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Comp Exam Nov > 560C Vit and Min > Flashcards

560C Vit and Min Flashcards

1
Q

What is the predominant monosaccharide produced by the digestion of all dietary carbohydrates?

A
  1. glucose
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2
Q

The final molecules that are absorbed from the digestion of the carbohydrate in the spaghetti (noodles) and cream sauce are ____ and ________.

A
  1. glucose and

4 galactose

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3
Q

What is the likely reason that large quantities of fructose may cause gut discomfort?

A
  1. Facilitated diffusion is faster than active transporting
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4
Q

Which is the following physiological changes will raise blood glucose and which will lower blood glucose?

  1. Increase blood insulin
  2. Increase blood glucagon
  3. Increase blood corticosteroid
  4. Decreased insulin receptor funcion
A

Lowers blood glucose
1. Increase blood insulin

Increase blood glucose

  1. Increase blood glucagon
  2. Increase blood corticosteroid
  3. Decreased insulin receptor function
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5
Q

The fructose:glucose ratio of high-fructose corn syrup is approximately ____.

A

50:50

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6
Q

Which tissue metabolizes fructose?

A

liver

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7
Q

For determining the glycemic index of foods, what measure of food composition is used to standardize each item tested?

A
  1. Equal in carbohydrate weight
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8
Q

To convert the glycemic index of a food to glycemic load, the glycemic index is:

A

Divided by the grams of carbohydrate per serving size

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9
Q

Name 5 factors that can influence the glycemic index of a food?

A
  1. Temp of the food when eaten
  2. Fat and acid content
  3. type of sugar or starch
  4. processing that removes fiber
  5. processing that grinds the food into smaller parts
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10
Q

T/F: Although white bread and regular spaghetti share a similar source of carbohydrate, most glycemic index tables suggest that white bread will have a greater glycemic effect compared to regular speghetti.

A

TRUE

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11
Q

Name 5 concerns among critics of the glycemic index?

A
  1. GI is too complex
  2. Apparently similar foods have a wide variation in GI values
  3. Some low GI foods are not healthy
  4. The way GI is measured does not resemble the way people eat
  5. GI only measures short-term effects on BS, not long-term
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12
Q

Carrot has a high ____ _____, but low ____ ____?

A

glycemic index, glycemic load

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13
Q

Which of the following, according to LPI (Linus Pauling), has been reported by cohort studies?

  1. Increased risk of gallbladder disease
  2. Increased risk of T2DM
  3. Increased risk of coronary heart disease
  4. All of the above
A

all answers correct

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14
Q

According to LPI (Linus Pauling), which 4 mechanisms have been identified that could explain a potential harmful influence of high glycemic load or glycemic index diets on health?

A
  1. Increased CRP
  2. Increased growth of cancer by hyperinsulinemia
  3. Increased serum triglycerides and low HDL
  4. Reduced postprandial satiety, earlier hunger and increased food intake
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15
Q

According the the article by LPI, which 2 cancer sites is there meta-analysis evidence of an association with high glycemic load diets.

A

1 and 4: Colorectal and endometrial

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16
Q

Research on low carb-diets reviewed in Nutrition Source article - which statement is true?

  1. Prospective studies show both animal and plant-based low-carb diets reduce disease and diabetes risk in women
  2. Subjects in the LEARN trial were able to consistently follow the diets they were assigned to
  3. short-term weight loss trials show low-carb diets more effective than low fat
  4. at the end of a 2 year trial, low carb was more effective than other diets
A
  1. short-term weight loss trials show low-carb diets more effective than low fat
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17
Q

In the human, most triacylglyerols are synthesized by _________.

A

the liver

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18
Q

A protein sparing shift in metabolism from gluconeogenesis to lipolysis occurs during the ___ state

A

starvation state

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19
Q

AA used primarily by muscle for synthesis of dispensable AA and protein synthesis are _____.

A

BCAA

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20
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

  1. Prevalence of metabolic syndrome in obese adolescents may be as high as 44%
  2. Majority of US adults over 20 has metabolic syndrome
  3. Individuals with metabolic syndrome are more likely to develop T2DM
A
  1. Majority of US adults over 20 has metabolic syndrome
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21
Q

Insulin resistance and met syn are believed to contribute to increased vascular disease risk through related effects on what 4 mechanisms?

A
  1. serum lipoproteins
  2. Inflammatory mediators
  3. coagulation factors (prothrombotic state)
  4. blood pressure
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22
Q

Name 5 typical criterion for identifying metabolic syndrome in an individual?

A
  1. abdominal obesity
  2. Triglyceride blood levels
  3. HDL levels
  4. Insulin resistance or impaired glucose regulation
  5. Elevated BP
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23
Q

T/F: A patient taking medication for hypertension, high triglycerides, and high fasting glucose would not qualify for the diagnosis of Metabolic Syndrome if the drug therapies were effective for keeping those risk factors within normal limits.

A

FALSE

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24
Q

The diagnosis of obesity corresponds to a Body Mass Index (BMI) of at least ________.

A

30

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25
Q

How can metabolic syndrome be reversed during its early stages?

A

loss of at least 7% of body weight

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26
Q

Dietary fiber can be classified as viscous (soluble) or non-viscous. Which of the following is more likely to be a characteristic of most viscous dietary fiber, but not likely a characteristic of most non-viscous dietary fibers?

A
  1. Binds Bile acids
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27
Q

T/F: Insoluble food fiber is thought to be more helpful in normalizing blood sugar in diabetics than soluble fiber.

A

FALSE

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28
Q

T/F: Non-viscous food fiber is thought to be more helpful in preventing diverticulosis of the intestine than is viscous food fiber.

A

TRUE

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29
Q

Processed foods that may have cellulose purified from wood added to them include all of the following except _____.

  1. Cake mix
  2. Sandwich spread
  3. Fruit juice extract
  4. Canned green beans
A
  1. Canned green beans
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30
Q

Fructans found in chicory, onions and Jerusalem artichokes are ___ that promote the growth of _____ in the gut.

A

fibers

bifidobacteria

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31
Q

The fiber family known as beta-glucans are primarily found in ____________.

A

Cereal brans such as oats and barley

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32
Q

When fluid intake is adequate, which pair of fibers or fiber sources are the most effective in increasing fecal bulk?

A
  1. wheat bran and rice bran
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33
Q

Which of the following types of foods contributes the most fiber in a usual serving?

  1. Whole grain breads
  2. meat, dairy
  3. legumes, beans
  4. leafy vegetables
A
  1. legumes, beans
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34
Q

What is the primary non-carbohydrate component of fiber?

A

lignans

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35
Q

Name a water-soluble, gel-forming fiber that functions in the plant as intracellular cement and that is used commercially to make jellies and to provide fiber in formulas.

A

Pectin

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36
Q

The following are examples of_____ starch.

  1. natural starch in cell walls of steel cut oats
  2. chemically modified starch, such as cross-bonded starch
  3. starch crystals in cooled, cooked foods like potatoes
A

resistant

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37
Q

When fibers form viscous gels in the stomach, what occurs?

A

Delayed gastric emptying

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38
Q

Which of the following high-fiber foods are most effective in lowering serum cholesterol?

A
  1. oat bran and legumes
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39
Q

What 3 characteristics of fiber may protect against developing colon cancer?

A
  1. Fibers can be fermented into butyric acid which may slow proliferation of cancer cells
  2. Fiber absorb primary bile acids to promote excretion
  3. Fiber increases fecal bulk and dilute carcinogen concentration.
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40
Q

At this time, what is the state of the evidence for prebiotics use to prevent or treat diarrhea?

A
  1. promising but inconclusive
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41
Q

What is a mechanism for the constipation relief provided by fructooligosaccharides and inulin?

A

Shortened transit time

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42
Q

T/F: In the United States and other developed countries, the majority of the population meets the Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA) for protein.

A

TRUE

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43
Q

Long-term use of high-protein diets may weaken bone by what mechanism?

A

Acid release by digestion of protein

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44
Q

Which are 3 explanations for the short-term benefits of a high-protein, low carbohydrate weight loss diet?

A
  1. Reduced postprandial blood sugar swings
    from the intestine
  2. Increased calories required to digest protein
    3.. Slower movement of food from the stomach to the intestine
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45
Q

What 3 oils are a good source of alpha-linolenic acid?

A
  1. canola oil
  2. flaxseed (linseed) oil
  3. soybean oil
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46
Q

Indicate the TWO polyunsaturated fatty acids found primarily in fish oils.

A
  1. eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)

4. docasahexaenoic acid (DHA)

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47
Q

Match the fatty acids with their n-based structural notation.

  1. arachidonic acid
  2. gamma-linolenic acid
  3. alpha-linolenic acid
  4. eicosapentaenoic acid
    A. 18:3 n-6
    B. 18:3 n-3
    C. 20:4 n-6
    D. 20:5 n-3
A

1-C: arachidonic acid 20:4 n-6
2-A: gamma-linolenic acid 18:3 n-6
3-B: alpha-linolenic acid 18:3 n-3
4-D: eicosapentaenoic acid 20:5 n-3

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48
Q

Which TWO polyunsaturated fatty acids are considered essential, due to the absence of certain desaturase enzymes in all humans?

A
  1. LA

3. ALA

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49
Q

Indicate the TWO enzymes directly responsible for the synthesis of eicosanoids.

A

lipoxygenase and cyclooxygenase

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50
Q

Name 3 families of eicosanoids:

A

thromboxanes
prostaglandins
leukotienes

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51
Q

Where is the most important reservoir for 20-carbon polyunsaturated fatty acids that can be quickly made available for eicosanoid synthesis?

A

Cell membrane phospholipids

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52
Q

Which THREE of the following oils are good sources of gamma-linolenic acid (GLA)?

A
  1. Evening primrose (EPO)
  2. Black current seed oil
  3. Borage oil
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53
Q

T/F:Most fish oil supplements have over 50% of their fatty acid content in the form of EPA and DHA.

A

FALSE

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54
Q

Patients taking which medication probably require the closest monitoring when they are also taking fish oil supplements?

A

Anticoagulants

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55
Q

The ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 in the human diet has ___1____ compared to early human diets, due to increased consumption of ____2_____ and decreased consumption of _____3____.

A

increased
vegetable oil
fish

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56
Q

T/F: In general, eicosanoids derived from arachidonic acid are less potent inducers of inflammation, blood vessel constriction, and clotting than eicosanoids derived from EPA.

A

FALSE

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57
Q

Docosahexaenoic acid appears to be especially crucial for normal development of which TWO tissues in infancy?

A

Nerve cells

Retina

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58
Q

Which three fatty acids can be directly converted into eicosanoids such as prostaglandins?

A
  1. EPA
  2. DGLA
  3. AA
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59
Q

The highest Adequate Intake requirements for omega-3 fatty acids have been set for which TWO life stage groups?

A
  1. male adolescents

3. Males adults

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60
Q

which TWO of the following marine foods is highest in omega-3 fatty acids per 3-ounce serving?

A
  1. Herring

5. Chinook Salmon

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61
Q

T/F: Women are more efficient in converting ALA into EPA and DHA compared to men.

A

TRUE

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62
Q

Which type of fish tend to have higher levels of environmental contaminants?

A

older, larger, predatory fish

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63
Q

Delivers dietary fatty acids from the intestine to extrahepatic (liver) cells via the action of lipoprotein lipase

A

Chylomicron (Kai-low-micron)

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64
Q

Which TWO categories of dietary fats lower LDL cholesterol and raise HDL cholesterol when they are consumed in place of carbohydrates?

A 
Monounsaturated fat (MUFA)
polyunsaturated fat (PUFA)
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65
Q

_____ _____ species can be formed during normal physiological processes

A

Reactive oxygen

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66
Q

Which antioxidant is most effective in rapidly eliminating hydroxyl radicals prior to initiation of oxidative damage?

A

Vit C

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67
Q

Which antioxidant is most effective in terminating chain-propagation reactions in cell membranes?

A

Vit E

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68
Q

Which TWO of the following are reactive oxygen species, but do not fit the definition of a free radical?

A
  1. Hydrogen or lipid peroxide

2. Singlet oxygen

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69
Q

Respiratory burst refers to the use of which reactive oxygen species by white blood cells to destroy foreign microbes?

A
  1. Superoxide
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70
Q

The following are sources of ____ ____ production in the human body?

  1. Tissue ischemia after injury
  2. Elimination of superoxide radicals
  3. Degradation of long-chain fatty acids
A

hydrogen peroxide

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71
Q

The Fenton reaction involves the production of hydroxyl radical by the interaction of hydrogen peroxide with ____.

A

Iron

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72
Q

Which reactive species is considered a major initiator of lipid peroxidation in the body?

A
  1. Hydroxyl radical
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73
Q

Which reactive lipid species is the result of a propagation reaction between oxygen and lipid carbon-centered radicals?

A
  1. Lipid Peroxyl radicals
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74
Q

Which THREE of the following minerals are necessary to the optimal performance of superoxide dismutase (SOD) in human tissues?

A

Zn, Mg, Cu

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75
Q

T/F: The reactive species scavenging function of vitamin C is limited to reducing radical species, it does not scavenge non-radical species.

A

FALSE

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76
Q

What mineral is essential to the function of glutathione peroxidase?

A

Sel

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77
Q

What is the role of glutathione in the reaction between glutathione peroxidase and various peroxide species?

A
  1. Hydrogen donor (reducing agent)
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78
Q

Which reactive species is referred to as an “electronically excited” molecule, and is inactivated by a process called “quenching”?

A

Singlet Oxygen

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79
Q

Which B-vitamin functions as a coenzyme to regenerate oxidized glutathione?

A

Niacin (B3)

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80
Q

Natural and synthetic Vitamin ___ are chemically identical and there’s no known difference in their biological activities and availability

A

Vit C

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81
Q

Which of the following is the source of hydrogen atoms for the regeneration of ascorbic acid from dehydroascorbate?

A

Glutathione

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82
Q

Which of the following enzymes is required for the synthesis of vitamin C and not present in human biochemistry?

A

Gulonolactone oxidase

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83
Q

Which reaction is typical of the kind catalyzed by vitamin C?

A

Hydroxylation

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84
Q

Which of the following foods is NOT a good source of vitamin C?

  1. Broccoli
  2. Green pepper
  3. Brussels sprouts
  4. Carrots
A
  1. Carrots
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85
Q

Based on data from the National Institutes of Health on plasma and tissue saturation, what level of daily vitamin C intake is suggested by the Linus Pauling Institute as a practical recommendation?

A

400 mg

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86
Q

Name 4 functions of vitamin C in human biology?

A
  1. Norepinephrine synthesis
  2. Collagen synthesis
  3. Carnitine synthesis
  4. Serotonin synthesis
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87
Q

Which TWO minerals can be reduced by ascorbate, leading to increased capacity for generation of reactive oxygen species?

A
  1. Iron

5. Copper

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88
Q

An intervention trial found that large doses of vitamin C reduced blood levels of which toxic metal?

A

Lead

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89
Q

According to the LPI article “The Bioavailability of Different Forms of Vitamin C,” which of the following statements is FALSE?

  1. Mineral salts of ascorbic acid (mineral ascorbates) are buffered and therefore less acidic
  2. Bioavailability of ascorbic acid from slow-release preparations has not been found to be greater than that of plain ascorbic acid
  3. Published human research finds superior bioavailability of Ester-C compared to a standard ascorbic acid supplement
  4. The bioavailability of ascorbic acid appears equivalent whether it is in the form of powder, chewable tablets, or non-chewable tablets.
A
  1. Published human research finds superior bioavailability of Ester-C compared to a standard ascorbic acid supplement
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90
Q

The Tolerable Upper Intake Level for vitamin C was set to help reduce the risk of what side effect of vitamin C supplementation?

A
  1. Gastrointestinal upset and diarrhea
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91
Q

Match the substance with the most appropriate storage characteristic.
Retinol, Carotenoids, Tocopherol

Primarily stored in the liver
Primarily stored in muscle
Primarily stored in adipose tissue

A

Carotenoids - Primarily stored in adipose tissue
Retinol - liver
Tocopherol - adipose tissue

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92
Q

Match the characteristics with the most appropriate substance.

Retinol, B-Carotine, Tocopherol

  1. Most essential for differentiation of epithelial cells
  2. Effective for inhibiting both LDL oxidation AND blood clot formation
  3. Effective for both free radical quenching AND inhibiting neoplastic transformation
A
  1. Retinol
  2. Tocopherol
  3. B-carotine
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93
Q

Which nutrient deficincy causes:

  • Keratinization
  • Xeropthalmia
  • Night blindness
A

Vitamin A

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94
Q

Where is the primary site for conversion of provitamin A to vitamin A in the human body?

A

Intestinal mucosa

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95
Q

Three of the following digestive steps are required for normal absorption of vitamin A to occur in the gastrointestinal tract.

A
  1. Protein hydrolysis
  2. De-esterification
  3. Micelle formation
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96
Q

What 4 substances belong to the family of carotenoids?

A
  1. Lutein
  2. Canthaxanthin
  3. Lycopene
  4. Alpha-carotene
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97
Q

What is the form of vitamin A attached to the protein opsin in a molecule of rhodopsin?

A
  1. 11-cis retinal
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98
Q

T/F: Vitamin A in the form of retinoic acid supports the development of cells by influencing gene expression.

A

TRUE

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99
Q

Why is retinoic acid considered a hormone?

A
  1. It has receptors on the nucleus and causes a change in protein synthesis.
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100
Q

What is the most likely mechanism for the effect of vitamin A on the growth of epithelial tissue?

A
  1. Increases numbers of receptors for growth factors
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101
Q

Which mineral deficiency interferes with vitamin A metabolism?

A

Zinc

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102
Q

What two conditions is plasma retinol a good reflection of vitamin A status?

A
  1. Stores of vitamin A are exhausted

2. Stores of vitamin A are filled to capacity

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103
Q

For which group are large doses of beta-carotene not likely to be safe?

A

Smokers

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104
Q

The upper limit for a safe amount of vitamin A has been suggested to be 3000 micrograms per day. How much would this be in International Units?

A

10,000 IU

Vitamin A: 1 IU is the biological equivalent of 0.3 mcg retinol, or of 0.6 mcg beta-carotene.

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105
Q

What are 4 signs of vitamin A toxicity?

A
  1. Headache
  2. Liver damage
  3. Skin irritations
  4. Bone pain
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106
Q

How many vitamers of vitamin E are there?

A

8 vitamers, including tocopherols and tocotienols

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107
Q

Alpha-tocopherol has the greatest vitamin E activity in the human body due to a selective preference for this specific vitamer in what part of vitamin E processing?

A

Hepatic cell production of VLDL

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108
Q

Which of the following foods is the richest source of dietary alpha-tocopherol?

  1. Peanuts, one ounce
  2. Soybean oil, 1 tablespoon
  3. Spinach, 1 cup raw
  4. Almonds, one ounce
  5. Sunflower oil, 1 tablespoon
A
  1. Almonds, one ounce
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109
Q

The latest RDA for vitamin E is expressed in milligrams of RRR-alpha-tocopherol, but most people are more familiar with the older International Units of measurement. What is the adult RDA for vitamin E in International Units if the value is 15 mg of RRR-alpha-tocopherol?

A

22.38 IU

Vitamin E: 1 IU is the biological equivalent of 0.67 mg d-alpha-tocopherol, or 0.9 mg of dl-alpha-tocopherol.

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110
Q

Tocopherol is distributed to the tissues through receptor-mediated uptake of which lipoprotein?

A

LDL

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111
Q

Regeneration of oxidized vitamin E requires three of the following cofactors

A
  1. NADPH
  2. Reduced glutathione
  3. Vitamin C
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112
Q

The Tolerable Upper Intake Level was set for vitamin E to prevent _____________.

A

Increased tendency for bleeding

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113
Q

Match the vitamin with the correct enzyme or coenzyme function. (Riboflavin, Biotin, Thiamin, Niacin, Pantothenic acid)

  1. Carboxylases
  2. Acyl carrier protein
  3. TPP
  4. NADP/NADPH
  5. FMN/FMNH2
A
  1. Carboxylases - Biotin
  2. Acyl carrier protein- Pantothenic acid
  3. TPP - Thiamin
  4. NADP/NADPH- Niacin
  5. FMN/FMNH2- Riboflavin
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114
Q

A thiamin deficiency disorder usually associated with alcoholism is known as ____________.

A

Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

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115
Q

The essential roles of thiamine in the body include: (3)

A
  1. Energy transformation
  2. Synthesis of pentoses and NADPH
  3. Membrane and nerve conduction
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116
Q

What is the best, common, source of riboflavin?

A

Milk and milk products

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117
Q

Name 3 roles of flavoproteins in intermediary metabolism?

A
  1. Synthesis of an active form of folate
  2. Coenzyme for an oxidase
  3. Glutathione reduction
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118
Q

Name 3 roles of NADPH?

A
  1. Cholesterol and steroid hormone synthesis
  2. Synthesis of precursors of DNA
  3. Oxidation of glutamate
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119
Q

Which amino acid is a precursor to niacin?

A

Tryptophan

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120
Q

Side effects arising from using niacin in therapeutic amounts may include (5)

A
  1. Headaches
  2. Increased uric acid levels
  3. Liver injury
  4. Elevated plasma glucose
  5. Heartburn
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121
Q

T/F: Large doses of vitamin B3 as nicotinamide (niacinamide) do not possess the hypocholesterolemic effects of nicotinic acid (niacin), but also do not appear to have as high a potential for toxicity.

A

TRUE

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122
Q

Synthesis of coenzyme A starts with the phosphorylation of which vitamin?

A

Pantothenoic acid (B5)

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123
Q

What glycoprotein found in raw egg whites may prevent biotin absorption?

A
  1. Avidin
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124
Q

What disease or condition results from an absence or insufficient activity of the branched-chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase enzyme complex?

A

Maple Syrup Urine Disease

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125
Q

T/F: Subclinical biotin deficiency may develop in some pregnant women.

A

TRUE

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126
Q

Match the B-vitamin or its derivative with the therapeutic use shown effective in some human studies.(Biotin, Riboflavin, Pantethine)

  1. Blood cholesterol lowering
  2. Blood sugar lowering
  3. Migraine headache prevention
A

Pantethine (B5)
Biotin (B7)
Riboflavin (B2)

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127
Q

The activity of erythrocyte glutathione reductase is useful for assessing the adequacy of which vitamin?

A

Riboflavin (B2/FAD)

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128
Q

The activity of erythrocyte transketolase is useful for assessing the adequacy of which vitamin?

A

Thiamine (B1)

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129
Q

Acetyl CoA carboxylase depends on which B vitamin to begin fatty acid synthesis?

A

Biotin (B7)

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130
Q

Which vitamins use the AI recommendation for adult recommendations because there is insufficient available data to establish an RDA?

A
  1. Biotin (B7)

4. Panthothenate (B5)

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131
Q

Excretion of fluorescent orange yellow urine follows oral ingestion of which vitamin?

A

Riboflavin (B2)

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132
Q

The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex depends which 4 of the following vitamins for its function?

A

B1- Thiamine
B2- Riboflavin
B3- Niacin
B5- Pantethenate

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133
Q

Megaloblastic anemia is associated with a deficiency of which micronutrient(s)?

A

B12 and Folic Acid

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134
Q

Microcytic anemia is associated with a deficiency of which micronutrient(s)?

A

B6 (PLP, pyridoxine)

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135
Q

a potential toxic effect of excess pyridoxine?

A

Peripheral sensory neuropathy

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136
Q

Xanthurenic acid excretion following ___________ loading is a functional test used for B6.

A

Tryptophan

137
Q

Name 3 reactions involving the coenzyme form of B6 (PLP)?

A
  1. Serine synthesis
  2. Synthesis of heme
  3. Formation of GABA from glutamate
138
Q

The normal digestion and absorption of cobalamin requires adequate ______ digestion in the stomach; the presence of 2 non-enzymatic proteins: _____; and a receptor located in the _____.

A

Protein
R protein and intrinsic factor
ileum

139
Q

Cobalt is a component of which vitamin?

A

vitamin B12

140
Q

The primary site for storage of vitamin B12 in the body is ____________.

A

liver

141
Q

Oral supplementation is an option for the treatment of ____ anemia.

A

pernicious

142
Q

What vitamin deficiency can result in a tissue deficiency of active folate?

A

Vit B12

143
Q

Folate is vitally important for dividing cells during growth and cancer because of its essential role in the synthesis of _____.

A

purines and pyrimidines

144
Q

Active folate participates in the synthesis of which pyrimidine base?

A

Thymine

145
Q

In the enzyme methionine synthase, vitamin B12 acts by accepting a _____ group from _____ and donating this group to _____ to form methionine.

A

methyl
5MTHF
Homocysteine

146
Q

A deficiency of B12 and/or folate can be determined by what kind of test?

A

Deoxyuridine suppression test

147
Q

Which vitamin appears to be able to diminish the actions of steroid hormones by interfering with receptor binding?

A
  1. Vit B6
148
Q

The metabolism of amino acids involving formaldehyde transfer all depend on the involvement of what vitamin?

A

Folic Acid

149
Q

Which of the following is TRUE?

  1. Excess vitamin B6 can mask a B12 deficiency
  2. Excess vitamin B12 can mask a folic acid deficiency
  3. Excess folic acid can mask a B12 deficiency
  4. Excess vitamin B12 can mask a B6 deficiency
A
  1. Excess folic acid can mask a B12 deficiency
150
Q

Which vitamin is more easily absorbed from supplements because the food form contains glutamic acid residues that must be removed by the digestive process?

A

Folic Acid

151
Q

Which cofactors/vitamins are involved in one of the pathways of homocysteine metabolism?

A

Betaine
Folic Acid
B12

152
Q

Prevention of birth defects with folic acid is best accomplished by starting supplementation when?

A

Before conception (3 months)

153
Q

Prevention of cancer with optimal folate nutrition appears most promising for cancer in which tissue?

A
  1. Colorectum
154
Q

Which one of the following groups does NOT have a higher risk B12 deficiency?

  1. People regularly exposed to nitrous oxide gas
  2. People using gastric acid-reducing drugs long-term
  3. People with gallbladder disease
  4. People with atrophic gastritis
  5. People over 50 years of age
  6. People with impaired pancreatic exocrine function
A
  1. People with gallbladder disease
155
Q

Which of the following is FALSE?

  1. Fortification of food with folic acid is mandated by law, but not fortification of B6 or B12.
  2. Pellagra symptoms may appear during B6 deficiency, because this vitamin is required in the process of obtaining niacin from tryptophan.
  3. The Tolerable Upper Intake level for folic acid is based on evidence of increased cancer risk.
  4. Low-dose oral contraceptives currently in use are as likely to interfere with folic acid nutrition were older, high-dose oral contraceptives.
A
  1. Low-dose oral contraceptives currently in use are as likely to interfere with folic acid nutrition were older, high-dose oral contraceptives.
156
Q

What is the criteria for a genetic difference to be called a polymorphism?

A

> 1% of the population has it

157
Q

A genetic polymorphism that decreases the activity of N5,N10 methylene tetrahydrofolate reductase has been identified. This would cause _____.

A

Increased homocycteine concentrations

158
Q

All except one of the following foods may be high in vitamin D because they are often fortified? Which one is least likely to be fortified?

breads
milk products
margarine 
fish products 
breakfast cereals
A

Fish products

159
Q

Which two organs are essential for the normal hydroxylations that convert cholecalciferol into systemically-active vitamin D hormone?

A

Liver and kidney

160
Q

The primary function of vitamin D is to regulate absorption and metabolism of which 2 minerals?

A

Calcium and Phosphorus

161
Q

Place the phrases below in order to explain the response of the body to a decline in serum ____ levels.

  1. Increased release of PTH
  2. Increased synthesis of 1,25-(OH)2 D3
  3. Increased synthesis of calbindin
  4. Increased calcium absorption
A

calcium

162
Q

What are 3 functions of calcitriol in the intestine?

A
  1. synthesis of calbindin
  2. modulation of gene expression
  3. induction of changes in brush border composition
163
Q

What are 3 risk factors is associated with a vitamin D deficiency?

A
  1. Aging
  2. Crohn’s disease
  3. Kidney disorders
164
Q

What are 3 characteristics of rickets?

A
  1. Curved spine
  2. Bowed legs
  3. Thoracic deformities
165
Q

What disorder is associated with insufficient serum calcium and phosphorus, and leads to defective bone mineralization with preservation of bone matrix?

A

Osteomalacia

166
Q

T/F: Overexposure to ultraviolet radiation can result in excessive production of vitamin D in the body.

A

FALSE

167
Q

Dosages in excess of 10,000 IU/day of vitamin D for several months can result in which TWO events?

A
  1. hypercalcemia

2. nephrolithiasis (The process of forming a kidney stone)

168
Q

Choose the TWO answers that represent the values set by the 2010 RDA (not the 1997 DRI for Adequate Intake) for vitamin D.

  1. 20 mcg for adults over 70
  2. 15 mcg for all adults over 70
  3. 15 mcg for adults under age 71 and children over age 1
  4. 5 mcg for adults under age 51
  5. 10 mcg for adults between 51 and 70
A
  1. 20 mcg for adults over 70
  2. 15 mcg for adults under 70 and children over age 1

1 IU is the biological equivalent of 0.025mcg cholecalciferol or ergocalciferol.

169
Q

In assessing the vitamin D status of an individual, which measure would you use?

A

circulating 25-OH cholecalciferol

170
Q

Regarding vitamin K sources, which of the following is NOT true?

  1. Menaquinones are synthesized by intestinal bacteria
  2. Dietary vitamin K is primarily menaquinones
  3. Menaquinones are found in animal foods
  4. Menadione is not found in nature
  5. Phylloquinone is found in plant foods
A
  1. Dietary vitamin K is primarily menaquinones
171
Q

For what type of enzyme does vitamin K act as a cofactor?

A

carboxylase

172
Q

Vitamin-K dependent modification of proteins such as the clotting factors affects the binding of which mineral ion by those proteins?

A

calcium ions

173
Q

Which TWO names refer to anticoagulants that antagonize vitamin K action?

A

Warfarin and Coumadin

174
Q

Which TWO proteins depend upon vitamin K for their production?

A

osteocalcin

matrix Gla protein

175
Q

Compared to the Adequate Intake (AI) set for vitamin K, how much dietary vitamin K intake was associated with reduced hip fracture in the Framingham Heart Study?

A

About twice the AI for adult males

176
Q

What role is vitamin K most likely to play in the health of soft tissue structures?

A

prevention of calcification

177
Q

Name four groups associated with an increased risk for a vitamin K deficiency?

A
  1. fat malabsorption disorders
  2. chronic antibiotic treatment
  3. newborn infants
  4. liver damage or disease
178
Q

What blood disorders is associated with vitamin K deficiency?

A

hemorrhagic disease

179
Q

T/F: None of the forms of vitamin K have toxic potential.

A

FALSE

180
Q

Which one of the following methods for determining vitamin K status is most likely to reflect recent intake rather than tissue status?

A

plasma phylloquinone

181
Q

Match the following characteristics with the appropriate mineral. (Calcium, Magnesium, Phosphorus)

  1. Biological roles include promotion of blood clotting
  2. NOT a component of hydroxyapatite in bone
  3. Binds phosphate groups in ATP and ATP-dependent enzyme reactions
  4. An important acid-base buffer in cells and the renal system
A

Calcium
Magnesium
Magnesium
Phosphorus

182
Q

Match the following characteristics with the appropriate mineral. - Calcium, Magnesium, Phosphorus

  1. Inadequate intake associated with hypertension, colon cancer, diabetes, and obesity
  2. Inadequate intake associated with cardiac dysrhythmias and hypertension
  3. Over ingestion may cause diarrhea
  4. Over ingestion has been linked to risk of prostate cancer
  5. Overuse of antacids, but not proton pump inhibitors, is a documented cause of deficiency
A
  1. Calcium
  2. Magnesium
  3. Magnesium
  4. Calcium
  5. Phosphorus
183
Q

Match the following characteristics with the appropriate mineral: Calcium, Phosphorus, Magnesium

  1. Dietary sources include soft drinks
  2. Increased renal losses when urine is acidic
  3. Component of chlorophyll in green leafy vegetables
A

Phsophorus
Calcium
Magnesium

184
Q

Which of the following is the most concentrated form of calcium?

A
  1. carbonate
185
Q

T/F:Calcium absorption in adults is typically less than 50%, whether from food or supplements.

A

TRUE

186
Q

The binding protein that regulates many of the calcium-dependent enzymes is ___________

A

Calmadulin

187
Q

Which of the following has the least absorb-able calcium in a typical serving?

  1. Milk
  2. Spinach
  3. Tofu set with calcium
  4. Kale
A
  1. Spinach
188
Q

What is found in bran and legumes and will, in large amounts, have a detrimental effect upon absorption of minerals such as calcium?

A

Phytate/Phytic acid

189
Q

_______ supplements can inhibit the absorption of iron, but the effect is likely temporary

A

Calcium

190
Q

Which of the following is the most reliable method for measuring calcium status?

A
  1. bone mass measurements
191
Q

When in the lifecycle does the attainment of peak bone mass typically occur?

A

young adulthood

192
Q

What is the most frequent site of fracture due to osteoporosis?

A

hip

193
Q

Phosphate balance is achieved largely by _____.

A

Renal excretion

194
Q

T/F: An extra 2.3 grams of daily sodium intake appears to have a more significant effect on urinary calcium excretion than does an extra 300-400 mg of caffeine intake.

A

TRUE

195
Q

T/F: A diet high in fruits and vegetables may help prevent bone loss and osteoporosis by increasing the dietary acid load.

A

FALSE

196
Q

Which mineral participates in more than 300 enzyme systems?

A

Magnesium

197
Q

T/F: In muscle contraction, the roles of calcium and magnesium are antagonistic, with magnesium promoting contraction and calcium being the inhibitor.

A

FALSE
In muscle contraction, the roles of calcium and magnesium are antagonistic, with Calcium promoting the process and magnesium being the inhibitor

198
Q

what mineral?

  1. Intracellular and serum levels are rigidly maintained.
  2. in cells is associated with phospholipids and proteins.
  3. About half is in the body is associated with the bones.
A

magnesium

199
Q

What mineral?

  1. can compete with calcium to bind sites on smooth muscle, thus inhibiting contraction
  2. can compete with calcium for reabsorption by the kidney
  3. can decrease calcium flux across cell membranes
A

Magnesium

200
Q

T/F: Supplementation with large amounts of magnesium may lead to adverse effects when impaired kidney function exists.

A

TRUE

201
Q

Which 2 organs are responsible for regulation of extracellular water osmolarity and volume?

A

hypothalamus and kidney

202
Q

Which hormone, stimulated by increased blood pressure stretching the heart, functions to inhibit sodium reabsorption to promote sodium excretion?

A

Atrial natriuretic peptide

203
Q

A clinically useful parameter in establishing metabolic disorders that can alter electrolyte balance is:

A
  1. anion gap

( is the difference between primary measured cations (sodium Na+ and potassium K+) and the primary measured anions (chloride Cl- and bicarbonate HCO3-) in serum)

204
Q

Sodium X ? = Salt

The salt intake of an individual whose dietary sodium intake is 2000 mg per day is:

A

5000 mg

? = 2.5

205
Q

What percentage of total sodium intake is contributed by salt added during cooking and at the table?

A

15%

206
Q

What percentage of total sodium intake is contributed by salt added to processed foods?

A

75%

207
Q

A food may be labeled “low sodium” if each serving provides less than _______ per serving.

A

140mg

208
Q

T/F:Less than 85% of either ingested sodium or ingested potassium is absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract.

A

FALSE

25-35 grams of sodium are absorbed in the intestines per day (includes 5g from diet and 20-30g secreted).

209
Q

T/F: Gastrointestinal absorption of sodium is dependent upon a single biological pathway.

A

FALSE

210
Q

While all of the following affect blood volume and blood pressure, one of them is not part of a specific coordinated system of biochemical interactions. Which one?

  1. Renin
  2. Aldosterone
  3. Anti-diuretic hormone
  4. Angiotensin
A
  1. Anti-diuretic hormone
211
Q

T/F: Aldosterone promotes the excretion of sodium and reabsorption of potassium.

A

False

conservation of sodium, secretion of potassium, increase in water retention

212
Q

Name 4 conditions suspected to increase the risk of gastric cancer?

A
  1. Chronic infection with Helicobacter pylori
  2. High intake of salted foods
  3. Low intake of fruits and vegetables
  4. High intake of nitrosamines
213
Q

Chloride contributes significantly to which of the following functions?

  1. protein synthesis
  2. muscle contraction
  3. gastric acidity
  4. wound healing
A
  1. gastric acidity
214
Q

In terms of physiological function, acid-base balance refers to:

A
  1. the control of the hydrogen ion concentration in body fluids
215
Q

Which of the physiological buffers has the most potent buffering capacity?

A
  1. protein
216
Q

Hypokalemia may occur as the result of which of the following?

A
  1. prolonged diarrhea
217
Q

T/F: Potassium decreases urinary calcium excretion while sodium increases it.

A

TRUE

218
Q

T/F: A high potassium diet may decrease the risk of kidney stones by increasing the dietary acid load.

A

FALSE

219
Q

Name four macrominerals associated with the control of blood pressure?

A
  1. Sodium
  2. Calcium
  3. Chloride
  4. Magnesium
220
Q

research has shown that supplements of which mineral are associated with significant reductions in both systolic and diastolic blood pressure, especially in individuals with hypertension?

A

potassium

221
Q

T/F: All hypertensive individuals experience a rise in blood pressure with higher salt intake.

A

FALSE

222
Q

T/F: Hypertensive individuals taking antihypertensive medications are likely to benefit from sodium restriction.

A

TRUE

223
Q

What is the most important physiological defense against overheating?

A

evaporation

224
Q

Name 4 macrominerals is typically present in sweat?

A
  1. Chloride
  2. Magnesium
  3. Potassium
  4. Sodium
225
Q

Which of the following is an emerging concern in situations of very long endurance exercise events?

A

Hyponatremia

226
Q

Dehydration equivalent to what percentage of body weight can impair endurance performance?

A

2%

227
Q

Which of the following foods contain the least amount of iron?

Green leafy veggies such as spinach
Organ meats such as liver
Dairy products such as cheese
Dried fruit such as raisins
Bivalves such as oysters
A
  1. Dairy products
228
Q

Which 3 iron form(s) are used for food fortification?

A

Elemental iron, ferrous, ferric

229
Q

Which vitamin specifically promotes gastrointestinal iron absorption?

A

Vit C

230
Q

Indicate the two beverages containing polyphenols and/or oxalates that most strongly inhibit iron absorption.

A

Coffee and Tea

231
Q

What is the function of a chelator in iron nutrition?

A

Enhance or inhibit absorption or bound non-heme iron

232
Q

true or false: hepcidin is produced by the liver when iron stores are high and released to the blood to act at the surface of enterocytes and macrophages.

A

true?

hepcidin

233
Q

Which mineral is critical for oxidizing iron to be bound by transferrin for delivery to the tissues from the gut and liver?

A

Copper

234
Q

name 4 enzymatic processes that require iron?

A
  1. Glycolysis
  2. Carnitine synthesis
  3. Gluconeogenesis
  4. Conversion of hydrogen peroxide to water
235
Q

Name 4 functions of a heme-containing compound or enzyme?

A
  1. Protection against cellular accumulation of the reactive oxygen species hydrogen peroxide
  2. Detoxification of drugs and pollutants
  3. Electron transport in mitochondria
236
Q

3 vitamins/minerals required for heme synthesis:

A

B6, Zn, Fe

237
Q

4 groups considered at high risk for iron deficiency compared to the others?

A
  1. Adolescents during growth spurts
  2. Menstruating females
  3. Pregnant women
  4. Infants and children under 4 years of age
238
Q

Indicate the three correct statements regarding hereditary hemochromatosis. (3)

A
  1. Begins around 20 years of age
  2. Seen most often in adult Caucasians
  3. Associated with tissue damage
239
Q

Which of the following is false?

  1. Overall absorption of iron from the US diet is estimated to be over 20%.
  2. In a recent study of an elderly population, high iron stores were much more common than was iron deficiency.
  3. Absorption of iron in normal individuals is regulated in relation to body iron stores.
  4. Heme iron occurs naturally only in foods of animal origin.
  5. A supplement containing 100% of the Daily Value for iron supplies well above the RDA for men and most postmenopausal women.
A
  1. Overall absorption of iron from the US diet is estimated to be over 20%.
240
Q

All of the following tend to increase as iron depletion becomes more severe in an otherwise healthy individual? (4)

A
  1. Erythrocyte protoporphyrin
  2. Transferrin iron-binding capacity
  3. Serum transferrin receptors
  4. Gastrointestinal iron absorption
241
Q

Which two of the following are the most common initial blood measurements used for the assessment of iron nutriture?

A

hematocrit and hemoglobin

242
Q

Indicate the two erythrocyte characteristics associated with iron-deficiency anemia.

A

hypochromic and microcytic

243
Q

Which 3 of the following foods are the best sources of zinc?

A
  1. Red meat
  2. Seafood
  3. Leafy vegetables
244
Q

Which 3 of the following foods are the best sources of copper?

A
  1. Dried fruit
  2. Nuts
  3. Shellfish
245
Q

Phytate and oxalate inhibit zinc absorption by providing binding sites in the form of ____________.

A

Oxygen

246
Q

Inhibition of zinc absorption by phytate can be reduced by what process?

A
  1. Fermentation
247
Q

T/F: High intake of vitamin C increases the absorption of copper.

A

FALSE (it increases iron)

248
Q

T/F: Thionein polypeptides produced in response to zinc intake, have a higher affinity for copper than for zinc itself.

A

TRUE

249
Q

the following are functions of _____

Facilitates liver storage of zinc and copper
Intracellular binding ligand for copper
Intracellular binding ligand for zinc
Impairs absorption of excessive dietary copper
Scavenges superoxide and hydroxyl radicals

A

metallothionein.

250
Q

function of _____ (a protein made in the liver).

Antioxidant
Oxidative enzyme
Copper transporter

A

ceruloplasmin

251
Q

T/F: Zinc and copper are equally important for the activity of cytosol superoxide dismutase (SOD).

A

False

Cu regulates functional expression

252
Q

T/F: Growth delays attributable to zinc insufficiency have only been documented in developing countries.

A

FALSE

253
Q

T/F: In general, shellfish and red or dark meats are more reliable sources of zinc than are foods of plant origin.

A

TRUE

254
Q

According to the LPI Zinc article, which of the following is the most correct statement?

  1. Intranasal zinc has been found beneficial against the common cold in most studies, but has some evidence of causing harm
  2. Intranasal zinc has been found not beneficial against the common cold in most studies, but has no evidence of causing harm
  3. Intranasal zinc has been found not beneficial against the common cold in most studies, and has some evidence of causing harm
  4. Intranasal zinc has been found beneficial against the common cold in most studies, and has no evidence of causing harm
A

3.Intranasal zinc has been found not beneficial against the common cold in most studies, and has some evidence of causing harm

255
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

  1. Both organic and inorganic forms of selenium are present in food
  2. Selenium-dependent deiodinases may either activate thyroid hormone or may deactivate it.
  3. Phytic acid appears to inhibit absorption of both chromium and selenium
  4. All forms of glutathione peroxidase are selenium-dependent.
  5. Animal products are generally considered better sources of selenium than plant products.
A
  1. All forms of glutathione peroxidase are selenium-dependent.
256
Q

Which form of 1) organic and 2) inorganic selenium is best absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract?

A

selenomethionine

selenate

257
Q

Which selenium-containing molecule is thought to participate in the regeneration of several antioxidant systems, possibly including vitamin C?

A

Thioredoxin reductase

258
Q

Match the statements with the appropriate disease(s).

Keshan disease, Keshan disease, Both Keshan and Kashin-Beck disease

Associated with regional selenium deficiency in China
Symptoms include cardiomyopathy
Symptoms include degeneration of joints and cartilage
Selenium deficiency is not likely the only causative factor

A

Both Keshan and Kashin-Beck disease
Keshan disease

Kashin-Beck disease

Both Keshan and Kashin-Beck disease

259
Q

According to the LPI article, which method was used to establish recommendations for selenium intake in the U.S.?

  1. Balance studies of selenium intake and excretion
  2. Minimum intake required to prevent deficiency symptoms
  3. Repletion studies of selenium-deficient men
  4. Amount required to maximize plasma glutathione peroxidase activity
A
  1. Amount required to maximize plasma glutathione peroxidase activity
260
Q

What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level set for safe selenium intake?

A

400 mcg

261
Q

T or F: Toanail Se and plasma glutathione peroxidase activity are two unique approaches used to assess selenium status, but seldom used to assess the status of other nutrients.

A

TRUE

262
Q

Which population group appears most at risk for inadequate chromium intake or low tissue levels?

A

Elderly

263
Q

Match the statements with the appropriate trace mineral. Chromium, Selenium

  1. Substitutes for sulfur in amino acids
  2. Trivalent form is most important in humans
  3. High content in natural brewers yeast
  4. Transported in the blood bound to transferrin
A

Selenium
Chromium
Chromium
Chromium

264
Q

The following are proposed mechanisms for the function of______ in glucose tolerance?

  1. Increase glucose uptake into cells
  2. Increase pancreatic insulin secretion
  3. Regulate insulin receptor function
A

chromium

265
Q

proposed influence of _____ in the body?

  1. Insulin potentiation
  2. Gene expression
  3. RNA synthesis
A

chromium

266
Q

Which vitamin enhances chromium absorption?

A

Vit C

267
Q

Consumption of diets high in ________ increases urinary chromium losses in contrast to diets that are high in ________.

A

simple sugars

complex carbs

268
Q

A mild chromium deficiency shares all of the following characteristics of the insulin resistance syndrome (Syndrome X, Metabolic Syndrome) (3)

A
  1. Hyperinsulinemia
  2. Insulin resistance
  3. Elevated plasma glucose
269
Q

Which method was used to establish recommendations for chromium intake in the U.S.?

A

Chromium intake in normal diet

270
Q

What is a serious adverse reaction reported in some individuals taking large amounts of chromium picolinate?

A

Kidney failure

271
Q

How many atoms of iodine are found on the most physiologically-active form of thyroid hormone?

A

three (T3)

272
Q

T/F:While cretinism specifically refers to the consequences of maternal iodine deficiency, the severe neurological symptoms of cretinism appear only in the infant, not the mother.

A

TRUE

273
Q

Indicate all of the following that are classified as goitrogens (2)

A
  1. Cabbage family vegetables

3. Lithium

274
Q

Iodine is added to what dietary component in order to help prevent iodine deficiency?

A

Salt

275
Q

T/F: Excessive supplementation with iodine can result in hypothyroidism.

A

TRUE

276
Q

3 sources of fluoride?

A
  1. Seafood
  2. Grain products
  3. Tea
277
Q

Which categories of food provide the most nickel?

A
  1. Nuts, legumes, grains
278
Q

Which of the following groups of foods are richest in boron, providing 1.0 to 4.5 mg/100 g?

A
  1. raisins, legumes, nuts, and avocados
279
Q

The richest dietary sources of vanadium are _____.

A

2.cereal and grain products

280
Q

What foods are rich sources of silicon?

A
  1. whole grains and root vegetables
281
Q

Which of the following can be considered essential for normal function of brain, bone, and liver?

A
  1. Manganese
282
Q

Match the micronutrients with the appropriate biological function. Arsenic, Molybdenum, Silicon, Vanadium

  1. Metabolism of some amino acids
  2. Collagen formation
  3. Mimicks insulin
  4. Sulfite metabolism
A

Arsenic
Silicon
Vanadum
Molybdnum

283
Q

Match the trace elements with the biomolecules they are either functionally or therapeutically associated with: Arsenic, Cobalt, Flouride, Manganese

  1. Glycosaminoglycans
  2. Hydroxyapatite
  3. Vitamin B12
  4. S-adenosylmethionine
A

Manganese
Fluoride
Cobalt
Arsenic

284
Q

Which micromineral serves as a cofactor for xanthine oxidase in the metabolism of purines, pyrimidines, and pteridines?

A

Molybdenum

285
Q

Which trace element competes with iron for intestinal absorption on divalent mineral transporter 1 (DMT1)?

A

Nickle

286
Q

For which TWO minerals may nickel be an effective (not an antagonistic) substitute in some enzyme systems?

A

Zinc and Magnesium

287
Q

Which method was used to establish Adequate Intake recommendations for manganese?

A
  1. Median manganese intake in typical American diets
288
Q

A dietary supplement containing manganese at levels over twice the adult UL was shown in two studies to be effective for treating _______________. However, it is impossible to say whether manganese itself was responsible for any of this effectiveness.

A

Osteoarthritis

289
Q

T/F: inorganic forms of arsenic are more toxic than are organic forms of the element.

A

TRUE

290
Q

T/F: Chronic exposure to excessive arsenic could be detected reliably with hair analysis.

A

TRUE

291
Q

Boron is associated with which of the following functions?

A
  1. bone development and mediation of the inflammatory response
292
Q

Which mineral may substitute for magnesium in the complement system?

A

Nickle

293
Q

Concern exists over the amount of manganese in some supplements due to the possibility of toxic reactions in which body system?

A

Neurological

294
Q

Bluish skin and nails that result from ingestion of silver over a period of time are called _____.

A

Argryia

295
Q

name the n-based structural notation: gamma-linolenic acid

A

18:3 n-6

296
Q

name the n-based structural notation: arachidonic acid

A

20:4 n-6

297
Q

name the n-based structural notation: alpha-linolenic acid

A

18:3 n-3

298
Q

name the n-based structural notation: eicosapentaenoic acid

A

20:5 n-3

299
Q

Delivers fatty acids produced in the liver from carbohydrate, amino acid or fat precursors to extrahepatic cells via the action of lipoprotein lipase

A

VLDL

300
Q

Delivers cholesterol to extrahepatic tissues by endocytosis of the entire lipoprotein particle

A

LDL

301
Q

Involved in reverse cholesterol transport

A

HDL

302
Q

B1

A

Thiamin

303
Q

(B3)

A

Niacin

304
Q

(B2)

A

Riboflavin

305
Q

(B7)

A

Biotin

306
Q

(B5)

A

Pantothenate

307
Q

B4

A

Adenine

308
Q

B6

A

pyridoxine

309
Q

B12

A

cobalamin

310
Q

Vitamin D2 present in some plants

A

ergocalciferol

311
Q

Fully activated form of vitamin D

A

calcitriol

312
Q

Vitamin D3 precursor present in skin

A

7-dehydrocholesterol

313
Q

Vitamin D3 produced in the skin

A

Cholecalciferol

314
Q

Most abundant form of vitamin D in the blood

A

calcidiol

315
Q

Most abundant cation found in extracellular fluid

A

sodium

316
Q

Most abundant cation found in intracellular fluid

A

potassium

317
Q

Most abundant anion found in extracellular fluid

A

chloride

318
Q

Increases relative to primary storage form when iron overload occurs

A

Hemosiderin

319
Q

Primary storage form of iron

A

Ferritin

320
Q

Oxygen transport in muscle

A

Myoglobin

321
Q

Oxygen transport from lungs to tissues

A

Hemoglobin

322
Q

Iron transport within the intestinal cell

A

Divalent Mineral Transporter 1

323
Q

Iron transport in serum

A

Transferrin

324
Q

what mineral?

  • Deficiency impairs taste sensation
  • Participates in more enzyme systems than any other trace mineral
  • Absorption facilitated by picolinic acid
A

Zinc

325
Q

what minerals?

  • Absorption facilitated by citric acid
  • Absorption dependent on gastric hydrochloric acid
A

Zn and Cu

326
Q

what mineral?

  • Mobilization of stores impaired by high iron intake
  • Blood concentrations rise during infection
  • Excessive accumulation in Wilson’s disease
  • Defective transport in Menkes syndrome
A

Copper

327
Q

Name: the trace element resulting from over ingestion: Gout

A

Moylobdenum

328
Q

Name: the trace element resulting from over ingestion: Mottled teeth

A

Fluoride

329
Q

Name: the trace element resulting from over ingestion: Kidney stones

A

Silicon

330
Q

Name: the trace element resulting from over ingestion: Green tongue

A

Vanadium

331
Q

Name: the trace element resulting from over ingestion: Blackfoot disease

A

Arsenic

332
Q

Match the following characteristics with the appropriate mineral: Overuse of antacids, but not proton pump inhibitors, is a documented cause of deficiency

Calcium
Magnesium
Phosphorus

A

Phosphorus

333
Q

Match the following characteristics with the appropriate mineral: Inadequate intake associated with cardiac dysrhythmias/hypertension and over ingestion may cause diarrhea

Calcium
Magnesium
Phosphorus

A

Magnesium

334
Q

Match the following characteristics with the appropriate mineral: Inadequate intake associated with hypertension, colon cancer, diabetes, and obesity -
over ingestion has been linked to risk of prostate cancer

Calcium
Magnesium
Phosphorus

A

Calcium

335
Q

Match the description with the primary oxidation state iron possesses in that situation: Ferric iron, or Ferrous iron.

immediately after release from food in the stomach
Stored iron
Iron transported in serum

A

Ferric

336
Q

Match the description with the primary oxidation state iron possesses in that situation: Ferric iron, or Ferrous iron.

Non-heme iron absorbed via DMT1 transporter

A

Ferrous

337
Q

viscous fiber is another name for

A

soluble

338
Q

Which nutrient deficiency is linked with:

  • Hemolytic anemia
  • Neuromuscular degeneration
A

Vitamin E

339
Q

Three sources of hydrogen peroxide production in humans

A
  • Tissue ischemia after injury
  • Elimination of superoxide radicals
  • Degradation of long-chain fatty acids

Comp Exam Nov (4 decks)

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