CH 15: Nursing Care During Labor & Birth

Question 1

1. The nurse is preparing to perform Leopold’s maneuvers. Please select the rationale for the consistent use of these maneuvers by obstetric providers?
   a.
   To determine the status of the membranes
   b.
   To determine cervical dilation and effacement
   c.
   To determine the best location to assess the fetal heart rate
   d.
   To determine whether the fetus is in the posterior position

Answer 1

ANS: C
Leopold’s maneuvers are often performed before assessing the fetal heart rate (FHR). These maneuvers help identify the best location to obtain the FHR. A pH test or fern test can be performed to determine the status of the fetal membranes. Dilation and effacement are best determined by vaginal examination. Assessment of fetal position is more accurate with vaginal examination.

Question 2

2. Which comfort measure should the nurse utilize in order to enable a laboring woman to relax?

a.
Recommend frequent position changes.
b.
Palpate her filling bladder every 15 minutes.
c.
Offer warm wet cloths to use on the patient’s face and neck.
d.
Keep the room lights lit so the patient and her coach can see everything.

Answer 2

ANS: A
Frequent maternal position changes reduce the discomfort from constant pressure and promote fetal descent. A full bladder intensifies labor pain. The bladder should be emptied every 2 hours. Women in labor become very hot and perspire. Cool cloths will provide greater relief. Soft indirect lighting is more soothing than irritating bright lights.

Question 3

3. Which assessment finding is an indication of hemorrhage in the recently delivered postpartum patient?
   a.
   Elevated pulse rate
   b.
   Elevated blood pressure
   c.
   Firm fundus at the midline
   d.
   Saturation of two perineal pads in 4 hours

Answer 3

ANS: A
An increasing pulse rate is an early sign of excessive blood loss. If the blood volume were diminishing, the blood pressure would decrease. A firm fundus indicates that the uterus is contracting and compressing the open blood vessels at the placental site. Saturation of one pad within the first hour is the maximum normal amount of lochial flow. Two pads within 4 hours is within normal limits.

Question 4

4. Which intervention is an essential part of nursing care for a laboring patient?
   a.
   Helping the woman manage the pain
   b.
   Eliminating the pain associated with labor
   c.
   Feeling comfortable with the predictable nature of intrapartal care
   d.
   Sharing personal experiences regarding labor and birth to decrease her anxiety

Answer 4

ANS: A
Helping a patient manage the pain is an essential part of nursing care because pain is an expected part of normal labor and cannot be fully relieved. Labor pain cannot be fully relieved. The labor nurse should always be assessing for unpredictable occurrences. Decreasing anxiety is important; however, managing pain is a top priority.

Question 5

5. A patient at 40 weeks’ gestation should be instructed to go to a hospital or birth center for evaluation when she experiences
   a.
   increased fetal movement.
   b.
   irregular contractions for 1 hour.
   c.
   a trickle of fluid from the vagina.
   d.
   thick pink or dark red vaginal mucus.

Answer 5

ANS: C
A trickle of fluid from the vagina may indicate rupture of the membranes, requiring evaluation for infection or cord compression. Decreased or the lack of fetal movement requires further assessment. Irregular contractions are a sign of false labor and do not require further assessment. Bloody show may occur before the onset of true labor. It does not require professional assessment unless the bleeding is pronounced.

Question 6

6. Which patient at term should proceed to the hospital or birth center the immediately after labor begins?
   a. Gravida 2, para 1, who lives 10 minutes away b.
   Gravida 1, para 0, who lives 40 minutes away c.
   Gravida 2, para 1, whose first labor lasted 16 hours
   d.
   Gravida 3, para 2, whose longest previous labor was 4 hours

Answer 6

ANS: D
Multiparous women usually have shorter labors than do nulliparous women. The woman described in option D is multiparous with a history of rapid labors, increasing the likelihood that her infant might be born in uncontrolled circumstances. A gravida 2 would be expected to have a longer labor than the gravida in option C. The fact that she lives close to the hospital allows her to stay home for a longer period of time. A gravida 1 will be expected to have the longest labor. The gravida 2 would be expected to have a longer labor than the gravida 3, especially because her first labor was 16 hours.

Question 7

7. A woman who is gravida 3, para 2 enters the intrapartum unit. The most important nursing assessments include
   a.
   contraction pattern, amount of discomfort, and pregnancy history.
   b.
   fetal heart rate, maternal vital signs, and the woman’s nearness to birth.
   c.
   last food intake, when labor began, and cultural practices the couple desires.
   d.
   identification of ruptured membranes, the woman’s gravida and para, and access to a support person.

Answer 7

ANS: B
All options describe relevant intrapartum nursing assessments, but the focus assessment has priority. If the maternal and fetal conditions are normal and birth is not imminent, other assessments can be performed in an unhurried manner. Contraction pattern, amount of discomfort, and pregnancy history are important nursing assessments but do not take priority if the birth is imminent. Last food intake, when labor began, and cultural practices the couple desires is an assessment that can occur later in the admission process, if time permits. Identification of ruptured membranes, the woman’s gravida and para, and her support person are assessments that can occur later in the admission process if time permits.

Question 8

8. A primigravida at 39 weeks of gestation is observed for 2 hours in the intrapartum unit. The fetal heart rate has been normal. Contractions are 5 to 9 minutes apart, 20 to 30 seconds in duration, and of mild intensity. Cervical dilation is 1 to 2 cm and uneffaced (unchanged from admission). Membranes are intact. The nurse should expect the patient to be
   a.
   discharged home with a sedative.
   b.
   admitted for extended observation.
   c.
   admitted and prepared for a cesarean birth.
   d.
   discharged home to await the onset of true labor.

Answer 8

ANS: D
The situation describes a patient with normal assessments who is probably in false labor and will probably not deliver rapidly once true labor begins. The patient will probably be discharged, and there is no indication that a sedative is needed. These are all indications of false labor; there is no indication that further assessment or observations are indicated. These are all indications of false labor without fetal distress. There is no indication that a cesarean birth is indicated.

Question 9

9. The nurse auscultates the fetal heart rate and determines a rate of 152 bpm. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate at this time?
   a.
   Inform the mother that the fetal heart rate is normal.
   b.
   Reassess the fetal heart rate in 5 minutes because the rate is too high.
   c.
   Report the fetal heart rate to the physician or nurse-midwife immediately.
   d.
   Suggest to the mother that she is going to have a boy because the heart rate is fast.

Answer 9

ANS: A
The FHR is within the normal range, so no other action is indicated at this time. The FHR is within the expected range; reassessment should occur, but not in 5 minutes. The FHR is within the expected range; no further action is necessary at this point. The gender of the baby cannot be determined by the FHR.

Question 10

10. Which clinical finding would be an indication to the nurse that the fetus may be compromised?
    a.
    Active fetal movements
    b.
    Fetal heart rate in the 140s
    c.
    Contractions lasting 90 seconds
    d.
    Meconium-stained amniotic fluid

Answer 10

ANS: D
When fetal oxygen is compromised, relaxation of the rectal sphincter allows passage of meconium into the amniotic fluid. Active fetal movement is an expected occurrence. The expected FHR range is 120 to 160 bpm. The fetus should be able to tolerate contractions lasting 90 seconds if the resting phase is sufficient to allow for a return of adequate blood flow.

Question 11

11. The nurse is caring for a low-risk patient in the active phase of labor. At which interval should the nurse assess the fetal heart rate?
    a.
    Every 15 minutes
    b.
    Every 30 minutes
    c.
    Every 45 minutes
    d.
    Every 1 hour

Answer 11

ANS: B
For the fetus at low risk for complications, guidelines for frequency of assessments are at least every 30 minutes during the active phase of labor. 15-minute assessments would be appropriate for a fetus at high risk. 45-minute assessments during the active phase of labor are not frequent enough to monitor for complications. 1-hour assessments during the active phase of labor are not frequent enough to monitor for complications.

Question 12

12. Which nursing assessment indicates that a patient who is in the second stage of labor is almost ready to give birth?
    a.
    Bloody mucous discharge increases.
    b.
    The vulva bulges and encircles the fetal head.
    c.
    The membranes rupture during a contraction.
    d.
    The fetal head is felt at 0 station during the vaginal examination.

Answer 12

ANS: B
A bulging vulva that encircles the fetal head describes crowning, which occurs shortly before birth. Bloody show occurs throughout the labor process and is not an indication of an imminent birth. Rupture of membranes can occur at any time during the labor process and does not indicate an imminent birth. Birth of the head occurs when the station is +4. A zero station indicates engagement.

Question 13

13. During labor a vaginal examination should be performed only when necessary because of the risk of
    a.
    infection.
    b.
    fetal injury.
    c.
    discomfort.
    d.
    perineal trauma.

Answer 13

ANS: A
Vaginal examinations increase the risk of infection by carrying vaginal microorganisms upward toward the uterus. Properly performed vaginal examinations should not cause fetal injury. Vaginal examinations may be uncomfortable for some women in labor, but that is not the main reason for limiting them. A properly performed vaginal examination should not cause perineal trauma.

Question 14

14. A 25-year-old primigravida patient is in the first stage of labor. She and her husband have been holding hands and breathing together through each contraction. Suddenly, the patient pushes her husband’s hand away and shouts, “Don’t touch me!” This behavior is most likely
    a.
    a sign of abnormal labor progress.
    b.
    an indication that she needs analgesia.
    c.
    normal and related to hyperventilation.
    d.
    common during the transition phase of labor.

Answer 14

ANS: D
The transition phase of labor is often associated with an abrupt change in behavior, including increased anxiety and irritability. This change of behavior is an expected occurrence during the transition phase. If she is in the transitional phase of labor, analgesia may not be appropriate if the birth is near. Hyperventilation will produce signs of respiratory alkalosis.

Question 15

15. At 1 minute after birth, the nurse assesses the newborn to assign an Apgar score. The apical heart rate is 110 bpm, and the infant is crying vigorously with the limbs flexed. The infant’s trunk is pink and the hands and feet are blue. The Apgar score for this infant is
    a.
    7.
    b.
    8.
    c.
    9.
    d.
    10.

Answer 15

ANS: C
The Apgar score is 9 because 1 point is deducted from the total score of 10 for the infant’s blue hands and feet. The baby received 2 points for each of the categories except color. Because the infant’s hands and feet were blue, this category is given a grade of 1. The baby received 2 points for each of the categories except color. Because the infant’s hands and feet were blue, this category is given a grade of 1. The infant had 1 point deducted because of the blue color of the hands and feet.

Question 16

16. If a woman’s fundus is soft 30 minutes after birth, the nurse’s first action should be to
    a.
    massage the fundus.
    b.
    take the blood pressure.
    c.
    notify the physician or nurse-midwife.
    d.
    place the woman in Trendelenburg position.

Answer 16

ANS: A
The nurse’s first response should be to massage the fundus to stimulate contraction of the uterus to compress open blood vessels at the placental site, limiting blood loss. The blood pressure is an important assessment to determine the extent of blood loss but is not the top priority. Notification should occur after all nursing measures have been attempted with no favorable results. The Trendelenburg position is contraindicated for this woman at this point. This position would not allow for appropriate vaginal drainage of lochia. The lochia remaining in the uterus would clot and produce further bleeding.

Question 17

17. The nurse thoroughly dries the infant immediately after birth primarily to
    a.
    reduce heat loss from evaporation.
    b.
    stimulate crying and lung expansion.
    c.
    increase blood supply to the hands and feet.
    d.
    remove maternal blood from the skin surface.

Answer 17

ANS: A
Infants are wet with amniotic fluid and blood at birth, which accelerates evaporative heat loss. Rubbing the infant does stimulate crying but is not the main reason for drying the infant. The main purpose of drying the infant is to prevent heat loss. Drying the infant after birth does not remove all of the maternal blood.

Question 18

18. The nurse notes that a patient who has given birth 1 hour ago is touching her infant with her fingertips and talking to him softly in high-pitched tones. Based on this observation, which action should the nurse take?
    a.
    Request a social service consult for psychosocial support.
    b.
    Observe for other signs that the mother may not be accepting of the infant.
    c.
    Document this evidence of normal early maternal-infant attachment behavior.
    d.
    Determine whether the mother is too fatigued to interact normally with her infant.

Answer 18

ANS: C
Normal early maternal-infant behaviors are tentative and include fingertip touch, eye contact, and using a high-pitched voice when talking to the infant. There is no indication at this point that a social service consult is necessary. The signs are of normal attachment behavior. These are signs of normal attachment behavior; no other assessment is necessary at this point. The mother may be fatigued but is interacting with the infant in an expected manner.

Question 19

19. Which nursing diagnosis would take priority in the care of a primipara patient with no visible support person in attendance? The patient has entered the second stage of labor after a first stage of labor lasting 4 hours.
    a.
    Fluid volume deficit (FVD) related to fluid loss during labor and birth process
    b.
    Fatigue related to length of labor requiring increased energy expenditure
    c.
    Acute pain related to increased intensity of contractions
    d.
    Anxiety related to imminent birth process

Answer 19

ANS: D
A primipara is experiencing the birthing event for the first time and may experience anxiety due to fear of the unknown. It would be important to recognize this because the patient is alone in the labor-birth room and will need additional support and reassurance. Although FVD may occur as a result of fluid loss, prospective management of labor patients includes the use of parenteral fluid therapy; the patient should be monitored for FVD and, if symptoms warrant, receive intervention. Because the patient has been in labor for 4 hours, this is not considered to be a prolonged labor pattern for a primipara patient. Although the patient may be tired, this nursing diagnosis would not be a priority unless there were other symptoms manifested. The patient is entering the second stage of labor; therefore she will be allowed to push with contractions. In terms of pain management, medication will not be administered at this time because of imminent birth.

Question 20

20. Which of the following behaviors would be applicable to a nursing diagnosis of “risk for injury” in a patient who is in labor?
    a.
    Length of second-stage labor is 2 hours.
    b.
    Patient has received an epidural for pain control during the labor process.
    c.
    Patient is using breathing techniques during contractions to maximize pain relief.
    d.
    Patient is receiving parenteral fluids during the course of labor to maintain hydration.

Answer 20

ANS: B
A patient who has received medication during labor is at risk for injury as a result of altered sensorium, so this presentation is applicable to the diagnosis. A length of 2 hours for the second stage of labor is within the range of normal. Breathing techniques help maintain control over the labor process. Fluids administered during the labor process are used to prevent potential fluid volume deficit.

Question 21

21. A nursing priority during admission of a laboring patient who has not had prenatal care is
    a.
    obtaining admission labs.
    b.
    identifying labor risk factors.
    c.
    discussing her birth plan choices.
    d.
    explaining importance of prenatal care.

Answer 21

ANS: B
When a patient has not had prenatal care, the nurse must determine through interviewing and examination the presence of any pregnancy or labor risk factors, obtain admission labs, and discuss birth plan choices. Explaining the importance of prenatal care can be accomplished after the patient’s history has been completed.

Question 22

22. The patient in labor experiences a spontaneous rupture of membranes. Which information related to this event must the nurse include in the patient’s record?
    a.
    Fetal heart rate
    b.
    Pain level
    c.
    Test results ensuring that the fluid is not urine
    d.
    The patient’s understanding of the event

Answer 22

ANS: A
Charting related to membrane rupture includes the time, FHR, and character and amount of the fluid. Pain is not associated with this event. When it is obvious that the fluid is amniotic fluid, which is anticipated during labor, it is not necessary to verify this by testing. The patient’s understanding of the event would only need to be documented if it presents a problem.

Question 23

23. The nurse assesses the amniotic fluid. Which characteristic presents the lowest risk of fetal complications?
    a.
    Bloody
    b.
    Clear with bits of vernix caseosa
    c.
    Green and thick
    d.
    Yellow and cloudy with foul odor

Answer 23

ANS: B
Amniotic fluid should be clear and may include bits of vernix caseosa, the creamy white fetal skin lubricant. Green fluid indicates that the fetus passed meconium before birth. The newborn may need extra respiratory suctioning at birth if the fluid is heavily stained with meconium. Cloudy, yellowish, strong-smelling, or foul-smelling fluid suggests infection. Bloody fluid may indicate partial placental separation.

Question 24

24. The nurse is preparing to initiate intravenous (IV) access on a patient in the active phase of labor. Which size IV cannula is best for this patient?
    a.
    18-gauge
    b.
    20-gauge
    c.
    22-gauge
    d.
    24-gauge

Answer 24

ANS: A
The nurse should select the largest bore cannula possible. An 18-gauge cannula is the largest size available. A 24-gauge cannula would be the smallest. IV access is initiated for hydration prior to epidural placement and for use in an emergency. Both require the rapid administration of fluid, which is most easily accomplished with a large bore cannula.

Question 25

25. The nurse is reviewing the cardinal maneuvers of labor and birth with a group of nursing students. Which maneuver will immediately follow the birth of the baby’s head?
    a.
    Expulsion
    b.
    Restitution
    c.
    Internal rotation
    d.
    External rotation

Answer 25

ANS: B
After the head emerges, it realigns with the shoulders (restitution). External rotation occurs as the fetal shoulders rotate internally, aligning their transverse diameter with the anteroposterior diameter of the pelvic outlet. Expulsion occurs when the baby is completely delivered. Internal rotation occurs prior to birth of the head.

Question 26

26. The nurse is performing Leopold’s maneuvers on her patient. Which figure depicts the Leopold’s maneuver that determines whether the fetal presenting part is engaged in the maternal pelvis? Refer to Figures A to D.
    a.
    b.
    c.
    d.

Answer 26

ANS: C
The maneuver that determines whether the presenting part is engaged (widest diameter at or below a zero station) in the maternal pelvis is performed by palpating the suprapubic area. Next, an attempt is made to grasp the presenting part gently between the thumb and fingers. If the presenting part is not engaged, the grasping movement of the fingers moves it upward in the uterus. If the presenting part is engaged, the fetus will not move upward in the uterus. Palpating the uterine fundus distinguishes between a cephalic and breech presentation. Holding the left hand steady on one side of the uterus while palpating the opposite side of the uterus determines on which side of the uterus is the fetal back and on which side are the fetal arms and legs. Placing your hands on each side of the uterus with fingers pointed toward the inlet determines whether the head is flexed (vertex) or extended (face).

Question 27

27. After a forceps-assisted birth, the patient is observed to have continuous bright red lochia and a firm fundus. Which other data would indicate the presence of a potential vaginal wall hematoma?
    a.
    Lack of an episiotomy
    b.
    Mild, intermittent perineal pain
    c.
    Lack of pain in the perineal area
    d.
    Edema and discoloration of the labia and perineum

Answer 27

ANS: D
The nurse should monitor for edema and discoloration. Using a cold application to the labia and perineum reduces pain by numbing the area and limiting bruising and edema for the first 12 hours. An episiotomy is performed as the fetal head distends the perineum. The pain with vaginal hematoma is severe and constant. The pain associated with vaginal hematoma is severe.

Question 28

28. Which patient presentation is an acceptable indication for serial oxytocin induction of labor?
    a.
    Multiple fetuses
    b.
    Polyhydramnios
    c.
    History of long labors
    d.
    Past 42 weeks of gestation

Answer 28

ANS: D
Continuing a pregnancy past the normal gestational period is likely to be detrimental to fetal health. Multiple fetuses overdistend the uterus, making induction of labor high risk. Polyhydramnios also overdistends the uterus, creating a high risk for induction. A history of rapid labors is a reason for induction of labor because of the possibility that the baby would otherwise be born in uncontrolled circumstances.

Question 29

29. The nurse is explaining the technique of internal version to a nursing orientee. Which statement best describes the technique of internal version?
    a.
    Manipulation of the fetus from a breech to a cephalic presentation before labor
    begins
    b.
    Manipulation of the fetus from a transverse lie to a longitudinal lie before cesarean birth
    c.
    Manipulation of the second twin from an oblique lie to a transverse lie before labor begins
    d.
    Manipulation of the second twin from a transverse lie to a breech presentation during vaginal birth

Answer 29

ANS: D
Internal version is used only during vaginal birth to manipulate the second twin into a presentation that allows it to be born vaginally. For internal version to occur, the cervix needs to be completely dilated. For internal version to occur, the cervix needs to be dilated. Internal version is done to turn the second twin after the first twin is born.

Question 30

30. A maternal indication for the use of vacuum extraction is
    a.
    a wide pelvic outlet.
    b.
    maternal exhaustion.
    c.
    a history of rapid deliveries.
    d.
    failure to progress past 0 station.

Answer 30

ANS: B
The patient who is exhausted will be unable to assist with the expulsion of the fetus. With a wide pelvic outlet, vacuum extraction would not be necessary. With a rapid birth, vacuum extraction would not be necessary. A station of 0 is too high for a vacuum extraction.

Question 31

31. For which patient should the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion be discontinued immediately?
    a.
    A patient in transition with contractions every 2 minutes lasting 90 seconds each
    b.
    A patient in early labor with contractions every 5 minutes lasting 40 seconds each
    c.
    A patient in active labor with contractions every 3 minutes lasting 60 seconds each
    d.
    A patient in active labor with contractions every 2 to 3 minutes lasting 70 to 80 seconds each

Answer 31

ANS: A
This patient’s contraction pattern represents hyperstimulation, and inadequate resting time occurs between contractions to allow placental perfusion. Oxytocin may assist this patient’s contractions to become closer and more efficient when the contractions are 5 minutes apart. There is an appropriate resting period between this patient’s contractions. There is an appropriate resting period between this patient’s contractions for her stage of labor.

Question 32

32. Immediately following the forceps-assisted birth of an infant, which action should the nurse implement?
    a.
    Assess the infant for signs of trauma.
    b.
    Apply a cold pack to the infant’s scalp.
    c.
    Give the infant prophylactic antibiotics.
    d.
    Measure the circumference of the infant’s head.

Answer 32

ANS: A
Forceps birth can result in local irritation, bruising, or lacerations of the fetal scalp. This would put the infant at risk for cold stress and would be contraindicated. Prophylactic antibiotics are not necessary with a forceps birth. Measuring the circumference of the head is part of the initial nursing assessment.

Question 33

33. While assisting with a vacuum extraction birth, which alteration should the nurse immediately report to the obstetric provider?
    a.
    Maternal pulse rate of 100 bpm
    b.
    Maternal blood pressure of 120/70 mm Hg
    c.
    Persistent fetal bradycardia below 100 bpm
    d.
    Decreased intensity of uterine contractions

Answer 33

ANS: C
Fetal bradycardia may indicate fetal distress and may require immediate intervention. Maternal pulse rate may increase due to the pushing process. Blood pressure of 120/70 mm Hg is within expected norms for this stage of labor. Decreased intensity of uterine contractions indicates the birth is imminent at this point.

Question 34

34. To monitor for potential hemorrhage in the patient who has just had a cesarean birth, which action should the recovery room nurse implement?
    a.
    Monitor her urinary output.
    b.
    Maintain an intravenous infusion at 1 mL/hour.
    c.
    Assess the abdominal dressings for drainage.
    d.
    Assess the uterus for firmness every 15 minutes.

Answer 34

ANS: D
Maintaining contraction of the uterus is important for controlling bleeding from the placental site. Maintaining proper fluid balance will not control hemorrhage. Monitoring urine output is an important assessment, but hemorrhage will first be noted vaginally. Assessing the abdominal dressing is an important assessment to prevent future hemorrhaging from occurring but is not the first priority assessment in the recovery room.

Question 35

35. The nurse is preparing to administer a vaginal prostaglandin preparation to ripen the cervix of her patient. With which patient should the nurse question the use of vaginal prostaglandin as a cervical ripening agent?
    a.
    The patient who has a Bishop’s score of 5
    b.
    The patient who is at 42 weeks of gestation
    c.
    The patient who had a previous low transverse cesarean birth
    d.
    The patient who had previous surgery in the upper uterus

Answer 35

ANS: D
Prostaglandins are contraindicated in patients who have had a previous surgery in the upper uterus, such as a previous classic cesarean incision or extensive surgery for uterine fibroids. A side effect of prostaglandin administration is hyperstimulation of the uterus. A Bishop’s score of 5, 42 weeks of gestation, or a previous low transverse cesarean birth are not contraindications for cervical ripening.

Question 36

36. A patient who is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion for the augmentation of labor is experiencing a contraction pattern of more than eight contractions in a 10-minute period. Which intervention would be a priority?
    a.
    Increase rate of Pitocin infusion to help spread out contraction pattern.
    b.
    Place oxygen on patient at 8 to 10 L/minute via face mask and turn patient to left side.
    c.
    Stop Pitocin infusion.
    d.
    Call physician to obtain an order for initiation of magnesium sulfate.

Answer 36

ANS: C
The patient is exhibiting uterine tachysystole (uterine tetany). Priority intervention is to stop the infusion. The next course of action is to place oxygen on the patient and reposition and increase the flow rate of the primary infusion. If the condition does not improve, the physician may be called for additional orders.

Question 37

37. On vaginal exam, the patient’s cervix is anterior, soft, 70% effaced, dilated 2 cm, and the presenting part is at 0 station. The Bishop’s score for this patient is
    a.
    6.
    b.
    9.
    c.
    10.
    d.
    12.

Answer 37

ANS: B
On the Bishop’s scoring system, an anterior cervix = 2 points, soft cervix = 2 points, 70% effaced = 2 points, 2 cm dilated = 1 point, and 0 station = 2 points, for a total score of 9.

Question 38

38. Which assessment would be important for a 6-hour-old infant who has bruising over the cheeks from a forceps birth?
    a.
    Presence of newborn reflexes
    b.
    Symmetry of facial movements
    c.
    Caput and molding of the head
    d.
    Anterior and posterior fontanels

Answer 38

ANS: B
Following a forceps birth, the infant may have ecchymoses and facial nerve injury. Facial asymmetry suggests facial nerve damage. Changes in newborn reflexes, presence of caput and molding, and changes in the anterior and posterior fontanels are not risks associated with trauma to the infant’s face.

Question 39

39. Which aspect of newborn assessment may be limited by the application of a vacuum extractor at birth?
    a.
    Anterior fontanel
    b.
    Coronal suture lines
    c.
    Posterior fontanel
    d.
    Biparietal diameter

Answer 39

ANS: C
The vacuum extractor is applied on the occipital bone and may create scalp edema at the application site. The posterior fontanel connects the occipital bone to the parietal bones. The anterior fontanel, coronal suture lines, and parietal bones are not part of the application area for a vacuum extractor.

Question 40

40. Which breech presentation should the nurse recognize as being favorable for an external cephalic version?
    a.
    36-week gestation with low-lying placenta
    b.
    38-week gestation with one previous cesarean
    c.
    37-week gestation with fetal weight of 7 lb
    d.
    40-week gestation with several uterine fibroids

Answer 40

ANS: C
An external cephalic version (changing the fetal presentation from breech to cephalic) is more successful when the pregnancy is at least 37 weeks and there is still adequate room and fluid to manipulate the fetus but prior to term or onset of labor. A low-lying placenta, previous cesarean birth, and uterine fibroids are contraindications for version.

Question 41

41. Following an external cephalic version, which assessment finding indicates a complication? a.
    Onset of irregular contractions
    b.
    Maternal blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
    c.
    Deceleration of FHR to 88 bpm
    d.
    Maternal pulse rate of 100 bpm

Answer 41

ANS: C
A serious risk of external cephalic version is that the fetus may become entangled in the umbilical cord, compressing its vessels and resulting in hypoxia. The onset of irregular contractions, maternal blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, and maternal pulse rate of 100 bpm are normal findings.

Question 42

42. The pregnant patient expresses a desire to schedule birth during the baby’s father’s furlough from military service. The nurse explains that prior to induction of labor, it is essential to determine which clinical finding?
    a.
    Dilated cervix
    b.
    Fetal lung maturity
    c.
    Rupture of membranes
    d.
    Uterine hypertonia

Answer 42

ANS: B
Reassurance of fetal lung maturity is essential before elective procedures such as induction or cesarean. The cervix must be favorable for dilation but need not be dilated prior to induction. Prior rupture of membranes is not necessary for induction. Uterine hypertonia is a risk factor associated with induction of labor.

Question 43

43. The labor nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient admitted in active labor with spontaneous rupture of the membranes 6 hours prior to admission with clear fluid. On admission, vital signs were as follows: maternal heart rate (HR) 92 bpm; fetal rate (FHR) baseline, 150 to 160 bpm; blood pressure, 124/76 mm Hg; temperature 37.2 C (99 F). What is the priority nursing action for this patient?
    a.
    Fetal acoustic stimulation
    b.
    Assess temperature every 2 hours
    c.
    Change absorption pads under her hips every 2 hours
    d.
    Review white blood cell count (WBC) drawn at admission

Answer 43

ANS: B
The woman’s temperature should be assessed at least every 2 to 4 hours after the membranes rupture. Elevations above 38C (100.4F) should be reported. A rising FHR and fetal tachycardia (above 160 bpm) may precede maternal fever. The fetal heart rate is at the high end of the acceptable range and the maternal temperature is slightly above normal. These parameters warrant watching closely with more frequent vital signs. The WBC is often falsely elevated in labor, largely related to the stress of labor. The FHR with a baseline of 150 to 160 bpm demonstrates moderate variability, and fetal acoustic stimulation is not warranted. Amniotic fluid is emitted from the vagina at variable rates and the underpad needs to be changed as needed.

Question 44

SATA:
1. A laboring patient is 10 cm dilated; however, she does not feel the urge to push. The nurse understands that according to laboring down, the advantages of waiting until an urge to push are which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Less maternal fatigue
b.
Less birth canal injuries
c.
Decreased pushing time
d.
Faster descent of the fetus
e.
An increase in frequency of contractions

Answer 44

ANS: A, B, C
Delayed pushing has been shown to result in less maternal fatigue and decreased pushing time. Pushing vigorously sooner than the onset of the reflexive urge may contribute to birth canal injury because her vaginal tissues are stretched more forcefully and rapidly than if she pushed spontaneously and in response to her body’s signals. A brief slowing of contractions often occurs at the beginning of the second stage.

Question 45

SATA:
2. Which interventions should be performed in the birth room to facilitate thermoregulation of the newborn? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Place the infant covered with blankets in the radiant warmer. b.
Dry the infant off with sterile towels.
c.
Place stockinette cap on infant’s head.
d.
Bathe the newborn within 30 minutes of birth.
e.
Remove wet linen as needed.

Answer 45

ANS: B, C, E
Following birth, the newborn is at risk for hypothermia. Therefore nursing interventions are aimed at maintaining warmth. Drying the infant off, in addition to maintaining warmth, helps stimulate crying and lung expansion, which helps in the transition period following birth. Placing a cap on the infant’s head helps prevent heat loss. Removal of wet linens helps minimize further heat loss caused by exposure. Newborns should not be covered while in a radiant warmer with blankets because this will impede birth of heat transfer. Bathing a newborn should be delayed for at least a few hours so that the newborn temperature can stabilize during the transition period.

Question 46

SATA:
3. When caring for a patient in labor who is considered to be at low risk, which assessments should be included in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Check the DTR each shift.
b.
Monitor and record vital signs frequently during the course of labor.
c.
Document the FHR pattern, noting baseline and response to contraction patterns.
d.
Indicate on the EFM tracing when maternal position changes are done.
e.
Provide food, as tolerated, during the course of labor.

Answer 46

ANS: B, C, D
Nursing care of the normal laboring patient would include monitoring and documentation of vital signs as part of the labor assessment, documentation the FHR, checking patterns to look for assurance of fetal well-being by evaluating baseline and the fetal response to contraction patterns, and noting any position changes on the monitor tracing to evaluate the fetal response. Providing dietary offerings during the course of labor is not part of the nursing care plan because the introduction of food may lead to nausea and vomiting in response to the labor process and might affect the mode of birth.

Question 47

SATA:
4. The nurse is monitoring a patient in the active stage of labor. Which conditions associated with fetal compromise should the nurse monitor? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Maternal hypotension
b.
Fetal heart rate of 140 to 150 bpm
c.
Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
d.
Maternal fever—38C (100.4F) or higher e.
Complete uterine relaxation of more than 30 seconds between contractions

Answer 47

ANS: A, C, D
Conditions associated with fetal compromise include maternal hypotension (may divert blood flow away from the placenta to ensure adequate perfusion of the maternal brain and heart), meconium-stained (greenish) amniotic fluid, and maternal fever (38C [100.4F] or higher). Fetal heart rate of 110 to 160 bpm for a term fetus is normal. Complete uterine relaxation is a normal finding.

Question 48

SATA:
5. The nurse is caring for a patient in the fourth stage of labor. Which assessment findings should the nurse identify as a potential complication? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Soft boggy uterus
b.
Maternal temperature of 37.2C (99F)
c.
High uterine fundus displaced to the right
d.
Intense vaginal pain unrelieved by analgesics
e.
Half of a lochia pad saturated in the first hour after birth

Answer 48

ANS: A, C, D
Assessment findings that may indicate a potential complication in the fourth stage include a soft boggy uterus, high uterine fundus displaced to the right, and intense vaginal pain unrelieved by analgesics. The maternal temperature may be slightly elevated after birth because of the inflammation to tissues, and half of a lochia pad saturated in the first hour after birth is within expected amounts.

Question 49

6. Induction of labor is considered an acceptable obstetric procedure if it is a safe time to deliver the fetus. The charge nurse on the labor and birth unit is often asked to schedule patients for this procedure and therefore must be cognizant of the specific conditions appropriate for labor induction, including which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
   a.
   Fetal death
   b.
   Postterm pregnancy
   c.
   Rupture of membranes at or near term
   d.
   Convenience of the patient or her health care provider
   e.
   Chorioamnionitis (inflammation of the amniotic sac)

Answer 49

ANS: A, B, C, E
Fetal death, postterm pregnancy, rupture of members, and chorioamnionitis are all acceptable indications for induction. Other conditions include intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR), maternal-fetal blood incompatibility, hypertension, and placental abruption. Elective inductions for convenience of the patient or her provider are not recommended; however, they have become common. Factors such as rapid labors and living a long distance from a health care facility may be a valid reason in such a circumstance.

Question 50

Med Cal
1. The nurse in the birth room receives an order to give a newborn 0.3 mg of naloxone (Narcan) intramuscularly. The medication vial reads naloxone (Narcan), 0.4 mg/mL. The nurse should prepare how many milliliters to administer the correct dose? Fill in the blank and record your answer using two decimal places. _____ mL

Answer 50

ANS:
0.75
Use the medication calculation formula to calculate the correct dose:
Desired/available volume = milliliters per dose
(0.3 mg/0.4 mg) 1 mL = 0.75 mL/dose