NR 327 Exam 1 - 48 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Similar question A medical-surgical nurse is asked to float to a women’s health unit to care for patients who are scheduled for therapeutic abortions. The nurse refuses to accept this assignment and expresses her personal beliefs as being incongruent with this medical practice. The nursing supervisor states that the unit is short-staffed and the nurse is familiar with caring for postoperative patients. In consideration of legal and ethical practices, can the nursing supervisor enforce this assignment?
a.
The staff nurse has the responsibility of accepting any assignment that is made while working for a health care unit, so the nursing supervisor is within his or her rights to enforce this assignment.
b.
Because the unit is short-staffed, the staff nurse should accept the assignment to provide care by benefit of her or his experience to patients who need care.
c.
The staff nurse has expressed a legitimate concern based on his or her feelings; the nursing supervisor does not have the authority to enforce this assignment.
d. The nursing supervisor should emphasize that this assignment requires care of a surgical patient for which the staff nurse is adequately trained and should therefore enforce the assignment

A

ANS: C
The Nurse Practice Act allows nurses to refuse assignments that involve practices that they have expressed as being opposed to their religious, cultural, ethical, and/or moral values. Although the nursing supervisor has a right to arrange assignments, the supervisor, if made aware of a potential bias or limitation, must act accordingly and accept the nurse’s position. This should be upheld regardless of staffing limitations and independent of persuasive efforts to make the nurse feel guilty for her or his stated beliefs.

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2
Q

Ethical Principles
-Autonomy
-Fidelity
-Beneficence
-Accountability
-Maleficence
-Fidelity
-Justice

A

Autonomy - Self determination
Beneficence - Greatest good
Accountability - Accepting responsibility
Maleficence - DO NO HARM*
Fidelity - Faithful, loyal - stating in good faith
Justice - Be treated equally

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3
Q

SATA
Along with gas exchange and nutrient transfer, the placenta produces many hormones necessary for normal pregnancy, including which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a.Insulin
b.Estrogen
c. Progesterone
d. Testosterone
e. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

A

ANS: B, C, E
HCG causes the corpus luteum to persist and produce the necessary estrogens and progesterone for the first 6 to 8 weeks. Estrogens cause enlargement of the woman’s uterus and breasts and growth of the ductal system in the breasts and, as term approaches, plays a role in the initiation of labor. Progesterone causes the endometrium to change, providing early nourishment. Progesterone also protects against spontaneous abortion by suppressing maternal reactions to fetal antigens and reduces unnecessary uterine contractions. Other hormones produced by the placenta include hCT, hCA, and a number of growth factors. Insulin and testosterone are not secreted by the placenta.

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4
Q
  1. What is the physiologic reason for vascular volume increasing by 40% to 60% during pregnancy?

a.Prevents maternal and fetal dehydration

b.Eliminates metabolic wastes of the mother

c.Provides adequate perfusion of the placenta

d.Compensates for decreased renal plasma flow

A

ANS: C
The primary function of increased vascular volume is to transport oxygen and nutrients to the fetus via the placenta. Preventing maternal and fetal dehydration is not the primary reason for the increase in volume. Assisting with pulling metabolic wastes from the fetus for maternal excretion is one purpose of the increased vascular volume. Renal plasma flow increases during pregnancy.

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5
Q
  1. Which finding is a positive sign of pregnancy?

a. Amenorrhea

b. Breast changes

c. Fetal movement felt by the woman

d.Visualization of fetus by ultrasound

A

ANS: D
The only positive signs of pregnancy are auscultation of fetal heart tones, visualization of the fetus by ultrasound, and fetal movement felt by the examiner. Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. Breast changes are a presumptive sign of pregnancy. Fetal movement is a presumptive sign of pregnancy.

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6
Q
  1. An expected change during pregnancy is a darkly pigmented vertical midabdominal line. The nurse recognizes this alteration as
    a.
    epulis.
    b.
    linea nigra.
    c.
    melasma.
    d.
    striae gravidarum.
A

ANS: B
The linea nigra is a dark pigmented line from the fundus to the symphysis pubis. Epulis refers to gingival hypertrophy. Melasma is a different kind of dark pigmentation that occurs on the face. Striae gravidarum (stretch marks) are lines caused by lineal tears that occur in connective tissue during periods of rapid growth.

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7
Q
  1. Which physiologic finding is consistent with normal pregnancy?
    a.
    Systemic vascular resistance increases as blood pressure decreases.
    b.
    Cardiac output increases during pregnancy.
    c.
    Blood pressure remains consistent independent of position changes.
    d.
    Maternal vasoconstriction occurs in response to increased metabolism.
A

ANS: B
Cardiac output increases during pregnancy as a result of increased stroke volume and heart rate. Systemic vascular resistance decreases while blood pressure remains the same. Maternal blood pressure changes in response to patient positioning. In response to increased metabolism, maternal vasodilation is seen during pregnancy.

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8
Q
  1. Which physiologic adaptation of pregnancy may lead to increased constipation during the pregnancy?
    a.
    Increased emptying time in the intestines
    b.
    Abdominal distention and bloating
    c.
    Decreased absorption of water
    d.
    Decreased motility in the intestines

Question asked which hormone contributes to constipation - ANSWER: Progesterone

A

ANS: D
Decreased motility in the intestines leading to increased water absorption would cause constipation. Increased emptying time in the intestines leads to increased nutrient absorption. Abdominal distention and bloating are a result of increased emptying time in the intestines.

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9
Q

*EDD Question

  1. Use Nägele’s rule to determine the EDD (estimated day of birth) for a patient whose last menstrual period started on April 12.
    a.
    February 19
    b.
    January 19
    c.
    January 21
    d.
    February 7

Subtract 3 months & Add 7 Days

A

ANS: B
Nägele’s rule subtracts 3 months from the month of the last menstrual period (month 4 – 3 = January) and adds 7 days to the day that the last menstrual period started (April 12 + 7 days = April 19), so the correct answer is January 19 of the following calendar year.

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10
Q

Med Cal
1. What is the value of the main line fluid rate for your patient, whose total fluid intake is ordered at 150 mL/hour and who is also being given magnesium sulfate at 1 g/hour (1 g = 25 mL/hour) IV piggyback and pitocin at 15 mU/minute (l mU/minute = 1 mL/hour) IV piggyback. ______

A

ANS:
110
The rate of infusion of magnesium sulfate (25 mL/hour) and pitocin (15 mL/hour) equals 40 mL/hour. Subtracting the 40 mL from the total ordered of 150 mL leaves 110 mL of main line fluid to be infused per hour.

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11
Q
  1. What is the rationale for a woman in her first trimester of pregnancy to expect to visit her health care provider every 4 weeks?
    a.
    Problems can be eliminated.
    b.
    She develops trust in the health care team.
    c.
    Her questions about labor can be answered.
    d.
    The conditions of the expectant mother and fetus can be monitored.
A

ANS: D
This routine allows for monitoring maternal health and fetal growth and ensures that problems will be identified early. All problems cannot be eliminated because of prenatal visits; however, they can be identified early. Developing a trusting relationship should be established during these visits, but that is not the primary reason. Most women do not have questions concerning labor until the last trimester of the pregnancy.

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12
Q
  1. A patient, gravida 2, para 1, comes for a prenatal visit at 20 weeks of gestation. Her fundus is palpated 3 cm below the umbilicus. This finding is
    a.
    appropriate for gestational age.
    b.
    a sign of impending complications.
    c.
    lower than normal for gestational age.
    d.
    higher than normal for gestational age.
A

ANS: C
By 20 weeks, the fundus should reach the umbilicus. The fundus should be at the umbilicus at 20 weeks, so 3 cm below the umbilicus is an inappropriate height and needs further assessment. This is lower than expected at this date. It may be a complication, but it may also be because of incorrect dating of the pregnancy

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13
Q
  1. Which complaint made by a patient at 35 weeks of gestation requires additional assessment? a.
    Abdominal pain
    b.
    Ankle edema in the afternoon
    c.
    Backache with prolonged standing
    d.
    Shortness of breath when climbing stairs
A

ANS: A
Abdominal pain at 35 weeks gestation may indicate preeclampsia, or abruptio placentae. Ankle edema in the afternoon is a normal finding at this stage of the pregnancy. Backaches while standing is a normal finding in the later stages of pregnancy. Shortness of breath is an expected finding at 35 weeks.

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14
Q
  1. Which information is covered by early pregnancy classes offered in the first and second trimesters?
    a.
    Methods of pain relief
    b.
    The phases and stages of labor
    c.
    Coping with common discomforts of pregnancy
    d.
    Prebirth and postbirth care of a patient having a cesarean birth
A

ANS: C
Early pregnancy classes focus on the first two trimesters and cover information on adapting to pregnancy, dealing with early discomforts, and understanding what to expect in the months ahead. Methods of pain relief are discussed in a childbirth preparation class. The phases and stages of labor are usually covered in a childbirth preparation class. Cesarean birth preparation classes discuss prebirth and postbirth of a patient having a cesarean birth.

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15
Q

SATA 2. The nurse is planning care for a patient in her first trimester of pregnancy. The patient is experiencing nausea and vomiting. Which interventions should the nurse plan to share with this patient? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Suck on hard candy.
b.
Take prenatal vitamins in the morning.
c.
Try some herbal tea to relieve the nausea.
d.
Drink fluids frequently but separate from meals.
e. Eat crackers or dry cereal before arising in the morning.

A

ANS: A, D, E
A patient experiencing nausea and vomiting should be taught to suck on hard candy, drink fluids frequently but separately from meals, and eat crackers, dry toast, or dry cereal before arising in the morning. Prenatal vitamins should be taken at bedtime because they may increase nausea if taken in the morning. Before taking herbal tea, the patient should check with her health care provider.

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16
Q
  1. Which analysis of maternal serum is the best predictor of chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus?
    a.
    Biophysical profile
    b.
    Multiple-marker screening
    c.
    Lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio
    d.
    Blood type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum
A

ANS: B
Maternal serum can be analyzed for abnormal levels of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), inhibin A, and estriol. The multiple-marker screening may predict chromosomal defects in the fetus. The biophysical profile is used to evaluate fetal status during the antepartum period. Five variables are used; however, none are concerned with chromosomal problems. The lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio is used to determine fetal lung maturity. The blood type and crossmatch will not predict chromosomal defects in the fetus.

17
Q
  1. What is the purpose of amniocentesis for a patient hospitalized at 34 weeks of gestation with pregnancy-induced hypertension?
    a.
    Determine if a metabolic disorder exists.
    b.
    Identify the sex of the fetus.
    c.
    dentify abnormal fetal cells. d.
    Determine fetal lung maturity.
A

ANS: D
During the third trimester, amniocentesis is most often performed to determine fetal lung maturity. In cases of pregnancy-induced hypertension, preterm birth may be necessary because of changes in placental perfusion. The test is done in the early portion of the pregnancy if a metabolic disorder is genetic. Amniocentesis is done early in the pregnancy to do genetic studies and determine the sex. Identification of abnormal cells is done during the early portion of the pregnancy.

18
Q
  1. What is the term for a nonstress test in which there are two or more fetal heart rate accelerations of 15 or more beats per minute (BPM) with fetal movement in a 20-minute period? a.
    Positive
    b.
    Negative
    c.
    Reactive
    d.
    Nonreactive
A

ANS: C
The nonstress test (NST) is reactive (normal) when there are two or more fetal heart rate accelerations of at least 15 BPM (each with a duration of at least 15 seconds) in a 20-minute period. A positive result is not used with an NST. The contraction stress test (CST) uses positive as a result term. A negative result is not used with an NST. The CST uses negative as a result term. A nonreactive result means that the heart rate did not accelerate during fetal movement.

19
Q

Which complication could occur as a result of percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)?
a.
Postdates pregnancy
b.
Fetal bradycardia
c.
Placenta previa
d.
Uterine rupture

A

ANS: B
PUBS is an invasive test whereby a needle is inserted into the umbilical cord to obtain blood as the basis for diagnostic testing with the guidance of ultrasound technology. The most common complication is fetal bradycardia, which is temporary. PUBS has no effect on extending the gestation of pregnancy, the development of placenta previa, or uterine rupture.

20
Q

A patient at 36 weeks gestation is undergoing a nonstress (NST) test. The nurse observes the fetal heart rate baseline at 135 beats per minute (bpm) and four nonepisodic patterns of the fetal heart rate reaching 160 bpm for periods of 20 to 25 seconds each. How will the nurse record these findings?
a.
NST positive, nonreassuring
b.
NST negative, reassuring
c.
NST reactive, reassuring
d.
NST nonreactive, nonreassuring

A

ANS: C
The presence of at least three accelerations of at least 15 beats, over at least 15 seconds, over a duration of at least 20 minutes, is considered reactive and reassuring. Nonreactive testing reveals no or fewer accelerations over the same or longer period. The NST test is not recorded as positive or negative.

21
Q

A patient at 36 weeks gestation is undergoing a nonstress (NST) test. The nurse observes the fetal heart rate baseline at 135 beats per minute (bpm) and four nonepisodic patterns of the fetal heart rate reaching 160 bpm for periods of 20 to 25 seconds each. How will the nurse record these findings?
a.
NST positive, nonreassuring
b.
NST negative, reassuring
c.
NST reactive, reassuring
d.
NST nonreactive, nonreassuring

A

ANS: C
The presence of at least three accelerations of at least 15 beats, over at least 15 seconds, over a duration of at least 20 minutes, is considered reactive and reassuring. Nonreactive testing reveals no or fewer accelerations over the same or longer period. The NST test is not recorded as positive or negative.

22
Q

An abortion when the fetus dies but is retained in the uterus is called
a.
inevitable.
b.
missed.
c.
incomplete.
d.
threatened.

A

ANS: B
A missed abortion refers to a dead fetus being retained in the uterus. An inevitable abortion means that the cervix is dilating with the contractions. An incomplete abortion means that not all the products of conception were expelled. With a threatened abortion, the patient has cramping and bleeding but not cervical dilation.

23
Q

Which finding would indicate concealed hemorrhage in abruptio placentae?
a.
Bradycardia
b.
Hard boardlike abdomen
c.
Decrease in fundal height
d.
Decrease in abdominal pain

A

ANS: B
Concealed hemorrhage occurs when the edges of the placenta do not separate. The formation of a hematoma behind the placenta and subsequent infiltration of the blood into the uterine muscle results in a very firm, boardlike abdomen. The patient will have shock symptoms that include tachycardia. The fundal height will increase as bleeding occurs. Abdominal pain may increase significantly.

24
Q

The priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant patient who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy is to
a.
monitor uterine contractions.
b.
assess fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs.
c.
place clean disposable pads to collect any drainage.
d.
perform a venipuncture for hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.

A

ANS: B
Assessment of the fetal heart rate (FHR) and maternal vital signs will assist the nurse in determining the degree of the blood loss and its effect on the patient and fetus. Monitoring uterine contractions is important; however, not the top priority. It is important to assess future bleeding, but the top priority is patient and fetal well-being. The most important assessment is to check patient and fetal well-being. The blood levels can be obtained later.

25
Q
  1. A patient with preeclampsia is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate
    a.
    gastrointestinal upset.
    b.
    effects of magnesium sulfate.
    c.
    anxiety caused by hospitalization.
    d.
    worsening disease and impending convulsion.
A

ANS: D
Headache and visual disturbances are caused by increased cerebral edema. Epigastric pain indicates distention of the hepatic capsules and often warns that a convulsion is imminent. Gastrointestinal upset is not an indication as severe as the headache and visual disturbance. She has not yet been started on magnesium sulfate as a treatment. The signs and symptoms do not describe anxiety.

26
Q
  1. Which routine nursing assessment is contraindicated for a patient admitted with suspected placenta previa?
    a.
    Determining cervical dilation and effacement
    b.
    Monitoring FHR and maternal vital signs
    c.
    Observing vaginal bleeding or leakage of amniotic fluid
    d.
    Determining frequency, duration, and intensity of contractions
    ANS: A
    Vaginal examination of the cervix may result in perforation of the placenta and subsequent hemorrhage. Monitoring FHR and maternal vital signs is a necessary part of the assessment for this patient. Monitoring for bleeding and rupture of membranes is not contraindicated with this patient. Monitoring contractions is not contraindicated with this patient.
A
27
Q
  1. Which routine nursing assessment is contraindicated for a patient admitted with suspected placenta previa?
    a.
    Determining cervical dilation and effacement
    b.
    Monitoring FHR and maternal vital signs
    c.
    Observing vaginal bleeding or leakage of amniotic fluid
    d.
    Determining frequency, duration, and intensity of contractions
A

ANS: A
Vaginal examination of the cervix may result in perforation of the placenta and subsequent hemorrhage. Monitoring FHR and maternal vital signs is a necessary part of the assessment for this patient. Monitoring for bleeding and rupture of membranes is not contraindicated with this patient. Monitoring contractions is not contraindicated with this patient.

28
Q

Which assessment in a patient diagnosed with preeclampsia who is taking magnesium sulfate would indicate a therapeutic level of medication?
a.
Drowsiness
b.
Urinary output of 20 mL/hour
c.
Normal deep tendon reflexes
d.
Respiratory rate of 10 to 12 breaths per minute

A

ANS: C
Magnesium sulfate is administered for preeclampsia to reduce the risk of seizures from cerebral irritability. Hyperreflexia (deep tendon reflexes above normal) is a symptom of cerebral irritability. If the dosage of magnesium sulfate is effective, reflexes should decrease to normal or slightly below normal levels. Drowsiness is another sign of CNS depression from magnesium toxicity. A urinary output of 20 mL/hour is inadequate output. A respiratory rate of 10 to 12 breaths per minute is too slow and could be indicative of magnesium toxicity.

29
Q
  1. A patient taking magnesium sulfate has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. In addition to discontinuing the medication, which action should the nurse take?
    a.
    Increase the patient’s IV fluids.
    b.
    Administer calcium gluconate.
    c.
    Vigorously stimulate the patient.
    d.
    Instruct the patient to take deep breaths.
A

ANS: B
Calcium gluconate reverses the effects of magnesium sulfate. Increasing the patient’s IV fluids will not reverse the effects of the medication. Stimulation will not increase the respirations. Deep breaths will not be successful in reversing the effects of the magnesium sulfate.

30
Q
  1. The nurse is reviewing the instructions given to a patient at 24 weeks’ gestation for a glucose challenge test (GCT). The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching when she makes which statement?
    a.
    “I have to fast the night before the test.”
    b.
    “I will drink a sugary solution containing 100 g of glucose.”
    c.“I will have blood drawn at 1 hour after I drink the glucose solution.”
    d.
    “I should keep track of my baby’s movements between now and the test.”
A

ANS: C
A GCT is administered between 24 and 28 weeks of gestation, often to low- and high-risk antepartum patients. Fasting is not necessary for a GCT, and the woman is not required to follow any pretest dietary instructions. The woman should ingest 50 g of oral glucose solution, and 1 hour later a blood sample is taken. Fetal surveillance with kick counts is an ongoing evaluation for pregnant women; they should contact their health care provider if there is a noticeable decrease in fetal movement.

31
Q
  1. The nurse is monitoring a patient with severe preeclampsia who is on IV magnesium sulfate. Which signs of magnesium toxicity should the nurse monitor for? (Select all that apply.)
    a.
    Cool, clammy skin
    b.
    Altered sensorium
    c.
    Pulse oximeter reading of 95%
    d.
    Respiratory rate of less than 12 breaths per minute
    e.
    Absence of deep tendon reflexes
A

ANS: B, D, E
Signs of magnesium toxicity include the following:
Respiratory rate of less than 12 breaths per minute (hospitals may specify a rate <14 breaths per minute)Maternal pulse oximeter reading lower than 95%
Absence of deep tendon reflexes
Sweating, flushing
Altered sensorium (confused, lethargic, slurred speech, drowsy, disoriented) Hypotension
Serum magnesium value above the therapeutic range of 4 to 8 mg/dL
Cold, clammy skin and a pulse oximeter reading of 95% would not be signs of toxicity.

32
Q

NPH insulin & Regular Insulin
Always discard a “cloudy regular insulin”
NPH insulin should be gently rotated
1. Inject air into NPH first
2. Inject air into Clear reg insulin
3. Draw clear insulin
4. Draw NPH insulin

A

Wash Hands 1st
Gently rotate NPH insulin bottle
Wipe off tops with alcohol
Draw back amount of air into the syringe that equals total dose.

33
Q

Drug Classes
Know for Pregnant women
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class X

A

The US. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) established pregnancy categories for therapeutic drugs based on their potential to harm the fetus. The categories ranged from A through D and X.

Class A drugs have no demonstrated fetal risk in well-controlled studies.

At the opposite end, pregnancy category X drugs are well established as being harmful.

Using this system, the provider should balance the woman’s need for the drug’s therapeutic effects against the fetal need to avoid exposure to it.

34
Q

Glyburide

A

Glyburide (Micronase) and metformin (Glucophage) have been studied for use with GDM and have demonstrated glu- cose control comparable to insulin without apparent mater- nal or neonatal complications

35
Q

Two Case Study questions

A
36
Q

Folic Acid causes what

A

Fetus Neuro complications/deficiencies

37
Q

SATA on S/S of Abruptio Placenta

A