamin B12
A vegan diet has the potential to be deficient in vitamin B12.
Correct

Iron
A vegan diet has the potential to be deficient in iron.

Zinc
Zinc is a potential deficiency in a vegan diet.

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52
Q

Which complications would the nurse monitor for in a patient receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?

A

Catheter-related infections
Catheter-related infections are considered a potential complication resulting from TPN.

Site infections
Site infections are considered a potential complication resulting from TPN; therefore, the nurse should perform a skin assessment prior to feeding.

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53
Q

A patient who was placed on thickened liquids asks if there is something to eat that does not require a thickening agent. Which liquids or foods could be safely recommended?

A

Yogurt
Yogurt is a food that could be safely recommended that does not require a thickening agent.

Pudding
Pudding can be safely recommended as a food that does not require a thickening agent.

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54
Q

Which tasks are considered appropriate feeding assistance?

A

Opening a milk carton
Opening a milk carton and other hard-to-open items is appropriate feeding assistance, due to possible muscle atrophy or immobility.
Correct

Setting up a meal tray
Setting up a meal tray is appropriate feeding assistance.

Spoon-feeding a patient the entire meal
Spoon-feeding a patient is appropriate feeding assistance.

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55
Q

Which type of feeding tube is placed into the patient’s stomach through one of the nares?

A

Nasogastric tube

A nasogastric tube is placed through the nares into the stomach.

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56
Q

Which action would the nurse take to provide appropriate percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube care?

A

Assessing skin around the tube
Assessing skin around the tube is considered appropriate PEG tube care because these sites have a potential for infection.

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57
Q

The student nurse is educating the patient regarding signs and symptoms to report to the health care provider for at-home tube feedings. Which statement indicates the student needs further teaching?

A

“If you have a headache after a feeding, you should call your health care provider.”

This is an incorrect statement, so the student nurse needs further teaching. A headache after feeding is not reportable to the health care provider.

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58
Q

For which complications would a nurse monitor in a patient receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?

A

Catheter-related bloodstream infection
Catheter-related bloodstream infection is a potential complication related to TPN.
Correct

Site infection
Site infection is a potential complication related to TPN.

Occlusion of TPN tubing
Occlusion of TPN tubing is a potential complication related to TPN.
Correct

Air embolism
Air embolism is a potential complication related to TPN.

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59
Q

The nurse is caring for an older adult with Alzheimer disease and a secondary diagnosis of malnutrition. Which neurologic functions affect the patient’s ability to receive adequate nutrition?

A

Functional ability
Alzheimer disease is a neurologic disorder that affects functional ability. Alzheimer patients may not have the motor skills required to feed themselves.
Correct

Cognitive ability
Alzheimer disease is a neurologic disorder that affects cognitive ability. Alzheimer patients may not have the cognitive skills required to feed themselves.
Correct

Memory
Alzheimer disease is a neurologic disorder that affects memory. Alzheimer patients may not remember to eat.

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60
Q

Which complications may result from malabsorption?

A

Poor wound healing
Malabsorption may cause poor wound healing because the body will not have enough nutrients to heal properly.

Weight loss
Malabsorption may cause weight loss because the patient will not have absorbed enough calories to maintain weight.
Correct

Fatigue
Malabsorption may cause fatigue because fewer nutrients will have been absorbed. The nutrients are not available to provide the patient with energy.

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61
Q

A patient presents to the hospital with persistent bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and stomatitis. Laboratory values indicate the patient has suffered nutritional imbalance as a result of recent decreased food intake and diarrhea. Which inflammatory bowel disease could be responsible?

A

Crohn disease
Stomatitis is inflammation of the mouth and lips. Crohn disease is a chronic disease that causes inflammation in any part of the gastrointestinal tract, including the mouth.

62
Q

diseases

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)
PKU is a rare condition in which an infant’s body fails to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine.

Diverticular disease
Diverticular disease is a condition where small pouches or sacs have formed in the colon wall. Stomatitis would not be a symptom.

Crohn disease
Stomatitis is inflammation of the mouth and lips. Crohn disease is a chronic disease that causes inflammation in any part of the gastrointestinal tract, including the mouth.

Ulcerative colitis
Ulcerative colitis causes ulcers in the large intestine only. Stomatitis would not be a symptom.

63
Q

The nurse weighs a 13-year-old female patient, asks her how she feels about her body, and collects data about the different types of foods she likes to eat during the day. Which type of assessment is the nurse performing?

A

health history
A health history includes the type of foods a patient eats, the patient’s body self-esteem, and physical symptoms the patient may be experiencing.

64
Q

A young patient is working with a nurse on nutrition improvement. The nurse tells the patient that there are two main ways to examine dietary habits. The nurse is referring to which two methods?

A

Food diary and 24-hour recall method
The food diary and 24-hour recall method are two types of assessments the nurse can use to assess the amount and type of food a patient is consuming.

65
Q

A pediatric nurse working in a health care provider’s office has a well-child visit with a 5-year-old. Which anthropometric measurements will the nurse most likely take?

A

Height
Height is a common anthropometric measurement for children.
Correct

Weight
Weight is a common anthropometric measurement for children.

Head circumference
Head circumference is a common anthropometric measurement for children.

66
Q

Which physical assessment findings are strongly correlated with a patient’s risk for obesity and heart disease?

A

Waist circumference
Larger waist circumference is strongly associated with heart disease and can indicate obesity.
Correct

Body fat percentage
Higher body fat percentage is strongly associated with nutritional status and health risk potential.
Correct

Body shape
Body shapes with more fat around the waist have a higher risk for serious health problems.

67
Q

An unconscious patient is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. Initial assessment findings by the nurse and health care provider include skin that is dry and yellow in color, noticeable thinness, eyes set back in the head, and a strong odor of alcohol. Severe malnutrition from alcoholism is suspected. Which laboratory tests would the nurse expect to see prescribed for a nutrition assessment?

A

Blood glucose
A blood glucose test would indicate the patient’s current glucose level in the blood to determine if emergent intervention was necessary.
Correct

Albumin
An albumin test assesses plasma protein level, which would most likely be very low in a severely malnourished alcoholic.
Correct

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine
BUN and creatinine tests are indicators of kidney function and are important diagnostic tests for nutrition.
Incorrect

Complete blood count (CBC)
A CBC is a generic test ordered frequently. It provides information for nutritional levels, anemia, infection, and infection.

68
Q

The nurse is caring for an older adult who lives alone. The nurse becomes concerned that the patient is getting inadequate nutrition based on which neurologic manifestations?

A

Decreased alertness
Neurologic consequences of poor nutrition include decreased alertness.
Correct

Slower muscle response time
Neurologic consequences of poor nutrition include slower muscle response time.

Slower problem-solving
Neurologic consequences of poor nutrition include slower problem-solving.

69
Q

An adult patient is being treated in the hospital for hypertensive crisis. Which nutritional modification should the patient make immediately that can positively impact blood pressure?

A

Decrease salt.

Decreasing sodium or salt intake will have a direct impact on hypertension.

70
Q

An athletic adolescent girl is being treated for iron deficiency anemia. Which symptoms are expected with this condition?

A

Fatigue
Fatigue is a symptom of iron deficiency anemia.

Dizziness
Dizziness is a symptom of iron deficiency anemia.
Correct

Pale skin
Pale skin is a symptom of iron deficiency anemia.

71
Q

A patient in the telemetry unit is recovering from a heart attack. The nurse teaches the patient that blood flow to part of the heart was occluded by plaque from which substances?

A

Cholesterol
Cholesterol combines with other substances and attaches itself to the walls of the arteries.
Correct

Lipids
Lipids combine with other substances and attach themselves to the walls of the arteries.

72
Q

Parents of an infant diagnosed with phenylketonuria (PKU) are informed that the condition is a result of failure to metabolize amino acids after consuming which substance?

A

Protein
PKU is a rare condition in which an infant’s body fails to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine, and dangerous levels of phenylalanine build up after consuming protein.

73
Q

A high school nurse notes that girls on the cross-country team eat together each day. She notes that one of the girls only consumes an apple each day at lunch and has experienced a decline in her athletic performance. Which condition does the nurse suspect in this girl?

A

Anorexia nervosa

Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder in which the person restricts dietary intake.

74
Q

The nurse is completing the physical assessment on a patient just admitted to the hospital. The nurse is focusing on the nutritional aspects of this assessment. Which factors should the nurse pay close attention to when examining the patient?

A

Skin, hair, and dentition

A patient’s skin, hair, and dentition can be strong indicators of nutritional status.

75
Q

A patient has been admitted to the hospital for malnutrition, and the nurse is explaining the plan of care. When the nurse comes in to take blood for the physical assessment, which statement is most appropriate for the nurse to make to the patient?

A

“A laboratory study will allow us as your health care providers to thoroughly assess your nutritional status.”

This explanation conveys to the patient the importance of laboratory studies as part of a thorough nutritional assessment.“

76
Q

The nurse is focused on a 22-year-old male’s need to weigh himself every day. The patient made a comment about how ugly he feels and said that for girls to like him he must be skinny. He told the nurse that he takes laxatives on a regular interval to help maintain his figure. Which information can the nurse determine from this assessment?

A

The patient has negative body self-esteem.

The patient’s extreme focus on weight and dislike for his body indicate negative body self-esteem.

77
Q

A nurse is working on nutrition with a 64-year-old patient. The nurse asks the patient to describe the types and amounts of food consumed the previous day. Which type of assessment is the nurse completing?

A

24-hour recall
The nurse is completing a 24-hour recall assessment, in which the patient is asked to recount the types and amounts of food consumed over the last day.

78
Q

A 14-year-old female is brought into the emergency department (ED) by her parents. She is 5’3” and weighs 75 pounds. Her parents state that she refuses to eat. Based upon this information, what can the nurse determine about the patient?

A

The patient might have an eating disorder.
The patient’s weight and refusal to eat may indicate an eating disorder; eating disorders are common in teenage children and must be evaluated for carefully.

79
Q

Which factors are included in the DETERMINE self-assessment of nutrition for older adults?

A

Multiple medications, involuntary weight loss, and tooth loss
These three factors are components of the DETERMINE self-assessment.

80
Q

The nurse is using anthropometric measurements to assess a 46-year-old patient. The patient is below average in weight, waist circumference, and body mass index (BMI) for height. Which factor does the nurse need to consider in the assessment?

A

The patient is at risk for malnutrition.

With decreased measurements, the patient is not getting enough nutrition and is definitely at risk for malnutrition.

81
Q

Match the laboratory value to the corresponding description.

A

Indicates levels of energy-containing molecules
-Blood glucose
Identifies the level of oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood
-Hemoglobin
Determines level of kidney function
-Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine
Indicates average blood glucose level for the past 2–3 months
-Hemoglobin A1c

82
Q

A 25-year-old female patient is getting her annual physical. The medical assistant measures her waist at 40 inches. According to North American standards for waist circumference, the patient is at risk for which condition?

A

Heart disease
Heart disease has been strongly correlated with a larger amount of fat stored around the waist. For women, waist circumference greater than 35 inches is considered at-risk.

83
Q

The primary nurse is advocating for a patient with a nursing hypothesis of Impaired Self-Feeding. With whom would the nurse collaborate to provide a cost-effective assistive feeding device for the patient?

A

Case manager

A case manager is responsible for providing cost-effective assistive feeding devices.

84
Q

Which primary pathophysiologic process would the nurse conclude is occurring in a patient who has a hypothesis of Impaired Self-Feeding?

A

Sensory and motor deficits secondary to spinal cord injury

Sensory and motor deficits secondary to spinal cord injury is a pathologic cause for Impaired Self-Feeding.

85
Q

An obese patient is asking for guidance to lose weight. Which hypothesis and patient-centered outcome would be the most appropriate related to nutrition for the patient?

A

Excess Food Intake resulting in obesity. Patient will identify factors related to obesity by the next clinic appointment.
Excess Food Intake is an appropriate hypothesis for the patient, and it has a measurable, reasonable, patient-centered outcome.

86
Q

Which individuals would a nurse collaborate with in an attempt to obtain the best possible outcomes for a pediatric patient with anorexia and bulimia?

A

Patient, dietitian, psychologist, and case manager
The patient, dietitian, psychologist, and case manager are the most appropriate multidisciplinary team to collaborate in attempt to attain the best possible patient outcomes.

87
Q

Which primary pathophysiologic process would the nurse conclude is occurring in a patient who has a hypothesis of Impaired Swallowing?

A

Residual effects of neurologic damage secondary to cerebrovascular accident
Residual effects of neurologic damage secondary to a cerebrovascular accident is a pathologic cause for Impaired Swallowing.

88
Q

An underweight patient is asking for guidance to gain muscle weight. Which hypothesis and patient-centered outcome would be the most appropriate related to nutrition for the patient?

A

Deficient Food Intake resulting in low body weight. Patient will identify factors related to nutritional consumption by the next clinic appointment.
Deficient Food Intake is an appropriate hypothesis for the patient, and it has a measurable, reasonable, and patient-centered outcome.

89
Q

In which areas would the nurse provide assistance for a patient who is blind and has mild aches?

A

Safety needs
Blind patients need safe surroundings to minimize the risk for injury.
Correct

Eating assistance
Blind patients may require assistance with meal preparation and eating by using a clock analogy.
Correct

Pain management
Pain management is needed because the patient has mild aches.

Activities of daily living
Blind patients need assistance with activities of daily living because the hospital is not a familiar environment.

90
Q

In which ways would the nurse evaluate the effectiveness of interventions for patients with cognitive deficits?

A

Incorporating input from family members
Sometimes the patient with cognitive deficits is too confused, so incorporating input from family members allows the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of interventions for the patient.
Correct

Noting a decline in the patient’s condition
Noting a decline in condition when the patient is cognitively impaired is an indication that the intervention is not effective and needs adjustment.
Correct

Observing for increased patient independence
Increased independence is a goal that, when reached by the cognitively impaired patient, indicates that the intervention is successful.

91
Q

Which actions would the nurse take for a patient with severe vision loss and impaired verbal communication?

A

Placing the call light within reach
Placing the call light within reach is an important safety measure for a patient with severe vision loss.
Correct

Orienting the patient to the room
Orientation to furniture and equipment placement is an important safety measure for a patient with severe vision loss.
Incorrect

Speaking clearly without shouting
Speaking clearly without shouting is appropriate for a patient with impaired verbal communication.
Correct

Using voice-recognition equipment
Voice-recognition equipment is an important safety measure for a patient with severe vision loss.

92
Q

Which action would the nurse take for a confused patient who is found wandering in the street and is admitted to the emergency department for observation?

A

Take an oral temperature.
The nurse would take an oral temperature to determine if an infection is causing the confusion or if something else is wrong.

93
Q

Which interventions would the nurse implement for a patient with an auditory deficit?

A

Reducing background noise
The nurse would reduce background noise to make it easier for the patient with an auditory deficit to hear.
Correct

Keeping the hands away from the mouth
The nurse would keep the hands away from the mouth so the patient can see to read lips.

Ensuring that there is no cerumen in the hearing aid
The nurse would ensure that there is no cerumen in the hearing aid so it can work properly to help the patient hear better.

94
Q

Which intervention would the nurse select to maintain safety for a patient with dementia who is uncooperative at times and exhibits negative behaviors toward other patients?

A

Looking at family photographs with the patient

Reminiscing about the past by looking at family photographs can calm and redirect negative behaviors.

95
Q

Which actions would the nurse take for a patient with sensory overload to relieve stress from family visits?

A

Reducing noise
Reducing noise will relieve stress and sensory overload.
Correct

Blocking nursing care
Blocking nursing care by grouping care that can be done together will limit overstimulation.

Planning care around rest
Planning care around rest will relieve stress and sensory overload.

96
Q

Which strategy would the nurse use to promote self-care for a patient who has memory impairment?

A

Providing assistance with hygiene

Assistance with hygiene is a strategy the nurse would use to promote self-care.

97
Q

Which general orientation considerations would the nurse use for a confused patient?

A

Involving the patient in concrete activities
A general orientation consideration the nurse would use for a confused patient is to involve the patient in concrete activities such as folding towels.

Providing reality orientation
Providing reality orientation is a general orientation consideration the nurse would use for a confused patient.
Correct

Limiting the amount of gestures
Limiting the amount of gestures is a general orientation consideration the nurse would use for a confused patient.

98
Q

Which intervention would the nurse implement for a patient with impaired socialization and sensory deprivation?

A

Encouraging the patient to play cards
This action would be taken for a patient with impaired socialization because it encourages social interaction and would help lessen the sensory deprivation.

99
Q

Which strategy would the nurse use for a patient with a stable weight who continues to have gustatory and olfactory deficits?

A

Continuing to monitor the patient
Since the weight is stable, the nurse would continue to monitor the patient with gustatory (taste) and olfactory (smell) deficits.

100
Q

Which safety precaution would the nurse discuss with a patient who has tactile alterations and is being discharged home?

A

Check the water heater settings.
Checking the water heater setting is a safety precaution to discuss with a patient who has tactile (touch) alterations to prevent scalding or burning.

101
Q

Which finding would alert the nurse that a patient is experiencing a therapeutic effect from dimenhydrinate?

A

Vertigo is decreased.

Dimenhydrinate is a medication for motion sickness; thus, vertigo would be decreased.

102
Q

Which intervention would the nurse take for a patient who is squinting when attempting to walk to the bathroom?

A

Ask if glasses are worn at home.
If the patient uses glasses at home, it is important to know and to encourage the patient to use them in the hospital for safety.

103
Q

Which actions would the nurse take for a patient with gustatory alterations?

A

Serving flavorful foods
Serving flavorful foods will promote intake for a patient with gustatory (taste) alterations.

Performing oral hygiene
Performing oral hygiene is important to keep the oral cavity fresh and hydrated and to improve appetite in a patient with gustatory (taste) alterations.

104
Q

Which strategy would the nurse use for a patient who has been withdrawn and not interested in activities of daily living?

A

Provide audiobooks.
Audiobooks engage the patient’s interest and would help the patient who is prone to sensory deprivation feel less isolated

105
Q

Which response would the nurse make to a patient who has an equilibrium deficit and does not want to walk at home because of fear of falling?

A

“Use a cane or a walker when you are ambulating.”

A cane or walker will provide the patient stability when ambulating and reduce the risk for a fall.

106
Q

Which self-care measure would the nurse prioritize for a patient with severe visual sensory deprivation?

A

Interacting socially
A patient with severe visual sensory deprivation is at risk for social isolation, so planning social interaction is an important measure.

107
Q

When preparing a patient with cognitive alterations for discharge home, which safety topics would the nurse include for family education?

A

Use of door locks with keys
Wandering is often a safety concern for cognitively impaired patients, so doors with key locks are prevention measures to use at home.
Correct

Avoidance of “why” questions
Asking “why” questions can cause agitation in patients with cognitive alterations; thus, “why” questions should be avoided.
Correct

Supervision requirements
Supervision requirements are addressed with the family for a patient with cognitive alterations. If 24-hour supervision and assistance with care are needed, the nurse and social services can make provisions with loved ones or a day care service.

108
Q

Which discharge instructions would the nurse share with a patient who has a visual deficit?

A

Remove throw rugs.
Removing throw rugs is an appropriate intervention for a patient with a visual deficit to prevent falls.

Install grab bars in the tub or shower.
Installing grab bars in the tub or shower can help prevent falls from visual deficits when getting in and out of the tub or shower.
Correct

Provide bright lighting in the hallways.
Bright lighting should be provided in darkened hallways to prevent injury and maintain independence in the home.
Correct

Move furniture so there are wide pathways.
Widened pathways promote ambulation without bumping into furniture or causing a fall.

109
Q

Which response would the nurse make to a confused patient who is hearing voices that the food is poisoned?

A

“That must be scary, but I do not hear the voices.”

The nurse would respond with this statement to present reality and focus on the patient’s feelings.

110
Q

Which action would the nurse take if a patient who has delirium is still delirious after 4 days of treatment?

A

Asking the patient if any recreational drugs have been taken
The nurse would try to determine why the patient is not improving, and recreational drugs may be a possibility for no improvement; delirium should start to improve after treatment.

111
Q

Which findings would alert the nurse that a patient with sensory overload is declining?

A

Is becoming overwhelmed
A patient with sensory overload who is becoming overwhelmed is declining.
Correct

Is anxious
A patient with sensory overload who is anxious is declining.
Correct

Inability to concentrate
A patient with sensory overload who cannot concentrate is declining.

112
Q

Which vital sign results are correctly correlated to their unexpected cognitive findings?

A

Elevated temperature—confusion, disorientation
Elevated temperature (fever) can lead to confusion and disorientation, which are unexpected cognitive findings.
Correct

Hypertension—headache
Hypertension can lead to headache, which is an unexpected cognitive finding.
Correct

Orthostatic hypotension—dizziness
Orthostatic hypotension can lead to dizziness, which is an unexpected cognitive finding.
Correct

Low pulse oximetry—restlessness
Low pulse oximetry can lead to restlessness, which is an unexpected cognitive finding.

113
Q

Which parameter is the nurse primarily assessing using these images?

clocks

A

Spatial orientation

The nurse is assessing spatial orientation by having the patient draw a clock.

114
Q

Which cues are expected with a patient who has Ménière disease?

A

Vertigo
Vertigo, a spinning sensation, is a cue associated with Ménière disease.
Correct

Progressive hearing loss
Hearing loss that is progressive occurs with Ménière disease.

Tinnitus
Tinnitus, ringing in the ears, is a cue associated with Ménière disease.

115
Q

Which laboratory data would the nurse monitor in an older adult patient who is confused and may have suffered a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?

A

Electrolytes
The nurse would monitor electrolytes for confusion because both elevated and low levels can lead to confusion.

Blood glucose
The nurse would monitor blood glucose levels because extremes in blood glucose can cause cognitive deficits such as confusion.
Correct

Cholesterol level
The nurse would monitor cholesterol levels because high levels can lead to CVA.
Correct

Urinalysis
The nurse would monitor the urinalysis because urinary tract infections can cause confusion in the older adult.

116
Q

Which cranial nerve is affected if the patient has anosmia?

A

I

Cranial nerve I (olfactory) is affected if the patient has anosmia, which is a decrease or loss of smell.

117
Q

Which cues are associated with Alzheimer disease?

A

Wandering
Wandering is a cue for Alzheimer disease.
Correct

Sundowning
Sundowning, which describes confusion/agitation in the late afternoon, evening, and even into the night, is a cue for Alzheimer disease.
Correct

Memory loss
Memory loss is a cue for Alzheimer disease.
Correct

Repetitive behaviors
Repetitive behaviors are cues for Alzheimer disease.

118
Q

Which cranial nerve is affected in sensorineural hearing loss?

A

VIII

Cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear) is the nerve affected in sensorineural hearing loss.

119
Q

Which impairment is a patient with a recent cerebrovascular accident (CVA) experiencing when able to follow commands but has difficulty responding verbally?

A

Expressive aphasia
In expressive aphasia, patients can follow commands because they understand what they hear. However, they have difficulty responding verbally because they cannot express words appropriately.

120
Q

Which cues would the nurse likely observe in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?

A

Elevated triglycerides
Elevated triglycerides is a cue associated with CVA.
Correct

Aphasia
Aphasia and speech difficulties are cues associated with CVA.
Correct

Motor deficits
Motor deficits are a cue associated with CVA.
Correct

Brain infarct indicated on CT scan
A CT scan indicating a brain infarct is a cue associated with CVA.

121
Q

Which eye condition is caused by an increase in intraocular pressure?

A

Glaucoma

Glaucoma is caused by increased intraocular pressure.

122
Q

Match each cognitive condition to its appropriate description.

A

General term for decreased oxygen to the brain causing ischemia
- Ischemic stroke
Clot or plaque preventing blood flow to the brain
- Cerebrovascular accident
Bleeding in the brain caused by a traumatic brain injury
- Hemorrhagic stroke
Difficulty with speech
- Aphasia

123
Q

Which patient conditions can lead to conductive hearing loss?

A

Has excess cerumen buildup in ear
Excess cerumen buildup in the ear can lead to conductive hearing loss because the ear wax blocks the sound waves.
Correct

Is diagnosed with otitis media
Otitis media, an ear infection with fluid behind the eardrum, can lead to conductive hearing loss because the sound waves are blocked.

124
Q

Which hypothesis would the nurse select for a patient who is interpreting external stimuli incorrectly, can recall the medical history, and has a high blood alcohol level and abnormal electrolyte levels?

A

Delirium

The patient is experiencing Delirium from the high blood alcohol level and abnormal electrolyte levels.

125
Q

Which patient cues would prompt the nurse to select the hypothesis Impaired Balance?

A

Positive Romberg test
A positive Romberg test is a cue for Impaired Balance because it is a test for equilibrium.
Correct

Vertigo
Vertigo (a spinning sensation) is a cue for Impaired Balance.

Medical diagnosis of Ménière disease
A medical diagnosis of Ménière disease is a cue for Impaired Balance because it causes vertigo.

126
Q

Which hypotheses would the nurse develop for a patient who is recently confused, oriented × 1, speaking in fragmented sentences, has abnormal electrolytes, and when asked health history questions replies, “I don’t know”?

A

Delirium
The nurse would develop this hypothesis because the patient has recent confusion and disorientation with abnormal electrolytes.
Correct

Acute Confusion
The nurse would develop this hypothesis because the confusion is recent (acute).

Impaired Memory
The nurse would develop this hypothesis because the patient is exhibiting Impaired Memory by not being able to contribute information when asked questions about a health history.
Correct

Impaired Verbal Communication
The nurse would develop this hypothesis because the patient is having difficulty with verbal communication, which is noted by the use of fragmented sentences.

127
Q

Match the hypothesis to its pathophysiologic cause.

need to fix

A
Damaged insula 
 - Delirium
Damaged occipital lobe 
- Impaired Vision 
  Progressive cerebrum deterioration
- Chronic Confusion
Cerebellum dysfunction 
- Impaired Balance
128
Q

Which multidisciplinary team members would the nurse collaborate with for a patient with a hypothesis of Impaired Sense of Smell?

A

Otolaryngologist
An otolaryngologist is a health care provider that deals with ear, nose, and throat problems. Impaired Sense of Smell involves the nose, so the nurse would collaborate with this team member.

Dietitian
A dietitian would be needed to help with decreased food intake from the Impaired Sense of Smell.

129
Q

Which nursing-derived outcome relates directly to a patient who has damage to cranial nerve VIII?

A

Patient will not fall during hospitalization.
Cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear) is involved with balance; thus, this outcome would relate directly to this patient.

130
Q

Which outcomes would the nurse select for a patient who suddenly becomes disoriented × 3, is agitated, and is processing stimuli incorrectly from a high fever?

A

Patient will regain orientation × 3 before discharge.
The nurse would select this outcome because the patient is delirious and will regain orientation because the condition is reversible.
Correct

Patient will not experience hallucinations for the next 48 hours.
The nurse would select this outcome because the patient is delirious and processing stimuli incorrectly (hallucinating).
Incorrect

Patient will not injure self while hospitalized.
The nurse would select this outcome because the patient is delirious and must be kept safe.

131
Q

Which hypothesis would the nurse develop for a patient with peripheral neuropathy?

A
Impaired Tactile Perception
Peripheral neuropathy (tingling and numbness in extremities) is a cue for Impaired Tactile (touch) Perception.
132
Q

Which hypothesis would the nurse select for an older adult patient with presbycusis?

A

Impaired Hearing

Presbycusis is age-related hearing loss; thus, Impaired Hearing is appropriate for this patient.

133
Q

Which hypothesis would the nurse select for an older adult patient who has dementia, continues to be confused and disoriented, and wanders the halls at night?

A

Chronic Confusion
The nurse would select Chronic Confusion because the patient has dementia (a chronic disorder) and continues with the confusion, disorientation, and wandering.

134
Q

Which patient situations would require the nurse to immediately intervene?

A

Becomes restless and confused
The nurse would immediately intervene if the patient is restless and confused; this is a safety issue.
Correct

Has a sudden loss of peripheral vision
The nurse would immediately intervene if the patient has a sudden loss of peripheral vision; this can cause permanent blindness.

135
Q

Which outcome would the nurse develop for a patient with the hypothesis Acute Confusion?

A

Patient will respond appropriately to questions within 24 hours.
The nurse would develop this outcome for Acute Confusion because it relates to confusion and is measurable.

136
Q

For which patient hypotheses would the nurse consider reorientation measures as a solution?

A

Chronic Confusion
Reorientation measures are appropriate solutions for Chronic Confusion.
Correct

Delirium
Reorientation measures are appropriate solutions for Delirium to help with confusion and disorientation.

Impaired Memory
Reorientation measures are appropriate solutions for Impaired Memory.

137
Q

Which outcomes would the nurse develop for a patient who has a damaged vestibulocochlear cranial nerve?

A

Patient will not fall during hospitalization.
Balance (thus falls) is regulated by the vestibulocochlear cranial nerve, so the nurse would select this outcome.
Correct

Patient will slowly rise every time from a sitting position.
Balance/equilibrium is regulated by the vestibulocochlear cranial nerve; thus, the nurse would select this outcome.

Patient will hear a whispered word with the use of a hearing aid before discharge.
Hearing is regulated by the vestibulocochlear cranial nerve; thus, the nurse would select this outcome.

138
Q

Which overall goal would the nurse develop for a patient with permanent damage to the optic cranial nerve?

A

Promote independence in performing activities of daily living (ADLs)
The optic cranial nerve is involved with vision; thus, the overall goal is to promote independence in performing ADLs.

139
Q

Which solutions would the nurse consider for a patient with Impaired Socialization resulting from aphasia?

A

Mental health services
Mental health services would be a solution for this patient to help with feelings related to social interaction.
Correct

Speech therapy
Speech therapy would be a solution because the patient has aphasia (speech and language problems).
Correct

Texting
Texting would be a solution because the patient has speech problems (aphasia).

Therapeutic communication techniques
Therapeutic communication techniques would be a solution to support the patient.

140
Q

Place the patients in the order in which the nurse would prioritize their care from highest priority to lowest priority.

A

Patient who is experiencing profuse bleeding from a fall
Patient who becomes delirious
Patient who has chronic confusion
Patient who has social isolation

141
Q

Which outcome would the nurse develop for a patient with a hypothesis of Chronic Confusion?

A

Patient will not wander to other units while hospitalized.
The nurse would select this outcome for a patient with Chronic Confusion because it is directly related to mental functioning that is deteriorating.

142
Q
  1. The nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia, who has severe malnutrition. The nurse should assess the patient for which of the following assessment findings? (Select all that apply.)
A
  1. Sepsis
  2. Hemorrhage
  3. Skin breakdown
143
Q
  1. The nurse is evaluating the recent lab results for a patient. Which labs are the best indicators for malnutrition? (Select all that apply.)
A
  1. Serum total protein

5 Serum BUN

144
Q
  1. The nurse is caring for a client with dysphagia and is feeding her a pureed chicken diet when she begins to choke. What is the priority nursing intervention?
A
  1. Stop feeding her.
145
Q
  1. A client who is receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) through a central venous catheter (CVC) has an air embolus. What should be the nurse’s priority action?
A
  1. Have the patient turn on the left side and perform a Valsalva maneuver.
146
Q
  1. A patient is receiving both parenteral (PN) and enteral nutrition (EN). When would the nurse collaborate with the health care provider and request a discontinuation of parenteral nutrition?
A
  1. When 75% of the patient’s nutritional needs are met by the tube feedings
147
Q
  1. A client is receiving an enteral feeding at 65 mL/hr. The gastric residual volume in 4 hours was 125 mL. What is the priority nursing intervention?
A
  1. Continue the feedings; this is normal gastric residual for this feeding.
148
Q
  1. Which action can a nurse delegate to assistive personnel (AP)?
A
  1. Performing glucose monitoring every 6 hours on a patient
149
Q
  1. Which statement made by the parents of a 2-month-old infant requires further education by the nurse?
A
  1. “I’m going to alternate formula with whole milk, starting next month.”
150
Q
  1. A nurse sees an assistive personnel (AP) perform the following intervention for a patient receiving continuous enteral feedings. Which action would require immediate attention by the nurse?
A
  1. Placing client supine while giving a bath
151
Q
  1. A patient is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). What are the primary interventions the nurse should follow to prevent a central line infection? (Select all that apply.)
A
  1. Change the dressing using sterile technique.

3. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.