NP V Flashcards
- A young man was running along an ocean pier; tripped on an elevated area of the decking, and struck his head on the pier railing. According to his friends, “He was unconscious briefly and then became alert and behaved as though nothing had happend.” Shortly afterward, he began complaining of a headache and asked to be taken to the emergency department. If the client’s ICP is increasing, the nurse would expect to observe which of the following signs first?
A. Pupillary asymmetry
B. Irregular breathing pattern
C. Abnormal posturing
D. Declining LOC
D. Declining LOC
RATIONALE
Earliest sign: Altered LOC
A, B, and C are late signs.
- A 50 year old construction worker is brought to the hospital unconscious after falling from a 2-story building. When assessing the client, the nurse would be most concerned if the assessment revealed:
A. Reactive pupils
B. A depressed fontanel
C. Bruising on the mastoid bone
D. An elevated temperature
C. Bruising on the mastoid bone
RATIONALE
Battle sign which indicates Basal skull fracture.
A Normal
B For newborn with DHN
D Problem with hypothalamus; not life threatening
- A client arrives at the emergency department after slipping on a patch of ice and hitting her head. A CT scan of the head shows a collection of blood between the skull and dura mater. Which type of head injury does this finding suggest?
A. Subdural hematoma
B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
C. Epidural hematoma
D. Contusion
C. Epidural hematoma
RATIONALE
A Between dura mater and arachnoid
B Between arachnoid and pia mater
D Bruising of brain
- The nurse is aware that the most common manifestation of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm would be:
A. Tonic-clonic seizures
B. Decerebrate posturing
C. Narrowed pulse pressure
D. Sudden severe headache
D. Sudden severe headache
- Which of the following is TRUE regarding ICP?
A. Usually presents with headache when diminished
B. Valsalva is recommended in order to decrease ICP
C. Elevated in patients with acute bacterial meningitis
D. Patient’s position has no effect on ICP
C. Elevated in patients with acute bacterial meningitis
RATIONALE
A ⬆️ICP = headache
B Not recommended
D ⬆️HOB = ⬇️ICP ; ⬇️HOB = ⬆️ICP
- A client has a sustained ICP of 20 mmHg. The nurse should position the client:
A. With the HOB elevated 30 - 45 degrees
B. In trendelenburg position
C. In left Sim’s position
D. With the HOB elevated on two pillows
A. With the HOB elevated 30 - 45 degrees
RATIONALE
Position: LF - SF (30 - 45 degrees)
Best: LF (to prevent herniation)
B and C don’t decrease ICP
D is LF but flexes the neck which should be center, midline and neutral in position
- If a client with increased ICP demonstrates decorticate posturing, the nurse will observe:
A. Flexion of both upper and lower extremities
B. Extension of elbows and knees, plantar flexion of feet, flexion of the wrists
C. Flexion of elbows, extension of the knees, plantar flexion of the feet
D. Extension of upper extremities, flexion of lower extremities
C. Flexion of elbows, extension of the knees, plantar flexion of the feet
- The least serious form of brain trauma, characterized by a brief loss of consciousness and period of confusion, is called:
A. Contussion
B. Concussion
C. Basilar skull fracture
D. Cerebral aneurysm
B. Concussion
RATIONALE
No brain damage.
A Bruising of brain which may cause brain damage; serious form of brain trauma
C #2 dangerous
D #1 dangerous
- A client is receiving infusion of Mannitol (Osmitrol) after undergoing intracranial surgery to remove a brain tumor. To determine whether this drug is producing its therapeutic effect, the nurse should consider which finding most significant?
A. Decreased level of consciousness
B. Increased urine output
C. Elevated BP
D. Decreased heart rate
B. Increased urine output
- A 23-year old client has been hit on the head with a baseball bat. The nurse notes clear fluid draining from his ears and nose. Which of the following nursing intervention should be done first?
A. Position the client flat in bed
B. Instruct client to blow his nose
C. Suction the nose to maintain airway patency
D. Insert nasal and ear packing with sterile gauze
D. Insert nasal and ear packing with sterile gauze
RATIONALE
There may be a skull fracture causing CSF leakage; patient is risk for infection. Management should include prevention of meningitis.
A, B, and C exacerbates the already high ICP.
- A client has a diagnosis of a stroke versus transient ischemic attack. Which if the following statements shows the difference between a TIA and a stroke?
A. TIAs typically resolve within 24 hours
B. TIAs may be hemorrhagic in origin
C. TIAs may cause a permanent motor deficit
D. TIAs may predispose the client to MI
A. TIAs typically resolve within 24 hours
RATIONALE
TIA is a mild stroke and resolves within 24 hours
B Correct: Ischemic in origin
C Correct: Temporary only
D Correct: Predisposes to CVA
- A client with thrombotic CVA experiences periods of emotional lability. The client alternately laughs and cries and intermittently becomes irritable and demanding. The nurse interprets that this behavior indicates that the:
A. Problem is likely to get worse before it gets better
B. Client is experiencing the usual sequel of CVA
C. Client is not adapting well to the disability
D. Client is experiencing side effects of the prescribed anticoagulants
B. Client is experiencing the usual sequel of CVA
RATIONALE
Patients with CVA manifest emotional lability or mood swing.
- A client with a stroke has right sided hemianopsia. The nurse plans to do which of the following to help the client adapt to his visual deficit?
A. Place all objects within the left visual field
B. Patch the client’s eye
C. Ensure that the family brings the client’s eyeglasses to the hospital
D. Teach the client to scan the environment
D. Teach the client to scan the environment
- For the client who is experiencing expressive aphasia, which nursing intervention is most helpful in promoting communication?
A. Speaking loudly
B. Give client a pen and a paper
C. Writing direction so the client can read them
D. Use gestures without speaking
B. Give client a pen and a paper
- The nurse is teaching the family of the client with dysphagia about decreasing the risk of aspiration while eating. Which of the following strategies is inappropriate?
A. Maintain an upright position
B. Restricting the diet to liquid until swallowing improves
C. Introducing foods on the unaffected side of the mouth
D. Assess gag reflex before feeding
B. Restricting the diet to liquid until swallowing improves
RATIONALE
Risk for aspiration.
- A nurse is caring for a client who sustained a spinal cord injury. While the nurse is administering morning care, the client develops S/Sx of autonomic dysreflexia. The initial nursing action would be to:
A. Place the client in the prone position
B. Elevate the head of the bed
C. Digitally examine the rectum
D. Assess the client’s blood pressure
B. Elevate the head of the bed
RATIONALE
Decreases BP and prevents stroke.
- After a MVA, a client is admitted to the medical surgical unit with a cervical collar in place. The cervical spinal X-ray has not been read, so the nurse doesn’t know whether the client has a cervical spinal injury. When such an injury is ruled out, the nurse should restrict this client to which position?
A. Flat, with pillows under the knee
B. Supine, with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees
C. Flat, except for logrolling as needed
D. A head elevation of 90 degrees to prevent cerebral swelling
C. Flat, except for logrolling as needed
- Which of the following clients on the rehabilitation unit is most likely to develop autonomic dysreflexia?
A. A client with brain injury
B. A client with herniated nucleus pulposus
C. A client with a high cervical spine injury
D. A client with a stroke
C. A client with a high cervical spine injury
- A client is admitted with a spinal cord injury at the level of T12. He has limited movement of the upper extremities. Which of the following medications would be used to control edema of the spinal cord?
A. Acetazolamide
B. Furosemide
C. Methylprednisolone
D. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Methylprednisolone
RATIONALE
It is anti-inflammatory.
- A client is admitted with a cervical spine injury sustained during driving accident. When planning the client’s care. The nurse should assign highest priority to which nursing diagnosis?
A. Airway patency
B. Impaired mobility
C. Ineffective breathing pattern
D. Dressing or grooming self-care deficit
C. Ineffective breathing pattern
RATIONALE
In the situation, there is possible injury of the diaphragm which may cause respiratory paralysis.
A Not a nursing diagnosis
B and D are irrelevant
- A hospitalized client had a tonic-clonic seizure while walking in the hall. During the seizure, the nurse’s priority should be:
A. Hold the client’s arms and legs firmly
B. Place the client immediately to soft surface
C. Protect the client’s head from injury
D. Attempt to insert a tongue depressor between the client’s teeth
C. Protect the client’s head from injury
- The nurse obtains a history from the father of a six year old boy with a history of epilepsy admitted with uncontrolled seizures. It is MOST important for the nurse to ask which of the following questions?
A. “What part of the body was affected by the seizure?”
B. “Is there a family history of seizure disorders?”
C. “What was your son been doing before the seizure?”
D. “How long has it been since his last episode of seizures?”
C. “What was your son been doing before the seizure?”
RATIONALE
Assesses what have triggered the onset of seizure.
- Which of this should the nurse not refrain from doing if a patient is having seizure?
A. Suction her PRN
B. Apply restraint to both arms
C. Raise the bedside rails
D. Put mouth gag in her mouth
C. Raise the bedside rails
Tip: Process of elimination.
- A client with epilepsy is having seizure. During the active seizure phase, the nurse should:
A. Place the client on his back, remove dangerous objects, and insert a bite block
B. Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects and insert a bite block
C. Place the client on his back, remove dangerous objects, and hold down his arms
D. Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects, and protect his head
D. Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects, and protect his head
Tip: Process of elimination.
- The patient was diagnosed of having Grand Mal Seizure (tonic-clonic). As part of seizure precaution, which of the following is the initial action to do?
A. Remove sharp objects
B. Facilitate dimming of light
C. Pad the side rails
D. Protect the patient’s head
B. Facilitate dimming of light
RATIONALE
Prevents triggering seizure.
A, C, and D prevents injury of an active seizure.
- To limit triggering the pain associated with Trigeminal neuralgia, the nurse should instruct the client to:
A. Drink iced liquids
B. Avoid oral hygiene
C. Apply warm compress
D. Chew on unaffected side
D. Chew on unaffected side
- A nurse is caring for a client with Trigeminal Neuralgia (Tic doloureux). The client asks for a snack and something to drink. The nurse determines that the most appropriate choice for this client to meet nutritional needs is:
A. Hot herbal tea with graham crackers
B. Iced coffee and peanut butter and crackers
C. Vanilla wafers and room temperature water
D. Cocoa with honey and toast
C. Vanilla wafers and room temperature water
RATIONALE
Tip: Process of elimination.
A Hot is incorrect.
B Iced is incorrect.
D Toast is hard.
- The nurse would expect a client with tic douloureux to exhibit?
A. Multiple petechiae
B. Unilateral facial muscle weakness
C. Excruciating facial and head pain
D. Uncontrollable tremors in the eyelid
C. Excruciating facial and head pain
- The nurse has given the client with Bell’s Palsy instructions on preserving muscle tone in the face and preventing denervation. The nurse determines that the client needs additional information if the client stated to:
A. Expose the face to cold and drafts
B. Massage the face with a gentle-upward motion
C. Wrinkle the forehead, blow-out the cheeks, and whistle
D. NOTA
A. Expose the face to cold and drafts
RATIONALE
Triggers pain.
- Nursing care of a client with Bell’s Palsy includes:
A. Managing incontinence
B. Assisting with ambulation
C. Preventing corneal damage
D. Maintaining seizure precautions
C. Preventing corneal damage
RATIONALE
In Bell’s Palsy, there is incomplete eye closure.
- The nurse is completing an admission interview for a client with Parkinson’s disease. Which question will provide additional information about manifestations the client is likely to experience?
A. “Have you ever experienced any paralysis of your arms or legs?”
B. “Do you experience trembling of your hands when trying to reach for something?”
C. “Have you ever been “frozen” in one spot, unable to move?”
D. “Do you have headaches, especially one with throbbing pain?”
C. “Have you ever been “frozen” in one spot, unable to move?”
RATIONALE
Asking for akinesia, a sign of Parkinson’s disease.
A and D are irrelevant
C Intentional tremors refer to MS, PD has resting tremors
- A client with Parkinson’s disease is on Levodopa - Carbidopa (Sinemet) therapy. Which of the following should be included in health teachings to the client?
- Instruct the client to avoid aged cheese, wine, chocolate, and liver
- Advise the client to change position slowly
- Reassure the client that this medication may be discontinued as his condition improves
- Explain to the client that the medication improves muscle flexibility
- Inform client that his urine will be reddish
- Advise the client to avoid taking Vitamin B6 supplement
A. 12345
B. 12456
C. 23456
D. 12346
B. 12456
RATIONALE
6 Avoid Vit B6 because it is antagonist.
3 Correct: For life
- Which goal is the most realistic and appropriate for a client diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease?
A. To cure the disease
B. To stop the progression of the disease
C. To begin preparation for terminal care
D. To maintain optimal body function
D. To maintain optimal body function
- Which of the following will the nurse interpret that the patient with Parkinson’s disease has developed micrographia?
A. Patient can only swallow little amounts
B. Patient stands with the head bent forward and walks with a propulsive gait
C. Patient’s writing becomes slow with tiny letters
D. Patient has excessive, uncontrolled sweating
C. Patient’s writing becomes slow with tiny letters
RATIONALE
A Dysphagia
B Shuffling gait
D Diaphoresis
- Two days after starting therapy with benztropine mesylate (Cogentin), a client complains of a dry mouth. Which of the following nursing interventions would best relieve the client’s dry mouth?
A. Offer the client ice chips and frequent sips of water
B. Withhold the drug and notify the physician
C. Change the client’s diet to clear liquid until the symptoms subside
D. Encourage the use of supplemental puddings and shakes to maintain weight
A. Offer the client ice chips and frequent sips of water
- A client with myasthenia gravis is taking neostigmine bromide (Prostigmin). The nurse determines that the client is gaining a therapeutic effect from the medication if which of the following is noted?
A. Improved swallowing
B. Increased heart rate
C. Bradycardia
D. Decrease in BP
A. Improved swallowing
RATIONALE
Prostigmine increases muscle strength relieving patient from dysphagia.
- Karnina, a client with myasthenia gravis is to receive immunosuppressive therapy. The nurse understands that this therapy is effective because it:
A. Promotes the removal of antibodies that impair the transmission of impulses
B. Stimulates the production of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
C. Decreases the production of antibodies that attack the acetylcholine receptors
D. Inhibits the breakdown of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
C. Decreases the production of antibodies that attack the acetylcholine receptors
RATIONALE
Immunosuppressive therapies such as corticosteroids suppresses the immune system.
- A client with suspected myasthenia gravis is to undergo a tensilon test. Tensilon is used to diagnose - but not treat - myasthenia gravis. Why isn’t it used for treatment?
A. It isn’t available in oral form
B. With repeated use, immunosuppression may occur
C. Dry mouth and abdominal cramps may be intolerable adverse effects
D. The duration of tensilon makes it impractical for long term use
D. The duration of tensilon makes it impractical for long term use
RATIONALE
The exact duration of effect of Tensilon is only 3-5 minutes.
- A client with myasthenia gravis has been receiving Neostigmine (Prostigmin). This drug acts by:
A. Stimulating the cerebral cortex
B. Blocking the action of cholinesterase
C. Replacing deficient neurotransmitters
D. Accelerating transmission along neural swaths
B. Blocking the action of cholinesterase
RATIONALE
In MG, there is abnormal attacking of acetylcholine receptors by the cholinesterase. Prostigmine blocks the action of these cholinesterase.
- The nurse is teaching the client with MG about prevention of myasthenic and cholinergic crises. The nurse tells the client that this is most effectively done by:
A. Doing all chores early in the day while less fatigued
B. Taking medications on time to maintain therapeutic blood level
C. Doing muscle strengthening exercises
D. Eating large, well balanced meals
B. Taking medications on time to maintain therapeutic blood level
- Which of the following pathophysiologic processes are involved in multiple sclerosis?
A. Destruction of linea nigra
B. Degeneration of optic nerve
C. Chronic inflammation of axon
D. Development of demyelination of the myelin sheath
D. Development of demyelination of the myelin sheath
RATIONALE
In MS, there is demyelination of CNS.
- Which of the following measures would be included in teaching for the client with MS to avoid exacerbation of the disease?
A. Patching the affected eye
B. Taking hot baths for relaxation
C. Sleeping 8 hours each night
D. Drinking 1.5 to 2 L of fluid daily
C. Sleeping 8 hours each night
RATIONALE Resting counteracts exacerbation of MS which include: • Fatigue • Infection • Temp. extremes • Stress
- Which of the following clients would be most likely to develop multiple sclerosis?
A. A 20-year old soccer player
B. A 35-year old female teacher
C. A 45-year old, type A, male smoker
D. A 50-year old Black female with HPN
B. A 35-year old female teacher
RATIONALE Risk factors for MS: • Young adults (20-40 yo) • Women • Genetics • Stress
In the problem, patient has 2 counts: Age and stress
A 1 count: Age
C 1 count: stress (type A personality)
D No risk
- Which of the following symptoms usually occurs with exacerbation in MS?
A. Diplopia
B. Hemiparesis
C. Grief
D. Recent memory loss
A. Diplopia
- What instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan of a client who has been diagnosed with MS?
A. It is very important to engage in a progressive exercise program to build strength and endurance
B. It is important with the disease to relax muscles; a hot tub spa is a good form of relaxation
C. It is important to engage in social activity and volunteering to read to schoolchildren will keep you active
D. It is very important to develop a daily schedule that reduces fatigue and conserves energy
D. It is very important to develop a daily schedule that reduces fatigue and conserves energy
RATIONALE
Prevents exacerbation of MS (FITS).
A Promotes fatigue
B Temp. Extremes exacerbate MS
C Stressful activity
- What is the most dangerous complication of GBS?
A. Respiratory depression
B. Respiratory failure
C. Respiratory paralysis
D. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
C. Respiratory paralysis
RATIONALE
GBS has classic ascending paralysis.
- A client is admitted with a possible medical diagnosis of GBS. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask the client?
A. Have you had an MMR immunization?
B. Have you had a recent upper respiratory infection?
C. Have you had any recent travel to Great Britain?
D. Have you been to China in the last two weeks?
B. Have you had a recent upper respiratory infection?
RATIONALE
Risk factors of GBS include:
• Male (16-25; 45-60 yo)
• History of infection (viral)
- The client recently diagnosed with GBS is drooling and having difficulty swallowing secretions. When the family asks why this occurs, the nurse indicates that the cause is
A. Obstructed blood flow to the midbrain
B. Demyelination of cranial nerves responsible for swallowing and gag reflex
C. Enlargement of the parotid and salivary glands
D. Deficiency in the thiamine and pyridoxine in the central nervous system
B. Demyelination of cranial nerves responsible for swallowing and gag reflex
RATIONALE
In GBS, there is demyelination of PNS.
- The nurse knows that which of the following symptoms would be supportive of a diagnosis of GBS?
A. Hemiplegia, HPN, tachycardia
B. Respiratory failure, flaccid paralysis, urinary retention
C. Peripheral edema, HPN, pulmonary congestion
D. Diminished reflexes, pain, paresthesia
B. Respiratory failure, flaccid paralysis, urinary retention
- A client is hospitalized with GBS. Which nursing assessment finding is most significant?
A. Warm, dry skin
B. Soft, non-distended abdomen
C. Urine output of 40 cc/hr
D. Even, non-labored respirations
D. Even, non-labored respirations
RATIONALE
Indicates that GBS has not reached to its complication which is respiratory paralysis.
- An anxious teenage girl is brought to the interviewing room of a crisis shelter, sobbing and saying that she thinks she is pregnant but does not know what to do. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate at this time?
A. Ask the client about the type of things that she had thought of doing.
B. Give the client some ideas about what to expect to happen next
C. Recommend a pregnancy test after acknowledging the client’s distress
D. Question the client about her feelings and possible parental reactions
C. Recommend a pregnancy test after acknowledging the client’s distress
- A potentially pregnant 14-year-old client says that she and her boyfriend have engaged in mostly “heavy petting and necking.” Which of the following response by the nurse would be BEST initially?
A. “You mean you have had sexual intercourse?”
B. “Describe what you mean by heavy petting and necking.”
C. “I think we need to talk about what’s involved in sexual intercourse.”
D. “All you have been doing with your boyfriend is heavy petting and necking.”
B. “Describe what you mean by heavy petting and necking.”
- The nurse is assessing the client’s method of coping. A client who is being abused would be LEAST likely to demonstrate which of the following?
A. Assertiveness
B. Alcohol abuse
C. Self-blame
D. Suicidal thoughts
A. Assertiveness
- During the third session with the nurse, a client who is being abused states, “I don’t know what to do anymore. He doesn’t want me to go anywhere while he’s at work, not even to visit my friends.” Which of the following nursing diagnoses would the nurse formulate in respect to this information?
A. Risk for violence related to abusive husband, as evidenced by victim’s statement of being battered
B. Low self-esteem related to victimization, as evidenced by not being able to leave the house
C. Powerlessness related to abusive husband, as evidenced by inability to make decisions
D. Ineffective coping related to victimization, as evidenced by crying
C. Powerlessness related to abusive husband, as evidenced by inability to make decisions
- In working with any rape victim, which of the following would be most important?
A. Continuing to encourage the client to report the rape to the legal authorities
B. Recommending that the client resume sexual relations with her partner as soon as possible
C. Periodically reminding the client that she did not deserve and did not cause the rape
D. Telling the client that the rapist will eventually be caught, put on trial, and jailed
C. Periodically reminding the client that she did not deserve and did not cause the rape
- Which of the following symptoms common in individuals experiencing a crisis would a nurse expect to assess?
A. Feeling of depersonalization, loose association, flat affect
B. Lack of regard to social norms, apathy, hallucinations
C. Mood swings, feeling of boundless energy, grandiose beliefs
D. Somatic complaints, difficulty performing roles in life, poor concentration
D. Somatic complaints, difficulty performing roles in life, poor concentration
- A 40-year-old client says she would “rather die than be pregnant.” Which of the following responses by the nurse would be MOST helpful?
A. “Try not to worry until after the pregnancy test.”
B. “You know, pregnancy is a normal event.”
C. “You are only 40 years old and not too old to have a baby.”
D. “I see you’re upset. Take some deep breaths to relax a little.”
D. “I see you’re upset. Take some deep breaths to relax a little.”
- After the results of the pregnancy test for a 15-year old client are found to be negative, the nurse teaches her about sexual intercourse contraception. At the end of the teaching session, the client states, “No more fooling around for me!” Which of the following replies by the nurse would be most appropriate?
A. “Just in case, why don’t you try the pills for a while?”
B. “The last person who said that ended up having a baby.”
C. “It’s your decision, but if you change your mind, we’re here to help you.”
D. “Aren’t you being a little bit overconfident about it, as attractive as you are?”
C. “It’s your decision, but if you change your mind, we’re here to help you.”
- The family members of the victims of a three-car accident have arrived at the ER. A wife of one of the victims in the accident is sitting away from the others and crying. Which of the following actions by the nurse would be first?
A. Leave the wife alone to cry
B. Sit next to the wife and offer her some tissues
C. Call the physician for a sedative
D. Ask the wife if she would like to speak to the social worker
B. Sit next to the wife and offer her some tissues
- The nurse is employed at a crisis shelter that has several clients each day in a state of severe disorganization. An anxious teenage girl is brought to the interviewing room, sobbing and saying that she thinks she is pregnant but does not know what to do. Which of the following nursing interventions would be most appropriate at this time?
A. Ask the client what she had thought of doing
B. Give the client some ideas about what to do next
C. Summarize what the nurse heard and ask the client to confirm the nurse’s perceptions
D. Question the client in more detail about her feelings and about what her parents’ reactions are likely to be
C. Summarize what the nurse heard and ask the client to confirm the nurse’s perceptions
- When developing the plan of care for a client with personality disorder, the nurse expects to assist the client primarily with which of the following?
A. Specific dysfunctional behaviors
B. Examination of developmental conflicts
C. Psychopharmacologic compliance
D. Manipulation of the environment
A. Specific dysfunctional behaviors
- A client with Axis II diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder has been stealing equipment from his place of employment. He states, “It’s not a big deal. My boss can afford a few missing pieces. He doesn’t like me.” The nurse interprets the client’s behavior as indicative of problems in which if the following stage of growth and development defined by Erickson?
A. Trust vs. Mistrust
B. Initiative vs. Guilt
C. Autonomy vs. Shame and doubt
D. Industry vs. Inferiority
B. Initiative vs. Guilt
- Which of the following approaches would the nurse expect to include in the plan of care for a client with antisocial personality disorder who has a history of stealing and jail time?
A. Helping the client develop a conscience
B. Teaching the client consequences of her actions
C. Assisting the client with understanding right from wrong
D. Using strategies to help the client become passive
B. Teaching the client consequences of her actions
- The nurse is planning the care of a 30-year old man admitted to the psychiatric unit for court-mandated treatment for alcohol dependence. The client has a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder as documented in previous court-mandated psychiatric evaluations. The nurse recognizes that an important part of this client’s plan will be to:
A. Encourage him to set limits on his own behavior
B. Establish clear, consistent limits on acting-out behaviors
C. Minimize peer interactions
D. Expect full family participation in effective treatment
B. Establish clear, consistent limits on acting-out behaviors
- A client who had been living with her family after her boyfriend of 4 weeks told her to her to leave is admitted to the substance unit complaining of feeling empty and lonely, being unable to sleep, hardly eating for the past week. Her arms are scarred from frequent mutilation. The nurse interprets these findings as indicated which of the following personality disorders?
A. Antisocial personality disorder
B. Borderline personality disorder
C. Avoidant personality disorder
D. Compulsive personality disorder
B. Borderline personality disorder
RATIONALE
Borderline personality disorder is suicidal and splitting.
- When planning care for a client with schizotypal personality disorder, which of the following would help the client become involve with others?
A. Participating solely in group activities
B. Leading a sing-a-long in the afternoon
C. Being involved with primarily one-to-one activities
D. Attending an activity with the nurse
D. Attending an activity with the nurse
- Clients with an Axis II diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder have a potential for violence and aggressive behavior. Which of the following client outcomes to be accomplished in the short term would be MOST appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care?
A. Use humor when expressing anger
B. Ask the nurse for medication when upset
C. Discuss feelings of anger with staff
D. Use indirect behaviors to express anger
C. Discuss feelings of anger with staff
RATIONALE
Promotes verbalization.
- The nurse is conducting the first one-on-one therapy session with a client who has an antisocial personality disorder. Identify the most important measure during this session.
A. Ignore bad behavior
B. Set limits on inappropriate behaviors
C. Isolate the client when aggressiveness occurs
D. Offer client diversional activities
B. Set limits on inappropriate behaviors
- A hospitalized client with an antisocial personality disorder stole money from an elderly client on the unit. Which of the following is the most appropriate for a nurse to say to this client?
A. “Bakit mo naman kinuha ang pera?”
B. “Sige, okay lang yun.”
C. “Ang ginawa mo ay may kaakibat na pagkawalang prebilihiyo sa unit.”
D. “Walang kalaban laban ang matanda sa iyo.”
C. “Ang ginawa mo ay may kaakibat na pagkawalang prebilihiyo sa unit.”
- A client is in treatment at the day hospital. This is her seventh admission. She has been unable to hold even part-time jobs and has had four abortions in the last 4 years. She is now living with her family after being evicted from her apartment. She complains of feeling empty and lonely, and her arms are scarred from frequent self-mutilation. Which nursing diagnosis would not apply to this client at this time?
A. High risk for mutilation
B. Identity disturbance
C. Self-esteem disturbance
D. Sensory/perceptual alteration
D. Sensory/perceptual alteration
Higlight: WOULD NOT APPLY
- The nurse has been working with a depressed male client for one week. This morning, the client comes to the dining room with hair uncombed and shirt unbuttoned. Which of these actions should the nurse take first?
A. Approach the client and offer to help him finish getting dressed
B. Ignore the client’s appearance and help him find his place at the table
C. Sit with the client and help him eat the food
D. Walk with the client until he notices that his shirt is unbuttoned
A. Approach the client and offer to help him finish getting dressed
- Following suicide, the family needs help in expressing grief. In which way would the nurse be of least assistance?
A. Help them talk together about their individual feelings
B. Allow them to relive some past experiences and identify how the adolescent may have masked true feelings
C. Encourage them to allow siblings to talk about what happened
D. Ask them what they think they did wrong in responding to the teenager
D. Ask them what they think they did wrong in responding to the teenager
Highlight: OF LEAST ASSISTANCE
- A community nurse is following up on a client with depressive disorder, not otherwise specified. In reviewing the client’s chart, the nurse notes that the client has a diagnosis of dependent personality disorder. Which of the following behavior would the nurse anticipate in this client?
A. Difficulty making decisions, lack of self-confidence
B. Grandiose thinking, attention-seeking behaviors
C. Odd mannerisms, speech, and behaviors
D. Unstable moods and impulsive behaviors
A. Difficulty making decisions, lack of self-confidence
RATIONALE
Dependent personality disorder patients can’t stand alone.
- A client has been given the nursing diagnosis “social isolation related to fear of rejection.” The nursing assessment documentation includes, “No eye contact, verbally uncommunicative, refuses to leave bedroom.” Which is the best outcome criterion for determining if the goal of care for this client has been met?
A. Client performs own self-care
B. Client remains free of hallucinations or delusions
C. Client smiles at nurse when nurse enters room
D. Client goes to nurses’ station for medication
D. Client goes to nurses’ station for medication
- When teaching the client with atypical depression about foods to avoid while taking phenelzine (Nardil), which of the following would the nurse note?
A. Cream cheese
B. Banana
C. Avocado
D. Spinach
C. Avocado
RATIONALE Nardil is a MAOI drug. Health teaching for this drug includes avoid taking Tyramin-rich foods to prevent Hypertensive crisis. Foods that are rich in Tyramine: • Avocado • Banana (overripe) • Papaya • Processed foods • Cheese (except cottage, cream, and ricotta)
- The nurse is leading a group about mood disorders. A client in a group is monopolizing the session to the extent that the other clients can hardly participate. The nurse would intervene which of the following?
A. “Mr. Roberts, you’ve been taking up too much of the group’s time. Let’s move on.”
B. “Mr. Roberts, you seem to have quite a lot to say today.”
C. “Mr. Roberts, you’ve done well today, but I like to hear from the others.”
D. “Mr. Roberts, it’s certainly isn’t hard for you to talk in a group.”
C. “Mr. Roberts, you’ve done well today, but I like to hear from the others.”
- The family of a client in the manic phase of a bipolar disorder consults the nurse regarding how to handle the client’s aggressive behavior. What is the most appropriate response?
A. Ignore the behavior. The client would’t hurt a family member.
B. If the client threats you, call for help
C. Physically restrain the client
D. Direct the client to the room in a calm, firm voice
D. Direct the client to the room in a calm, firm voice
- The husband apologizes to the nurse for his wife’s demanding behavior. Which of the following possible replies by the nurse would be best?
A. “I’m sure she is doing the best she can.”
B. “It’s alright. We have been treated worst.”
C. “It must be hard for you to see her like this.”
D. “I understand. What happen to set her off like this?”
C. “It must be hard for you to see her like this.”
- The nurse notes that the client is too busy investigating the unit and overseeing the activities of other client to eat dinner. To help the client obtain sufficient nourishment, which of the following plans would be best?
A. Serve foods that she can carry with her
B. Allow her to send out for her favorite foods
C. Serve food in small, attractively arranged portions
D. Allow her to enter the unit’s kitchen for extra food as necessary
A. Serve foods that she can carry with her
- A lack of dietary salt intake can have which of the following effects on lithium levels?
A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. Increase then decrease
D. No effect at all
B. Increase
RATIONALE
⬇️sodium = ⬇️water = risk for lithium toxicity
- In planning care for the client with Schizophrenia who has negative symptoms, the nurse would anticipate a problem with?
A. Auditory hallucinations
B. Bizarre behaviors
C. Ideas of reference
D. Motivation for activities
D. Motivation for activities
RATIONALE Negative symptoms include: • Avolition [(-) motivation] • Anhedonia [(-) pleasure] • Alogia [(-) words]
- Laboratory work is prescribed for a client who has been experiencing delusions. When the nurse approaches the client to obtain a specimen of the client’s blood, the client begins to shout, “You are all vampires. Let me out of here!” The appropriate nursing response is which of the following?
A. “What makes you think that I am a vampire?”
B. “I leave and come back later for your blood.”
C. “I am not going to hurt you. I am going to help you.”
D. “It must be frightening to think that others want to hurt you.”
D. “It must be frightening to think that others want to hurt you.”
- The wife of a child diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia visits two days after her husband’s admission and states to the nurse, “Why isn’t he eating? He’s still talking about his food being poisoned.” Which of the following appraisals by the nurse would be MOST accurate?
A. The wife’s inquiry is reasonable
B. Her expectations of her husband are realistic
C. Education about her husband’s illness is needed
D. An increase in the client’s medication is indicated
C. Education about her husband’s illness is needed
- When developing the plan of care for a client who is isolating himself in his room because he perceives that staff wants to harm him, which of the following outcomes would be most appropriate?
A. Within 2 days, the client will complete his ADL
B. Within 3 days, the client will participate in recreation with other clients
C. Within 4 days, the client would demonstrate an absence of verbal aggression
D. Within 5 days, the client will seek out staff to talk his feelings
D. Within 5 days, the client will seek out staff to talk his feelings
RATIONALE
Most realistic.
- A client is sitting in the corner of the day room locking his head to one side as if he is hearing something, but no one is nearby. The nurse suspects he is having auditory hallucinations. Which of the following questions would the nurse ask FIRST?
A. “Are you seeing someone near you besides me?”
B. “What is going on with you right now?”
C. “What are you hearing right now?”
D. “Do you want to go to the recreation room?”
C. “What are you hearing right now?”
- Which of the following would be effective nursing intervention for a hallucinating patient?
A. Agree with the patient about the reality of the voices
B. Deny that the patient does not actually hear the voices
C. Agree with the patient about the voices that he hears
D. Discredit the reality of the voices
D. Discredit the reality of the voices