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Nursing Care 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

What organ clears the blood of alcohol, drugs and other harmful substances?
A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. Pancreas
D. Gallbladder

A

A. Liver

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2
Q

A medication prescription of 25 mg/kg/day TDS. The patient weighs 10 kg what is the correct amount for each dose?

A

83.3mg

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3
Q

A patient has just told you they had a fall earlier in the shift. What should you do first?
A. Report to the doctor straight away
B. Assess the patient for any injuries then monitor for the next 24 hours
C. Do neurological observations and if normal don’t do anything else
D. Document that they had a fall

A

A. Report to the doctor straight away

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4
Q

An alcoholic patient who was admitted is going through withdrawal and is shaking, nauseated and clammy. After taking their vital signs, what is your next step?
A. Report to the physician straight away
B. Start the alcohol withdrawal scope
C. If vital signs are ok do nothing
D. Administer IVF

A

A. Report to the physician straight away

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5
Q

A child presents with a sore throat, what is the first thing you do?
A. Swab their throat and give AB’s
B. Lymph node assessment and palpate neck
C. Check vitals
D. Get more history and background

A

D. Get more history and background

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6
Q

A patient is post-op from an adenoidectomy and tonsillectomy and is internally bleeding. What are the signs of internal bleeding?
A. Increased respirations and increased pulse
B. Increased respirations and decreased pulse
C. Decreased respirations and decreased pulse
D. Decreased respirations and increased pulse

A

D. Decreased respirations and increased pulse

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7
Q

A 7-year-old presents to ED with acute exacerbated asthma. Which of the following is the most concerning sign?
A. Coughs when given a bronchodilator
B. Unable to speak in full sentences
C. Oxygen saturating 98% on 2L of oxygen

A

B. Unable to speak in full sentences

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8
Q

A police officer arrives at the ward and asks to interview a patient who was involved in an accident. What is your response?
A. Tell the officer they can interview the patient once they are discharged from the hospital
B. Tell the officer the patient is very sick right now, but what can I do to help?
C. Take the officer to the patient for an interview.
D. Tell the officer to go away

A

B. Tell the officer the patient is very sick right now, but what can I do to help?

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9
Q

Vaccines are required to be…
A. Stored away from sunlight and does not require refrigeration
B. Refrigerated if it is a liquid solution
C. Refrigerated at 2-8 degrees
D. Refrigerated for a while at 5 degrees

A

C. Refrigerated at 2-8 degrees

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10
Q

A MH patient is sitting in the lounge room naked. What should you do?
A. Send the patient to their room
B. Ask other service users to leave the lounge to give the patient privacy
C. Cover the patient and take them to their room
D. Tell patient if they want their PRN medication

A

C. Cover the patient and take them to their room

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11
Q

You witness a nurse humiliate a patient. After ensuring the patient is okay, what must you do?
A. Tell the nurse their behaviour was unacceptable, then report to the charge nurse or manager.
B. Tell the nurse their behaviour was unacceptable, if this continues you will have to report it to the nurse or manager.
C. Tell the nurse their behaviour was unacceptable and that they should inform the charge nurse.
D. Don’t do anything as the patient must have been in the wrong.

A

A. Tell the nurse their behaviour was unacceptable, then report to the charge nurse or manager.

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12
Q

A nurse has made a public Facebook page about “anti-vaccination”. She has stated she is a nurse.
A. This is wrong as nurses should not undermine public health
B. This is right as nurses can have their own personal views
C. Share it and add your own comment
D. Report this to the nursing council

A

A. This is wrong as nurses should not undermine public health

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13
Q

You have received a handover from the night staff. What is your priority?
A. A patient who is going for mega surgery later in the morning
B. A post-op patient with oozing wound
C. A post-op patient who is transferring to another hospital
D. A patient who had difficulty breathing the shift before

A

D. A patient who had difficulty breathing the shift before

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14
Q

Signs of abuse on a child you are caring for are:
A. A 1 cm laceration on the forehead
B. A haematoma on the child’s head
C. Several marks on the child’s back
D. small bruise on their lower extremity

A

C. Several marks on the child’s back

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15
Q

A patient with bipolar disorder is pacing up and down and is very distressed. What is the most appropriate action?
A. Tell the patient they need to stop what they are doing
B. Take the patient to a quiet empty room till they calm down
C. Ask the patient what is concerning them
D. Ask the patient if they want their antidepressant

A

C. Ask the patient what is concerning them

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16
Q

The mother of a patient who is under the MHA asks you who can release them from the MHA.
A. Responsible clinician
B. Registered nurse
C. Judge
D. Themselves

A

A. Responsible clinician

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17
Q

A patient is to have an urgent blood transfusion. You notice the initials of the blood type on the blood bag is different to what is given on the patient’s chart. What is the right action?
A. Give blood but watch for any reactions
B. Withhold the transfusion and document the error in notes
C. Withhold the transfusion and call the blood bank for another bag
D. Inform the charge nurse whether you should give it or withhold

A

C. Withhold the transfusion and call the blood bank for another bag

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18
Q

The patient was given morphine sulphate. What is the most important action?
A. Come back every shift to check the IV site
B. Assess the patient’s heart rate
C. Observe the patient’s blood pressure
D. Document all medications given and time given in patient’s notes

A

B. Assess the patient’s heart rate

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19
Q

You suspect a patient has DVT. What is the reason for your clinical manifestation?
A. Cold and pale painful calf
B. Obvious limp and weakness on the left leg
C. Red and swollen painful calf

A

C. Red and swollen painful calf

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20
Q

An EN is working with you. You delegate tasks to EN. What must you do as an RN?
A. Follow up with EN
B. Ensure tasks are done satisfactorily
C. Note down the tasks then check if all tasks have been done
D. You do not need to check as EN is responsible enough.

A

B. Ensure tasks are done satisfactorily

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21
Q

Patient with depression asks you if they could be left alone to sleep. What must you check as the nurse?
A. Ask the patient if are they feeling suicidal or planning to take their life
B. Check when the last time they talked to family and friends
C. Check if they have eaten their meals
D. Do nothing and leave them to sleep

A

A. Ask the patient if are they feeling suicidal or planning to take their life

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22
Q

A patient is being prepared for their surgery. What is the role of the nurse in this situation?
A. Check if consent forms are signed
B. Check the patient’s understanding of the surgery
C. Gain consent from the patient

A

B. Check the patient’s understanding of the surgery

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23
Q

You notice a box of controlled drugs is missing from the medication room. What is the most important action?
A. Report to your charge nurse immediately
B. Ask every nurse if they have taken it
C. Report to the house officer immediately
D. Report to the pharmacist immediately

A

A. Report to your charge nurse immediately

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24
Q

A patient has been admitted to the ED. You notice they are losing consciousness. What is your immediate action?
A. Assess responsiveness then call for help
B. Administer oxygen
C. Commence CPR

A

A. Assess responsiveness then call for help

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25
Q

Your patient, who is a voluntary admission to a mental health unit, leaves the following day without telling anyone. Legally, what is required by staff:
A. Provide care for him at home
B. Re-admit him under a compulsory order
C. Get police to bring him in to sign a statement
D. Do nothing, the patient has right to leave health care at any time

A

D. Do nothing, the patient has right to leave health care at any time

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26
Q

A pregnant woman at 30 weeks’ gestation exhibits a rise in her baseline systolic blood pressure of 32mmHg, a weight gain of 4 kgs since last week and difficulty removing rings she normally wears. This is suggestive of:
A. Gestational hypertension
B. Pre-eclampsia
C. Eclampsia
D. Elevated liver enzymes

A
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27
Q

The primary pathophysiologic basis for the clinical manifestations of pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is:
A. Fluid retention related to excessive salt intake
B. Ineffective excretion of fluid by the kidneys
C. Cardiac decompensation
D. Ineffective dilation of the vascular network to accommodate the expanding blood volume of pregnancy

A

D. Ineffective dilation of the vascular network to accommodate the expanding blood volume of pregnancy

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28
Q

Which measure would be least effective in relieving the signs and symptoms of mild pre-eclampsia?
A. Low salt diet
B. Period of bed rest
C. Balance diet with protein
D. Relaxation techniques

A

A. Low salt diet

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29
Q

A woman with severe pre-eclampsia is being monitored for assessment findings indicative of cerebral oedema and vasospasm. Which of the following would you NOT expect to find?
A. Hypotonic deep tendon reflexes
B. Headache
C. Vision changes including burring and spots before the eyes
D. Insomnia

A

A. Hypotonic deep tendon reflexes

The symptoms of cerebral oedema and vasospasm can include headache, vision changes including blurring and spots before the eyes, and insomnia. These symptoms are due to increased pressure in the brain and reduced blood flow.

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30
Q

Newly expectant parents, ask the nurse how they can prepare their 3-year-old preschool daughter for the new baby. All of the following would be useful except:
A. Tell the child about the pregnancy as soon as a mother begins to look pregnant
B. Arrange for a few sleepovers with the person who will care for the child at the time of the birth
C. Transfer their child to her new room and bed just before the expected birth of the baby
D. Introduce their child to preschool as soon as possible

A

C. Transfer their child to her new room and bed just before the expected birth of the baby

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31
Q

Cranial surgery is performed on an adolescent who sustained a head injury. Which psychosocial issue is of the most concern in the adolescent?
A. Residual headaches
B. Short-term memory loss
C. Head area being shaved for the surgical procedure
D. Administration of Phenobarbital (Luminal) medication

A

When considering psychosocial issues in an adolescent undergoing cranial surgery, the concern that is often of the most significance is the head area being shaved for the surgical procedure. Adolescents are at a stage where body image and appearance are crucial aspects of their identity and self-esteem. Shaving the head for surgery can have a significant impact on their self-image and social interactions.

32
Q

During an initial physical examination of a newborn male, undescended testes (cryptorchidism) are discovered, and these findings are shared with the parents. The nurse understands that if this condition is not corrected, which of the following could have a psychosocial impact?
A. Atrophy
B. Infertility
C. Malignancy
D. Feminisation

A

B. Infertility

33
Q

The primary reason that a herpes simplex infection is a serious concern to a client with HIV infection is that herpes simplex:
A. Is an acquired immunodeficiency virus (AIDS) defining illness
B. Is curable only after 1 year of antiviral therapy
C. Can lead to cervical cancer
D. Causes severe electrolyte imbalances

A

A. Is an acquired immunodeficiency virus (AIDS) defining illness

34
Q

John has been admitted to the Mental Health Unit with Schizophrenia. He is experiencing delusions and states to the nurse “I cannot go to group today. I am expecting a high level official to visit”. The nurse responds “I understand John, but it is time for the community meeting, and we expect everyone to attend. Let’s go together”. Why is the nurse’s response considered therapeutic?
A. It clearly articulates what is expected
B. It demonstrates empathy
C. It sets limits on manipulative behaviour
D. It uses reflection

A

A. It clearly articulates what is expected

35
Q

John then needs to leave the group meeting because he becomes fearful of other members, believing they can read his mind. Which response by the nurse would be most therapeutic?
A. “That must be frightening to you. Can you tell me how you feel about it?”
B. “No one in the group will hurt you”
C. “What do you mean when you say they will hurt you?”
D. “I know you believe you will be harmed, but I don’t think that’s true”

A

A. “That must be frightening to you. Can you tell me how you feel about it?”

36
Q

Julie is 14 weeks pregnant; she states, “Ever since I’ve been pregnant, I’ve had a hard time moving my bowels”. Increased levels of what hormone are responsible for this common discomfort in pregnancy?
A. Testosterone
B. Oestrogen
C. Progesterone
D. Human chronic gonadotropin

A

C. Progesterone

37
Q

The nurse is reviewing Julie’s nutritional status. To determine whether she has an adequate intake of Vitamin A, the nurse should assess the consumption of:
A. Fish
B. Cereals
C. Meat
D. Dairy products

A

D. Dairy products

38
Q

At 20 weeks pregnant, Julie comes into the clinic for a routine pre-natal visit. In addition to checking the client’s fundal height, weight and blood pressure, what should the nurse assess for at each pre-natal visit?
A. Oedema
B. Pelvic inadequacy
C. Rh factor changes
D. Haemoglobin alterations

A

A. Oedema

39
Q

Julie is now 32 weeks pregnant and has mild pre-eclampsia. She is sent home with orders for bed rest. She should be instructed to contact the ante-natal clinic if she experiences which symptoms?
A. Increased urine output, difficulty sleeping, epigastric pain
B. Headache, blurred vision, epigastric pain, nausea, vomiting
C. Temperature, increased urine output, joint pain
D. Increased urine output, headache, epigastric pain

A

B. Headache, blurred vision, epigastric pain, nausea, vomiting

40
Q

A boy aged 3 develops a fever and rash and is diagnosed with Rubella. His mother has just given birth to a baby girl. Which statement by the mother best indicates that she understands the implications of rubella?
A. “I told my husband to give my son aspirin for his fever”
B. “I’ll ask the Doctor about giving the baby an immunisation shot”
C. “I don’t have to worry because I’ve had the measles”
D. “I’ll call my neighbour who’s two months pregnant and tell her not to have contact with my son.”

A

D. “I’ll call my neighbour who’s two months pregnant and tell her not to have contact with my son.”

41
Q

A school age child is admitted to the paediatric unit with a diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL). The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection. What is the most effective way for the nurse to reduce the child’s risk of infection?
A. Implementing reverse isolation
B. Maintaining standard precautions
C. Requiring staff and visitors to wear masks
D. Practising thorough hand washing

A

A. Implementing reverse isolation

42
Q

An 18-year-old woman has swallowed an overdose of sleeping pills. She is unresponsive but shows signs of life. Emergency services have been called – What should you do next?
A. Commence rescue breathing
B. Commence resuscitation
C. Place the victim in the recovery position
D. Await paramedic arrival

A

C. Place the victim in the recovery position

43
Q

In the community setting, if a partial foreign body airway obstruction occurs the first aider should:
A. Leave the person alone
B. Perform the Heimlich manoeuvre
C. Call an ambulance
D. Intervene only if increasing stridor or cyanosis occurs

A

D. Intervene only if increasing stridor or cyanosis occurs

44
Q

Signs and symptoms of shock include:
A. Pale clammy skin, slow breathing and rapid pulse
B. Pale clammy skin, abdominal pain, incontinence, difficulty with breathing
C. Pale clammy skin, rapid shallow breathing, rapid weak pulse
D. Pale clammy skin, normal breathing, rapid weak pulse

A

C. Pale clammy skin, rapid shallow breathing, rapid weak pulse

45
Q

A person is found unconscious at home. Physical examination shows cherry-red mucous membranes, nail beds and skin. Which of the following is most likely to cause this condition?
A. Spider bites
B. Aspirin ingestion
C. Hydrocarbon ingestion
D. Carbon monoxide poisoning

A

D. Carbon monoxide poisoning

46
Q

Which of the following is the most significant controllable risk factor in the development of Type 2 Diabetes mellitus?
A. Hypertension
B. Obesity
C. Family history of diabetes
D. Cigarette smoking

A

B. Obesity

47
Q

You are asked to explain the basic mechanisms of the action of Sulphonylureas on lowering the blood glucose at an education session. How would you explain this?
A. It increases the renal threshold of glucose
B. It decreases the renal threshold of glucose
C. It stimulates the pancreas to release insulin
D. It potentiates the action of insulin

A

C. It stimulates the pancreas to release insulin

48
Q

Skyler is admitted to the hospital due to metabolic acidosis caused by Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). As the registered nurse you prepare which of the following medications as an initial treatment for this problem?
A. Calcium gluconate
B. Potassium
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Insulin

A

D. Insulin

49
Q

A health consumer newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus is instructed by the medical team to obtain glucagon for emergency home use. The health consumer asks you, the registered nurse about the purpose of the medication. You explain to the health consumer that the purpose of the medication is to treat?
A. Hypoglycaemia from insulin overdose
B. Hyperglycaemia from insufficient insulin
C. Lipoatrophy from insulin injections
D. Lipohypertrophy from inadequate insulin absorption

A

A. Hypoglycaemia from insulin overdose

50
Q

A health consumer has a PRN prescription for Ondansetron (serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist). For which condition should you (Registered Nurse) consider administering this medication to the post-operative client?
A. Paralytic ileus
B. Incisional pain
C. Urinary retention
D. Nausea and vomiting

A

D. Nausea and vomiting

51
Q

Metoprolol is added to the pharmacologic therapy of a health consumer with stage two hypertension initially treated with Furosemide and the ACE inhibitor, Ramipril. What is the expected therapeutic effect of the beta blocker?
A. Decrease in heart rate
B. Lessening of fatigue
C. Improvement in cardiac contractility
D. Increase in urine output

A

C. Improvement in cardiac contractility

52
Q

A health consumer passes black, tarry stools. The registered nurse recognises that this may be an indication of?
A. Haemorrhoids, internal and external
B. An overproduction of bile
C. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding
D. Upper gastrointestinal bleeding

A

D. Upper gastrointestinal bleeding

53
Q

As a registered nurse you are concerned that a health consumer receiving peritoneal dialysis may be experiencing peritonitis. Which finding noted on your assessment supports this concern?
A. Abdominal numbness.
B. Cloudy dialysis output.
C. Radiating sternal pain.
D. Decreased WBC

A

B. Cloudy dialysis output.

54
Q

What does supination mean?
A. Rotation of forearm and hand with palms facing downward.
B. Rotation of forearm and hand with palms facing outwards.
C. Rotation of forearm and hand with palms facing inwards
D. Rotation of forearm and hand with palms facing upwards.

A

D. Rotation of forearm and hand with palms facing upwards.

55
Q

You, the registered nurse on the medical unit are caring for a health consumer experiencing an asthma attack. Which nursing intervention should be implemented first?
A. Obtain the client’s short acting beta agonist medication
B. Notify the medical team
C. Contact the respiratory nurse
D. Elevate the head of the bed

A

D. Elevate the head of the bed

56
Q

You are a registered nurse working on an orthopedic unit. Which health consumer should you assess first after receiving the morning handover?
A. The health consumer with a compound fracture of the fibula who will not use the incentive spirometer
B. The health consumer with a fractured left humerus who denies tingling and numbness of the fingers
C. The health consumer with a fractured right ankle that is oedematous and has ecchymosis areas
D. The health consumer with a fractured left femur who is having chest pain and shortness of breath

A

D. The health consumer with a fractured left femur who is having chest pain and shortness of breath

57
Q

Maisie is an 11yr old girl with a complete left tibial fracture which has been surgically repaired with plates and screws two days ago. Maisie has a history of coeliac disease diagnosed at age 4 and follows a complete Gluten free diet. You are the registered nurse and complete a full set of observations on Maisie. You will complete the following:
A. Blood pressure, temperature, pulse rate, respiratory rate, oxygen saturations only
B. Pulse rate, temperature, Oxygen saturations, capillary refill, neurovascular observations
C. Blood pressure, temperature, pulse rate, respiratory rate, oxygen saturations, capillary refill, neurovascular observations, pain assessment, wound check
D. Colour, warmth, movement, sensation, pulses on left leg

A

C. Blood pressure, temperature, pulse rate, respiratory rate, oxygen saturations, capillary refill, neurovascular observations, pain assessment, wound check

58
Q

Maisie has an IV cannula in her right ante-cubital fossa, it has been there since the operation and used for fluids and antibiotics. You assess her VIP (Visual Infusion Phlebitis) score at 2 due to some swelling and erythema at the insertion site. What is the most appropriate response?
A. Leave the cannula in place in case Maisie requires more IV fluids
B. Remove the cannula and inform the House Officer it needs to be re-sited before the next dose of IV antibiotics are due
C. Remove the cannula expecting that Maisie would now be on oral antibiotics
D. Encourage oral fluids and keep the fluid balance chart up to date to ensure Maisie does not have to have any more intravenous fluids, check on the VIP score every 4 hours on your shift

A

B. Remove the cannula and inform the House Officer it needs to be re-sited before the next dose of IV antibiotics are due

59
Q

Your RN mentor has asked you to redress the wound on Maisie’s knee. While you are assessing the dressing, you notice that her left leg feels warmer than her right leg and Maisie tells you that pain relief you gave earlier has not helped. This could be a:
A. Normal process in the post-operative period
B. Potential post-operative complication of deep vein thrombosis or compartment syndrome
C. Complication of bleeding from the wound site
D. Complication of the wound dressing being too tight over the wound

A

B. Potential post-operative complication of deep vein thrombosis or compartment syndrome

60
Q

Maisie’s mother is concerned that the medication that you are giving her daughter may have gluten in it which she is not allowed to have due to her coeliac disease. Your understanding of this condition is:
A. It is an autoimmune disease also known as gluten enteropathy
B. Is a malabsorption syndrome due to the inability of the body to absorb wheat
C. Is diagnosed through endoscopy only after gluten has been removed from the diet
D. Stools are often unformed and are a liquid consistency

A

A. It is an autoimmune disease also known as gluten enteropathy

61
Q

A child has 390 mg dose of Augmentin prescribed for an infection. Augmentin comes in a 0.6g ampoule. You mix it with 10 mL of water for injection. How many mls would you administer?

A

6.5 mL

62
Q

The circulating nurse is preparing the surgical suite for Mrs Allan’s surgery. The nurse notices the sterile package has become wet with normal saline. Would you:
A. Discard the package
B. Include it in the sterile field
C. Let the package dry and use it in the procedure
D. Save it for the next procedure

A

A. Discard the package

63
Q

At completion of the surgery Mrs Allan is set up with a PCA (Patient Controlled Analgesia). The goal of this is which of the following?
A. To be cost effective
B. To decrease respiratory depression
C. To increase client independence
D. To provide immediate analgesia

A

D. To provide immediate analgesia

64
Q

Post Operatively Mrs Allan develops acute urinary retention. Which of the following are predisposing factors that cause acute urinary retention?
A. Diminished pain
B. Increased IV fluids
C. Narcotics and anaesthesia
D. Providing privacy

A

C. Narcotics and anaesthesia

65
Q

Mrs Allan is taking ibuprofen to treat her hip pain on discharge. To minimise gastric mucosal irritation, the nurse should teach the client to take this medication at which of the following times?
A. At bedtime
B. When the client’s stomach is empty
C. On arising
D. Immediately after a meal

A

D. Immediately after a meal

66
Q

Joanne develops compartment syndrome. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of impending compartment syndrome:
A. Pain proximal to the injury
B. Pallor
C. Paraesthesia
D. Pulselessness

A

A. Pain proximal to the injury

67
Q

When a cast is applied to a fractured tibia, which nursing action would be the most important after the cast is in place?
A. Assessing capillary refill
B. Discussing proper cast care
C. Pain management
D. Performing ROM with the client

A

A. Assessing capillary refill

68
Q

Kerry Fielder is 42 years old and weighs 108 kg. She has a history of poor circulation. She is in recovery post-surgery following an abdominal hysterectomy. The priority is assessment of which of the following?
A. Airway
B. Dressing
C. Output
D. Pain

A

A. Airway

69
Q

In recovery Kerry’s blood pressure is low. Which of the following is a priority treatment of hypotension in recovery following surgery?
A. Analgesics
B. Antiarrhythmics
C. IV fluid bolus
D. Oxygen therapy

A

C. IV fluid bolus

70
Q

Identify the client who is a high risk for developing respiratory problems post operatively?
A. The client who is ambulatory
B. The client who has no history of respiratory problems
C. The client who has undergone genitourinary surgery
D. The client who is obese

A

D. The client who is obese

71
Q

Post operatively Kerry has been diagnosed with a Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT). The nurse recognises which of the following was a pre-disposing factor for this client.
A. Decreased blood coagulability
B. Dietary deficiency of leafy green vegetables
C. Previous history of venous problems
D. Use of TED stockings

A

C. Previous history of venous problems

72
Q

Post hemicolectomy, a client asks why he has a nasogastric tube. The nurse’s best response for the client would be:
A. It will be out shortly and then you can eat.
B. The tube decompresses your stomach of gas and fluid contents, so your surgical site can heal
C. Your medical team want you to have it
D. It will help with your belly pain

A

B. The tube decompresses your stomach of gas and fluid contents, so your surgical site can heal

73
Q

You are caring for bill, a 50 year old man who has been hospitalised with a possible diagnosis of pancreatitis. Which of the following symptoms would you anticipate observing in Bill
A. Elevated white blood cell count, ankle oedema and right groin pain
B. Left upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting
C. Hypoglycaemia, hypertension, and hypochondrial pain
D. Epigastric pain, pyrexia, and elevated white blood cell count

A

B. Left upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting

74
Q

James, a 34 year old man attending a sexual health clinic, is diagnosed with syphilis. The typical chancre of syphilis appears as?
A. A grouping of small, tender pimples
B. An elevated wart
C. A painless moist ulcer
D. An itching, crusted area

A

C. A painless moist ulcer

75
Q

The most serious complication that the nurse must monitor for after a client has a percutaneous renal biopsy is:
A. Bleeding
B. Infection
C. Urinary retention
D. Flank pain

A

A. Bleeding

Mine - Nursing State Exam NZ (12 decks)

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