Nov 27 - Anatomy of the Retroperitoneum and Renal System Flashcards

1
Q

What covers the retroperitoneal structures?

A

The posterior parietal peritoneum

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2
Q

What is the pancreas?

A

It is an endocrine gland and an exocrine gland

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3
Q

Describe endocrine aspect of the pancreas

A

There are pancreatic islands that secrete insulin, glucagon and somatostatin

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4
Q

Describe the exocrine aspects of the pancreas

A

It secretes trypsin, chymotrypsin and lipases through the pancreatic ducts. The pancreatic ducts and the common bile duct open into the lumen of the duodenum at the papilla vateria

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5
Q

How can the papilla be obstructed? What can result from an obstruction?

A

It can be obstructed by a bile stone, which may cause pale, fatty feces and/or pancreatitis (autolysis)

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6
Q

What happens in the duodenum?

A

It neutralizes acidic chymus from the stomach (brunner glands). It receives pancreatic secretions and receives bile

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7
Q

Name the unpaired branches of the abdominal aorta

A

The celiac trunk, the superior mesenteric, the inferior mesenteric and the median sacral branches

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8
Q

Name the paired branches of the abdominal aorta

A

The inferior phrenic, the suprarenal, the renal, the lumbar, the ovarian/testicular and the common iliac branches

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9
Q

Name the three vascular planes of the abdominal aorta

A

The unpaired branches (supply the organs of the abdominal cavity), the paired branches to internal organs (which don’t go into the abdominal cavity) and the paired branches to the wall of the trunk

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10
Q

Describe the lymphatic system in the retroperitoneal space

A

The retroperitoneal space contains many lymph nodes which collects lymph from the lower extremities, the abominal organs and the wall of the trunk. All lymph collects in the cysterna chyli just inferior to the diaphragm and ascends into the thoracic duct which empties into the left venous angle

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11
Q

What is the biggest lymph duct in the body?

A

The thoracic lymph duct

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12
Q

Name the blood supply of the adrenal glands?

A

They derive from the inferior phrenic arteries, abdominal aorta and the renal arteries

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13
Q

What does the cortex of the adrenal gland produce?

A

Glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) and weak androgens (dehydroepi-androsterone; in women, the cortex of the adrenal glands is the only source of androgens in females whereas males also produce androgens in the testicles)

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14
Q

What does the medulla of adrenal gland produce?

A

Catecholamines: adrenaline (epinephrine) and some noradrenaline (norepinephrine)

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15
Q

How is the adrenal gland involved in the short term stress response?

A

Sympathetics innervating the medulla of the adrenal gland stimulate the release catecholamines into the blood circulation. It is a fast, temporary response

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16
Q

How is the adrenal gland involved in the prolonged stress response?

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) secreted by the anterior pituitary stimulates the release of glucocorticoids and mineralcorticoids from the cortex of the adrenal gland. It is a slow, lasting resposne

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17
Q

Name the four urinary organs

A

The kidney, the ureter, the bladder and the urethra

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18
Q

What is found in the hilum of the kidney?

A

The renal arteries, the renal vein and the ureter

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19
Q

What is the most posterior in the hilum of the kidney?

A

The ureter

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20
Q

What is the most anterior in the hilum of the kidney?

A

The renal veins

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21
Q

What protects the kidneys?

A

The renal fascia and the fat capsule

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22
Q

What is the pelvis renalis?

A

Aka the renal pelvis

It collects the urine from the renal papillae and connects to the ureter

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23
Q

What are the functions of the kidneys?

A

Blood filtration, reabsorption and excretion (also electrolyte balance, blood volume regulation)

24
Q

What do the kidneys produce and secrete?

A

Renin, erythropoietin (EPO) and 1,25-(OH)2 Vitamine D3

25
Q

What is renin?

A

It is a hormone that participates in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), which regulates the arterial blood pressure

26
Q

How does renin function?

A

It activates angiotensinogen into angiotensin I, which is further converted into the angiotensin II, which is a vasoconstrictor and increases the aldosterone secretion. It reduces the plasma sodium concentration and increases epinephrine

27
Q

Describe the ureter

A

A retroperitoneal muscular tube of 20-30 cm in length. It has 3 layers of smooth muscles that facilitate peristalsis. It crosses the iliac vessels anteriorly. It enters the urinary bladder at the trigone

28
Q

Describe the aspects of the male ureter

A

It is lateral and inferior to the ductus deference and it joins the bladder superior to the seminal vesicles

29
Q

Describe the aspects of the female ureter

A

It crosses beneath the uterine artery (“water” under the “bridge”)

30
Q

Name the blood supply of the ureter

A

Variable branches of the ovarian, common and internal iliac artery

31
Q

Name the three constrictions of the ureter

A

The exit from the hilum
The crossing of the iliac blood vessels and the pelvic brim
The entrance into the bladder

32
Q

Describe the urethra in females

A

The urethra is tightly connected via connective tissue to the anterior wall of the vagina; they pass together through the pelvic diaphragm, perineal membrane and external urethral sphincter

33
Q

Describe the membranous part of the urethra in males

A

The least distensible and passes through the external urethral sphincter. It’s the most vulnerable during insertion of urethral catheters and to injury

34
Q

Describe the prostatic urethra

A

The widest part and contains the openings of the ejaculatory ducts and of the prostatic ductules. It can be obstructed by proliferating tissue in benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)

35
Q

Describe the spongy urethra

A

It is within the corpus spongiosium of the penis

36
Q

Where is the bladder found?

A

Posterior to the pubic symphysis

37
Q

What muscles surrounds the bladder?

A

The detrusor muscle (smooth muscle), which is parasympathetically innervated

38
Q

What happens when the bladder fills in terms of its position?

A

A filled bladder extends and rises up to 10 cm above the pubic symphysis pushing its peritoneal lining cranially further towards the umbilicus

39
Q

What is the prostate gland?

A

The largest accessory gland of the male reproductive system (chestnut-sized). It is located between the bladder and the urogenital diaphragm. It develops 30-40 individual glands originating from the urethral epithelium. Individual ducts open into the prostatic part of the urethra. Glands embedded in a fibromuscular stroma containing smooth muscles

40
Q

Describe prostatic secretions

A

Prostatic secretions accound for 20-30% of ejaculate volume. Secretions are acidic (pH 6.4), serous and milky. They contain immunoglobins, acidic phosphatase, proteases, fibrinolytic enzymes, zinc, prostaglandins, citrate (acidic pH), spermin

41
Q

Describe the position of the prostate gland

A

It is in the pelvis beneath the urinary bladder, just above the pelvic floor and surrounding the proximal part of the male urethra

42
Q

What forms the ejaculatory duct?

A

The seminal vesicle and the ampulla of the vas deferens join to form the ejaculatory duct which enters the prostatic urethra

43
Q

What supplies the prostate and seminal vesicles with arterial blood?

A

Arterial supply originates from the inferior vesical artery

44
Q

Describe the venous drainage of the prostate and the seminal vesicles

A

Venous blood drains to the vesicoprostatic venous plexus around the base of the urinary bladder

45
Q

Name the three zones of the prostate

A

The transition or central zone
The periurethral zone
The peripheral zone

46
Q

What zone is susceptible to prostate cancer?

A

The peripheral zone

47
Q

What zone is susceptible to benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

The central zone

48
Q

What is the importance of the central zone?

A

It marks the postero-medial glandular tissue located between the two ejaculatory ducts

49
Q

Name the nerves of the lumbar plexus

A

The iliohypogastric nerve, the ilioinguinal nerve, the genitofemoral nerve, the obturator nerve, the femoral nerve and the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh

50
Q

Name the nerves of the sacral plexus

A

The sciatic nerve, the superior gluteal nerve, the inferior gluteal nerve, the pudendal nerve, the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh and the direct branches to muscles of the pelvis

51
Q

The somatic nerves of the lumbar and sacral plexus provide motor innervation to what?

A

The muscles of the anterolateral abdominal wall, the muscles of the lower extremity, the gluteal muscles, the pelvic floor muscles and the muscles of the perineum

52
Q

The somatic nerves of the lumbar and sacral plexus provide sensory innervation to what?

A

The skin of the anterolateral abdominal wall, the skin of the lower extremity, the skin of the gluteal region, the skin of the perineum and the mucosa of the lower urethra, vagina, vestibule and anal canal

53
Q

The autonomic nerves of the pelvis provide motor, secretory and sensory innervation to what?

A

The pelvic viscera

54
Q

The autonomic nerves of the pelvis provide sympathetic innervation from the sacral sympathetic trunk to what?

A

The skin of the lower extremity, gluteal region and perineum

55
Q

The autonomic nerves of the pelvis provide parasympathetic innervation from the S2-S4 parasympathetic centre to what?

A

The smooth muscle of the rectum and the corpora cavernosa of the penis/clitoris