NP II Flashcards
- Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Positive pregnancy test
B. Amenorrhea
C. Fetal movement felt by the examiner
D. Quickening
C. Fetal movement felt by the examiner
RATIONALE
A Probable
B Presumptive
D Presumptive
- One of the earliest presumptive signs of pregnancy is:
A. Hegar’s sign
B. Missed menstruation period
C. Linea nigra
D. Braxton Hick’s contractions
B. Missed menstruation period
- A patient who is a mother of 5-year-old son and is now pregnant again should be classified as:
A. Gravida 1, para 1
B. Gravida 2, para 2
C. Gravida 2, para 1
D. Gravida 2, para 0
C. Gravida 2, para 1
- What is the major function of the placenta?
A. It passes medications from mother to fetus
B. It allows the fetus to develop more rapidly
C. Nutrients are passed from mother to fetus
D. It functions as kidney and the stomach of the fetus
C. Nutrients are passed from mother to fetus
- A young couple wants to know when the gender of the fetus is determined. The correct answer is
A. At birth
B. At conception
C. During an amniocentesis
D. From results of blood work after first prenatal visit
B. At conception
- A student nurse asks, “How is the baby’s gender determined?” The nursing instructor responds:
A. X chromosome from the ovum
B. A random number of chromosome
C. Y or X chromosome from the sperm
D. Genes that are carried by DNA and protein
C. Y or X chromosome from the sperm
- A patient whose LMP began May 18 should have an EDC of
A. February 9
B. February 11
C. February 15
D. February 25
D. February 25
- During a nutritional assessment, a nurse is concerned when the patient makes which of the following statements?
A. “I love vegetables, especially broccoli.”
B. “Some days I am so busy, so I eat fast food.”
C. “I take a lot of milk, but I guess I need it for the baby.”
D. “I take a lot of vitamins.”
D. “I take a lot of vitamins.”
RATIONALE
Vitamins are teratogenic to fetus especially during 1st trimester.
- The BMR of a prenatal patient generally increases. An explanation of this would be:
A. Hormone production is increased
B. The thyroid gland increases in size
C. Cardiac output and rate increases
D. The baby causes the need for excess energy
B. The thyroid gland increases in size
RATIONALE
BMR is determined by the thyroid gland.
- Prenatal care is considered the primary means of circumnavigating complications of pregnancy. What complication would you consider as most affected by good prenatal care?
A. Placenta previa
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
C. PIH
D. Abortion
C. PIH
- A patient in prenatal class asks about whether Kegel exercises are beneficial in pregnancy. The most appropriate response by the nurse would be?
A. “Absolutely not! They are dangerous to your heart.”
B. “They help some people but the benefit is minimal.”
C. “Yes, they can help tighten the pelvic floor muscles.”
D. “Yes, these exercises will help with leg cramps.”
C. “Yes, they can help tighten the pelvic floor muscles.”
- A primigravida in the sixth month of pregnancy is complaining of indigestion. The nurse explains that this is caused by:
A. A growing uterus pushing on the diaphragm
B. Eating small, frequent meals that increase gastric acid secretions
C. An increasing BMR, leading to increases appetite
D. Increased nausea and vomiting, common in this trimester
A. A growing uterus pushing on the diaphragm
- A prenatal patient is experiencing leg cramps. A nursing intervention should include:
A. Advising hot compress daily
B. Instructing her to elevate her legs at least 15 minutes three times daily
C. Encouraging her to decrease intake of carbonated beverages
D. Advising her to chew Tums for calcium
C. Encouraging her to decrease intake of carbonated beverages
RATIONALE
A and B are not management for leg cramps.
D is a medical management
- A mother in her first trimester confides to the nurse that she is worried she will not be a good mother. She is disappointed that she will not be able to go back to school as she had planned, the nurse should:
A. Reassure the mother that her feelings of ambivalence are normal in the first trimester
B. Tell her that she has to let everyone in the family to help her
C. Instruct her that she made the baby and she has to take responsibility for it
D. Assure her that as the pregnancy progresses her feelings will become more positive
A. Reassure the mother that her feelings of ambivalence are normal in the first trimester
- A woman of reproductive age was immunized with rubella vaccine. Which of the following is an appropriate instruction of the nurse?
A. “Do not get pregnant within 3 months.”
B. “Do not engage in coitus for 3 days.”
C. “Avoid strenuous activities for one week.”
D. AOTA
A. “Do not get pregnant within 3 months.”
- The communicable childhood disease most likely to affect pregnancy with harmful effects to the fetus is
A. Chickenpox
B. Rubella
C. Varicella
D. Rubeola
B. Rubella
- A couple asks why is it important to the fetus for both of them to stop smoking. The nurse responds:
A. “Smoking and second hand smoke cause decreased oxygenation to the fetus.”
B. “Pregnant women who smoke or who are found around the smoke tend to have larger babies.”
C. “Pregnant women who smoke tend to have babies who are diabetic.”
D. “Pregnant women who smoke tend to have babies with cardiac anomalies.”
A. “Smoking and second hand smoke cause decreased oxygenation to the fetus.”
- A prenatal patient asks when she should stop working. The most appropriate response for the nurse is:
A. “Around the start of the eight months.”
B. “Everyone is different; it is up to you.”
C. “What do you do for a living?”
D. “Two weeks before your EDC.”
C. “What do you do for a living?”
- The patient is 4 weeks pregnant. She is gravida 2, para 1. Her 3 year old child was born with spina bifida. In addition to regular vitamin supplements, the health care provider prescribes an additional supplement. The nurse should know that this supplement would most likely be
A. Vitamin K
B. Thiamine
C. Vitamin E
D. Folic acid
D. Folic acid
- One of the important test during pregnancy is alpha-fetoprotein test, which
A. Determines fetal maturity
B. Detects neural tube defects
C. Detects Tay-Sachs disease
D. Detects respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
B. Detects neural tube defects
- Which of the following statements is correct relative to differences between a stress test and nonstress test (NST)?
A. An NST is done by abdominal palpation by the physician
B. An NST is done early in the pregnancy to determine gender of the infant
C. A stress test is usually done late in pregnancy to measure fetal response to uterine contractions
D. A stress test is done after the mother has been given orange juice to drink
C. A stress test is usually done late in pregnancy to measure fetal response to uterine contractions
RATIONALE
Tip: Process of elimination.
A NST is done after mother has ingested food
B NST is not a gender identification test
D A stress test is done by stimulating the nipple
- Decreases in FHR during labor are called?
A. Accelerations
B. Decelerations
C. Baseline rate
D. Variability
B. Decelerations
- What is the period of rapid growth?
A. First trimester
B. Second trimester
C. Third trimester
D. Before pregnancy
C. Third trimester
- Cathy, 22 years old, has missed two of her regular menstrual periods. Her doctor confirms an early intrauterine pregnancy. This is her first pregnancy. To determine her expected due date, which of the following assessments is most important?
A. Date of first menstrual period
B. Date of last intercourse
C. Date of last normal menstrual period
D. Age at menarche
C. Date of last normal menstrual period