Nutri Theraputics Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Know how to interpret folate, B12, and iron deficiency anemias on blood chemistries and nutrient support for anemia.
    • decreased transferrin saturation – in those with?
  • Hemolytic anemia
  • iron deficiency anemia
  • macrocytic anemia
A

iron deficiency anemia

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2
Q

• megaloblastic anemia resulting from _____ deficiency is identical to the megaloblastic anemia resulting from _____ ___ deficiency, and further clinical testing is required to diagnose the true cause of megaloblastic anemia

  • B12, B6
  • B6, iron
  • folate, B12
  • folate, iron
A

folate, B12

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3
Q

Signs of what?

fatigue, poor balance memory loss, pallor (paleness), reduced sensation of touch, shortness of breath, or tingling feet

A

anemia

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4
Q

Megaloblastic or macrocytic anemia: can be classified by what kind of cells? what nutrients?

  • B12, B6
  • B6, iron
  • folate, B12
  • folate, iron
  • enlarged, immature red blood cells
  • enlarged, immature white blood cells
  • shrunken, immature red blood cells
  • sickle shaped cells
A

enlarged, immature red blood cells.

B12, or folate

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5
Q

Recommendations for:
• the DASH, Mediterranean or a full plant-based diet3 in order to help balance out his blood chemistry.
• Lower dietary sodium
• Increase water
• Increase plant based protein (pg112)
• Omega -3’s (pg114)
• Fiber, Alpha Lipoic Acid, CoQ10, garlic etc

A
  1. Know dietary and nutritional support for hypertension pg 105 - Week 2 Discussion Board A
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6
Q
What condition do these test for?
•	Homocysteine, 
•	CoQ10, 
•	alpha-tocopherol, 
•	gamma- tocopherol, 
•	lipid peroxieds  
•	low vitamin C 
•	CRP
A

cardiovascular health

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7
Q

two heavy metals associated with poor cardiovascular health

  • aluminum, cadmium
  • cadmium, lead
  • lead, aluminum
A

cadmium, lead

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8
Q

T or F: RBC potassium is a better indicator of total body stores than serum potassium

A

True

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9
Q

Numerous research has demonstrated a significant reduction of blood pressure with increased dietary intake of ____. At ___ g per day

  • biotin, 5.7
  • folate, 5.7
  • magnesium, 4.7
  • potassium, 4.7
A

potassium, 4.7

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10
Q

A high dietary intake of 500 – 1000 mg per day of ____ reduces blood pressure in most of the clinical trials.

  • calcium
  • magnesium
  • potassium
  • sodium
A

magnesium

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11
Q

T or F: Body magnesium is more accurate in assessing total RBC magnesium

A

False , opposite

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12
Q

Adding 1000 – 2000 mg/d of _____ will enhance the anti-hypertensive effects of magnesium.

  • Glycine
  • Lysine
  • Serine
  • Taurine
A

taurine

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13
Q

T or F: High serum zinc levels have been associated with hypertension as well as cardiovascular disease

A

false, low

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14
Q

______ mcg of allicin (four cloves) is the required amount to have a significant effect on lowering blood pressure

  • 100
  • 1000
  • 10,000
  • 100,000
A

10,000

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15
Q

____ : decrease potassium, magnesium, phosphorus, sodium, chloride, folate, vitamin B6, zinc, iodine, and CoQ10.

  • Beta blockers
  • Diuretics
  • PPI
  • SSRI
A

Diuretics

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16
Q

_____ reduce CoQ10 and zinc

  • Beta blockers
  • Diuretics
  • PPI
  • SSRI
A

Beta Blockers:

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17
Q

5 statements required to be on dietary supplement labels

A
  1. Name of the dietary supplement
  2. Amount
  3. Nutrition labeling
  4. Ingredient list
  5. The name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor
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18
Q

Vital for brain and organ function

  • 25% of total _______ in the body is in the brain
  • Required for the synthesis of steroid hormones
  • Required to synthesize vitamin D
  • Required to produce bile salts
  • Cholesterol
  • Chylomicron
  • LDL
  • Lipids
  • VLDL
A

cholesterol

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19
Q

Mechanisms in which _____ induce vascular damage

  • Inflammation
  • Oxidative stress
  • Autoimmune dysfunction
  • None
  • All
  • A and B only
A

all

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20
Q

_____ and ____ have a positive effect on serum lipids and CHD risk.

  • Monounsaturated and PUFAs
  • Monounsaturated and Saturated
  • PUFAs and n-3s
  • PUFAs and saturated
A

Monounsaturated and PUFAs

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21
Q
\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_ contribute to:
–Insulin resistance
–Artherogenic LDL
–LDL particle number
–VLDL
–Triglycerides
–Total HDL and HDL subfractions
A

Refined carbohydrates

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22
Q

___ Particles Cause Plaque
•Cholesterol cannot float freely in the body
•Cholesterol is carried inside ___ particles through your blood.

  • Cholesterol
  • Chylomicron
  • LDL
  • Lipids
  • VLDL
A

LDL

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23
Q

Expanded Lipid Panels looks at what 4 things?

A

LDL particle number
LDL small
LDL medium
LDL Large

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24
Q

How to Change Small ___ to Large ___

Exercise
–4-5 days per week for at least 30 minutes
–2 days per week, do weight training
•Nutrition
–Consume fish 2-3 times per week or take a fish oil supplement
–Plant Sterols (2,000 mg/day)

A

Small LDL to Large LDL

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25
How to improve ____? –Body fat loss –Exercise –Consume fish 2-3 times per week or take a fish oil supplement (3 - 5 g/d) –Niacin (500 mg to 4000 mg in divided doses) –Quit smoking * Apo A * Apo B * Cholesterol * HDL2B * LDL * VLDL
HDL2b
26
____ is a true measurement direct measurement of amount of LDL particles •A high number of ____ increase your risk of heart disease •____ is a direct measurement whereas LDL is a calculated number, so ____ is a better marker for disease risk * Apo A * Apo B * Cholesterol * HDL2B * LDL * VLDL
Apo B
27
How to improve ____? Increase foods with plant sterols –Decrease foods high in saturated and eliminate trans fat –Increase soluble fiber –Exercise * Apo A * Apo B * Cholesterol * HDL2B * LDL * VLDL
Apo B
28
____ fiber binds fatty acids, cholesterol and bile acids and prevents their absorption or reabsorption during circulation. •____ fiber increases bile acid synthesis, creating a pathway for cholesterol excretion. •Since insulin stimulates cholesterol and triglyceride synthesis, lowering insulin with fiber may lower blood lipids.
soluble fiber
29
most of the cholesterol found in serum is derived from intestinal reuptake of cholesterol that has been deposited into the intestine from the ____ and ____ * Gall bladder and kidney * Liver and gall bladder. * Liver and kidney
liver and gall bladder.
30
* High levels can increase your risk for heart attacks and strokes * Diet and exercise have no significant affect on lowering abnormal values * A high level of ___ can be genetic -- Family members may consider testing to see if they are at risk * Niacin * High dose vitamin C * Apo B * HDL * LDL * Lp(a)
Lp(a)
31
3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A reductase inhibitors (HMG CoA reductase inhibitors) •_____ is synthesized in the same pathway as cholesterol; therefore also involves the HMG CoA reductase enzyme. •Research suggests that some statin drugs decrease serum _____ levels by as much as 40%
CoQ10
32
``` ____ induced nutrient depletions: –CoQ10 –Carnitine –Vitamin E –Vitamin D –Omega-3 fatty acids –Selenium ```
Statin
33
Nutrients to Improve__________ (9) * Fish Oil * Niacin * Tocotrienols * Red Yeast Rice * CoQ10 * Green Tea (EGCg) * Garlic * Plant Sterols * Fiber
Dyslipdemia
34
It has a positive impact on all lipid fractions –Lowers LDL, Lp(a), and triglycerides –Raises HDL and increase the ratio of large/small particle LDL * Biotin * Folate * Niacin * Pantothenic acid
niacin
35
Research indicates that the two most potent forms of tocotrienols are ____ and ____ * alpha and delta * delta and gamma * gamma and alpha
delta and gamma
36
Benefits: * Reduce oxidation of unsaturated lipids in cell membranes and lipoprotein particles. * Reduce foam cell formation by reducing oxidation of LDL particles and reducing the surface expression of cellular adhesion molecules. * Reduce the translation of HMG-CoA reductase mRNA as well as increasing the degradation of the enzyme post-transcriptionally Recommended dose: 250 mg of gamma and delta ____ at night with food. •The dosage is very important because increased dosing will induce its own metabolism and effectiveness •Lower doses are not as effective * Tocotrienols * Garlic * Green Tea (EGCG)
Tocotrienols
37
* Reduces intestinal cholesterol absorption * Inhibits enzymes involved in cholesterol synthesis * Deactivates HMG CoA reductase * Fibrinolytic and anti-platelet activity * Lowers blood pressure * Reduces LDL * Decreases coronary calcification * Tocotrienols * Garlic * Green Tea (EGCG)
Garlic
38
What botanical? * Protects LDL cholesterol from oxidation * EpiGallo-Catechin-3-Gallate- one of the more extensively studied green tea polyphenols * Can cause a small decrease in LDL levels and reduce platelet aggregation * Reduces fatty acid gene expression * Inhibits HMG CoA reductase * Decreases APO B lipoprotein secretion from cells * Dosage: 500 – 700 mg/d * Tocotrienols * Garlic * Green Tea (EGCG)
Green Tea (EGCg)
39
``` Dietary Recommendations for _____ •Reduce or eliminate refined carbohydrate intake •Anti-inflammatory diet •Avoid hydrogenated vegetable oils •Increase dietary fiber •Eat garlic often •Cook with coconut oil •Add olive oil to cooked foods and raw vegetables ```
dislyipidemia
40
Congestive heart failure. Issue with ____ ____. Restrict intake to _ _____ a day .
fluid retention, 2 quarts
41
• ____ foods further increase fluid retention, may lead to increased blood pressure * Processed * Whole * Raw * Macrobiotic
Processed
42
CHF patients are commonly deficient in what two minerals? * calcium and sodium * chloride and magnesium * magnesium and potassium
magnesium and potassium
43
diuretic mediation often deplete what two minerals? * calcium and sodium * chloride and magnesium * magnesium and potassium
magnesium and potassium
44
three non mineral nutrients often needed in CHF. * d-ribose, CoQ10, L – carnitine * d-ribose, CoQ10, L – lysine * d-ribose, CoQ10, L – phenylalanine * d-ribose, CoQ10, L – serine
d-ribose, CoQ10, L - carnitine
45
• GI – 4Rs
o Remove food sensitivities or allergies, alcohol, aspirin, NSAIDS from the diet. Use antimicrobials for dysbiosis or GI infection o Replace digestive enzymes and HCL if necessary. o Reinoculate the bowel with pre- and probiotics. o Repair the GI mucosa
46
What supplement ? • Protects the intestinal epithelial cells and supports intestinal barrier function. • Increases sIgA secretion • Directly inhibits colonization of harmful bacteria • protects gastrointestinal tract during antibiotic therapy • Restores normal intestinal function in children and adults with diarrhea • Prevents traveler’s diarrhea • C. difficile • Inflammatory Bowel Disease • Use with GERD • A nonpathogenic, probiotic yeast. * Bifidobacterium breve * Bifidobacterium infantis * Lactobacillus * Saccharomyces boulardii
• Saccharomyces boulardii
47
Know underlying causes of ___ Visceral hypersensitivity, disordered cortical pain processing, small bowel bacterial overgrowth, increased intestinal permeability
IBS
48
* A chronic illness that is unremitting intestinal in cfhlaamramctaetriiozend w bityh tissue sdtarmesasge caused by increased oxidative metabolic * Iennfelarmgym, mataiocrno annudtr iinetnets, tainnadl mdaicmroanguet irniecrneta ses requirements. * eDsieset n(atinatli oroxlied ainn thse, aolminegg, aim-3m fautntye afucindcst)i opnla, yasn adn downregulating inflammation What disease? * IBS * IBD * GERD * Leaky gut
Inflammatory Bowel Disease
49
• CMP-14 • Lipid Panel • HA1c • Insulin • Homocysteine • Hs-CRP/CRP • Sed rate • Iron Panel • Vitamin D 25-OH; 1,25 dihydroxyvitaminD labs to run for ? * IBS * IBD * GERD * Leaky gut
Inflammatory Bowel Disease
50
* Gluten * Food Sensitivity * Nutrient Deficiency * Stress and Hormone Imbalance * Dysbiosis * Infections * Toxins Potential triggers for ___ * IBS * IBD * GERD * Leaky gut
IBD
51
_______ is a stool (fecal) test that is used to detect inflammation in the intestines. a marker of neutrophil activity and inflammation * Calprotectin * elastase * sIgA * Eosinophil Protein X
Calprotectin
52
* a marker of eosinophil activity * and inflammatory, allergic, and parasitic influences which test? * Calprotectin * elastase * sIgA * Eosinophil Protein X
Eosinophil Protein X • Eosinophil : are a variety of white blood cells and one of the immune system components responsible for combating multicellular parasites and certain infections in vertebrates.
53
* a marker of secretory * immune function, GI mucosal defense, and the * maintenance of gut barrier function which test? * Calprotectin * elastase * sIgA * Eosinophil Protein X
sIgA
54
test for microbiome (3)
n-butyrate Acetate Propionate
55
benzoate, hipurate, phenylacetate, phenylpropionate, p-hydroxybenzoate, p-hydroxyphenylacetate, indican, tricarballyate, d- lactate, 3,4 dihydroxyphenylapropionate, d- arabintol markers for?
Bacterial or yeast/fungal over growth
56
* CBC w/diff * CMP-14 * Lipid Panel * HA1c * Insulin * Homocysteine * Cardio CRP * Iron Panel * Vitamin D 25-OH; 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D Test for? (2) * IBS * IBD * GERD * Leaky gut * Autoimmune
Autoimmune, IBS
57
A comprehensive metabolic panel is a blood test that measures your sugar (glucose) level, electrolyte and fluid balance, kidney function, and liver function. Glucose is a type of sugar your body uses for energy. Electrolytes keep your body's fluids in balance. * CBC w/diff * CMP-14 * Lipid Panel * HA1c
CMP-14
58
• GI – 4Rs
Remove gluten, egg, alcohol, aspirin, NSAIDS from the diet. o Replace digestive enzymes and HCL if necessary. o Reinoculate the bowel with pre- and probiotics. o Repair the GI mucosa with L-Glutamine and GI Repair Nutrients
59
* Gluten * Food Sensitivity * Nutrient Deficiency * Stress and Hormone Imbalance * Dysbiosis * Infections * Toxins environmental _____ triggers * IBS * IBD * GERD * Leaky gut * Autoimmune
autoimmune
60
- basophil or mast cell histimine release. - IgG or IgE. - Type I allergic reaction Describes what? * food allergy * food intolerance * food sensitivity * IgE
food allergy
61
- immune system mediated response. - forms immune complexes that can stimulate complement cascade and local inflammation - delayed hours to 7 days after - Type III Allergic reaction Describes what? * food allergy * food intolerance * food sensitivity * IgE
food sensitivity
62
- non immunological mechanisms - lactotose and MSG sensitivity Describes what? * food allergy * food intolerance * food sensitivity * IgE
food intolerance
63
Elevated levels of food specific ___ can cause allergic reactions to food involving the anaphylactic response Describes what? * food allergy * food intolerance * food sensitivity * IgE
IgE
64
Physical Exam for _______ patient – Waist circumference – Waist to hip ratio – Body Mass Index = Weight Kg/Height (m)2 – Bioimpedence (BIA)
Physical Exam for diabetes patient (4)
65
labs for suspicion of _______ ``` – CBC – CMP – Lipid Profile – Fatty acid profile – HbA1c – TSH – Homocysteine – CRP – Vitamin D ```
labs for suspicion of diabetes (9)
66
``` MEN, metabolic syndrome: • Waist Circumference > • Triglycerides > • HDL Cholesterol < • Blood Pressure > • Fasting Glucose > ```
* Waist Circumference > 40 in. * Triglycerides > 150 mg/dL * HDL Cholesterol < 40 mg/dL * Blood Pressure > 130/85 mm Hg * Fasting Glucose > 100 mg/dL
67
``` WOMEN metabolic syndrome:: • Waist Circumference > • Triglycerides > • HDL Cholesterol < • Blood Pressure > • Fasting Glucose > ```
``` Waist Circumference > 35 in. • Triglycerides > 150 mg/dL • HDL Cholesterol < 50 mg/dL • Blood Pressure > 130/85 mm Hg • Fasting Glucose > 100 mg/dL ```
68
Excess sugar in your bloodstream can react with proteins and lipids (fatty substances) in your body, leading to the formation of highly toxic product called?
– Advanced Glycation End products (AGEs).
69
A key reason why diabetics are at a high risk of nerve, artery and kidney damage - because the high blood sugar levels in their bodies significantly accelerate the formation of ____
AGEs
70
• In your body, AGEs cause ___________ and ________ stress, and contribute to the progression of atherosclerosis, particularly among people with diabetes.
inflammation | oxidation
71
How to Avoid A.G.E.s in Your Diet • Foods that are high in AGEs are those that are? (5 methods of cooking) • Any food that is "______," particularly highfat, high-protein food, is also likely to be high in AGEs.
grilled, fried, broiled, roasted, pasteurized or sterilized. browned
72
Use "___" cooking methods, such as stewing, boiling, braising, crock pot or steaming, often because dry-heat cooking methods create more AGEs than moist ones
wet
73
When you do grill, use _____ marinades including lemon juice and vinegar, which are thought to help to fight AGEs. Also, trim the fat off the meat beforehand. * Acidic * Sugary * Spicy * Oily
acidic
74
what test correlates with AGE's? – Fatty acid profile – HbA1c – TSH – Homocysteine
HbA1C
75
what does GLUT stand for?
Glucose transport protein
76
* Body weight in kg/m2 . * Take body weight in pounds and divide by 2.2 = kg. * Take height in inches and multiply by .0254 then square it.
how to calculate BMI
77
BMI: | Underweight
Below 18.5 Underweight
78
BMI: | Normal or Healthy Weight
18.5 – 24.9 Normal or Healthy Weight
79
BMI: | Overweight
25.0 – 29.9 Overweight
80
BMI: | Obese
30.0 and Above Obese
81
mannitol/lactulose zonulin Lipopolysacchairdes (LPS) Actomyosin IgA ``` tests for? • IBS • IBD • GERD • Leaky gut ```
leaky gut
82
If lower esophageal sphincter fails to close stomach acids enter esophagus & cause heartburn * IBS * IBD * GERD * Leaky gut
GERD
83
* Endoscopy * Food antibody testing * Test for H. Pylori * Stool testing ``` Tests for? tests for? • IBS • IBD • GERD • Leaky gu ```
GERD
84
•Reduce animal protein •8 glasses water daily •Juicing (especially cabbage) –Methymethionine sulfonium can be a substitute for cabbage juice •Deglycyrrhizinated Licorice (DGL) chewable tablets 400mg TID between meals. •Zinc carnosine 75 mg BID •Plant based digestive enzymes (before meals) •Calcium glycerophosphate- acid-reducing properties in the gut ____ Lifestyle Recommendations * IBS * IBD * GERD * Leaky gut
GERD
85
Functions of ___ •Reduce stomach pH to about 2.0 •Kills bacteria in food •Inactivates amylase (starch digestion stops). •Converts (activates) pepsinogen to pepsin. •Starts protein breakdown (denature)
HCL
86
_____ ______ Repair nutrients - Zinc Carnosine - L-Glutamine- - Mucin-Intestinal lining support via a glycoprotein, - N-Acetyl Glucosamine- GI tissue support - DGL, Slippery Elm, Marshmallow, Chamomile, Okra, and Cat’s Claw GI soothing - Reduction of inflammation- Omega-3 fatty acids and Polyphenols - curcumin, boswellia, ginger, quercetin, rutin, rosemary, resveratrol, EGCg -
GI
87
* Alcohol * Smoking * Carbonated beverages * Coffee * Chocolate * Tomatoes * Fatty foods * Onions * Peppermint * Junk food to avoid with? * IBS * IBD * GERD * Leaky gut
GERD
88
* Calcium channel blockers * Beta blockers * Alpha-adrenergic agonists * Theophyline * Nitrates * Progesterone * Aspirin * NSAIDS Can cause ____: * IBS * IBD * GERD * Leaky gut
GERD
89
_____ _______ and food allergy are frequently herald conditions for other manifestations of 'the allergic march'. They commonly co-exist, particularly in those with early onset, severe and persistent atopic eczema. Filaggrin gene defects substantially increase the risk of ______ _______.
Atopic dermatitis | atopic eczema
90
Regarding kidney stones: Elevated serum uric acid suggest: * increase Ca uptake * primary hyperparathyroidism associated with Ca-phosphate stones. ~5% of people with nephrolithiasis have elevated parathyroid hormone levels * secondary hyperparathyroidism; * uric acid stones, especially when combined with a history of gout and fructose ingestion
• uric acid stones, especially when combined with a history of gout and fructose ingestion
91
Regarding kidney stones: Elevated serum Ca can suggest: * increase Ca uptake * primary hyperparathyroidism associated with Ca-phosphate stones. ~5% of people with nephrolithiasis have elevated parathyroid hormone levels * secondary hyperparathyroidism; * uric acid stones, especially when combined with a history of gout and fructose ingestion
primary hyperparathyroidism associated with Ca-phosphate stones. ~5% of people with nephrolithiasis have elevated parathyroid hormone levels
92
Regarding kidney stones: Serum 25-hydroxy Vit D is valuable as both high and low levels promote stone formation. Low is associated with: * increase Ca uptake * primary hyperparathyroidism associated with Ca-phosphate stones. ~5% of people with nephrolithiasis have elevated parathyroid hormone levels * secondary hyperparathyroidism; * uric acid stones, especially when combined with a history of gout and fructose ingestion
secondary hyperparathyroidism;
93
Regarding kidney stones: Serum 25-hydroxy Vit D is valuable as both high and low levels promote stone formation. High levels: * increase Ca uptake * primary hyperparathyroidism associated with Ca-phosphate stones. ~5% of people with nephrolithiasis have elevated parathyroid hormone levels * secondary hyperparathyroidism; * uric acid stones, especially when combined with a history of gout and fructose ingestion
increase Ca uptake
94
Regarding kidney stones: Urine Ph is an important biochemical factor in the prod of kidney stones; cysteine, and Ca oxalate stones tend to form in ____ urine, while struvite and calcium phosphate stones form in ______ urine * acidic * alkaline * Ca, phosphorus, Mg, uric acid, oxalate * Calcium * Creatinine * increase Ca uptake
acidic, alkaline
95
Regarding kidney stones: A 24- hour collection can be analyzed for ____, and the stone-inhibiting factors citrate and phytate. In the absence of the actual stone analysis, these 24-hour urine parameters help indicate potentially abnormal or treatable conditions such as low urinary citrate. * acidic, alkaline * Ca, phosphorus, Mg, uric acid, oxalate * Calcium * Creatinine * increase Ca uptake
Ca, phosphorus, Mg, uric acid, oxalate
96
Regarding kidney stones: 24-hour urine ______ should be measured to evaluate the adequacy of the collection * Ca, phosphorus, Mg, uric acid, oxalate * Calcium * Creatinine * increase Ca uptake
creatinine
97
An elevated urine _______ excretion is another important stone-forming risk factor. Elevation can occur with increased diet acid loads, increased salt intake, and both inadequate and excessive vitamin D levels. * acidic, alkaline * Ca, phosphorus, Mg, uric acid, oxalate * Calcium * Creatinine * increase Ca uptake * primary hyperparathyroidism associated with Ca-phosphate stones. ~5% of people with nephrolithiasis have elevated parathyroid hormone levels * secondary hyperparathyroidism; * uric acid stones, especially when combined with a history of gout and fructose ingestion Regarding kidney stones:
calcium
98
AGEs have also been associated with a number of chronic diseases such as _____. (choose all that apply) * Diabetes * Heart disease * Kidney * Metabolic syndrome * Renal disease
diabetes, | heart disease, and renal disease.
99
* Hs-CRP/CRP * Sed rate * Vitamin D 25-OH; 1,25 * dihydroxyvitamin D IBD, to test for? * Anemia * Hydration * Inflammation and disease activity
• Inflammation and disease activity
100
CBC w/diff Iron Panel Vtiamin B12 or MMA, Folate IBD, to test for? * Anemia * Hydration * Inflammation and disease activity
• Anemia
101
- Vital signs, - CBC w/diff, - CMP-14 IBD, to test for? * Anemia * Hydration * Inflammation and disease activity
• Hydration
102
What nutrient recommendations would you make for someone on a proton pump inhibitor (PPI)? Betaine HCL Goldenseal Vitamin B12 and Magnesium Ginger
Vitamin B12 and Magnesium
103
o Interstitial deposits containing calcium oxalate are also known as Randall’s plaques and are visible on uroscopy as whitish deposits) o Plaque formation increase with increased urinary calcium excretion and decreased urine pH. o Stones may also form in the tubules at sites of luminal injury such as the opening of the ducts of Bellini What kind of kidney stone? * Calcium Oxalate * Calcium Phosphate * Cystine * Struvite * Uric Acid * Other
Calcium Oxalate
104
o Often seen in those with renal tubular acidifying abnormalities are found protruding from the ducts of Bellini What kind of kidney stone? * Calcium Oxalate * Calcium Phosphate * Cystine * Struvite * Uric Acid * Other
Calcium Phosphate
105
Regarding kidney stones, children vs adults: • Calcium Oxalate * (2-4%; 9-17%) * (24-30%; 8-18% - up to 75% incidence in prego women) * (4%; 2%) * (45-65%; 56-61%) * (5-8%; 1%) * (7-13%; 2-4%)
• Calcium Oxalate (45-65%; 56-61%)
106
Regarding kidney stones, children vs adults: • Calcium Phosphate * (2-4%; 9-17%) * (24-30%; 8-18% - up to 75% incidence in prego women) * (4%; 2%) * (45-65%; 56-61%) * (5-8%; 1%) * (7-13%; 2-4%)
• Calcium Phosphate (24-30%; 8-18% - up to 75% incidence in prego women)
107
Regarding kidney stones, children vs adults: • Cystine * (2-4%; 9-17%) * (24-30%; 8-18% - up to 75% incidence in prego women) * (4%; 2%) * (45-65%; 56-61%) * (5-8%; 1%) * (7-13%; 2-4%)
• Cystine (5-8%; 1%)
108
Regarding kidney stones, children vs adults: • Struvite * (2-4%; 9-17%) * (24-30%; 8-18% - up to 75% incidence in prego women) * (4%; 2%) * (45-65%; 56-61%) * (5-8%; 1%) * (7-13%; 2-4%)
• Struvite (7-13%; 2-4%)
109
Regarding kidney stones, children vs adults: • Uric Acid * (2-4%; 9-17%) * (24-30%; 8-18% - up to 75% incidence in prego women) * (4%; 2%) * (45-65%; 56-61%) * (5-8%; 1%) * (7-13%; 2-4%)
• Uric Acid (2-4%; 9-17%)
110
Regarding kidney stones, children vs adults: • Other * (2-4%; 9-17%) * (24-30%; 8-18% - up to 75% incidence in prego women) * (4%; 2%) * (45-65%; 56-61%) * (5-8%; 1%) * (7-13%; 2-4%)
• Other (4%; 2%)
111
* Melatonin * L-tryptophan and 5-HTP * Chamomile * Kava * Hops * Lemon Balm * Valerian Root * Magnesium nutrients for what issue?
sleep disturbance
112
* Alcohol * Most frequent food triggers: Wheat; orange; egg; tea and coffee; chocolate; milk; beef; corn and cane sugar; yeast; mushrooms; peas triggers for what?
migraines
113
• Pathophysiology – primary hypogonadism, y chromosome defect, altered sperm transport, secondary hypogonadism, developmental or physiological, immunological, unknown o Other considerations: obesity, increased scrotal temperature, radiation, smoking, marijuana potential causes of what?
male infertility
114
``` o avoid environmental exposures o detoxification  glutathione o l-arginine o l – carnitine o antioxidants o zinc o CoQ10 o Vitamin C, A, E, D, B12, folate o Alpha lipoic acid ``` nutritional support for?
male infertility
115
health screen and fertility work up, hormone profile and semen analysis o Environmental – PCBs, chlorinated pesticides, volatiles solvents, phthalates, parabens, nutrient and toxic element screening (heavy metals), other toxins Evaluation for?
male infertility