Notes from Jul Flashcards

1
Q

Describe interoperability in the context of application systems.

A

Interoperability refers to the ability of two application systems to exchange information with each other and utilize the exchanged information.

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2
Q

What is the difference between interoperability and application integration?

A

Interoperability focuses on exchanging information, while application integration emphasizes combining information.

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3
Q

Define Information Oriented approach to application integration.

A

Information Oriented approach involves the exchange of simple information, often using databases or data-producing APIs.

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4
Q

How does the Business Process-Oriented approach to application integration work?

A

Business Process-Oriented approach focuses on creating a single model that spans multiple applications and data stores to control how systems and humans interact.

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5
Q

Describe the Service-Oriented approach to application integration.

A

Service-Oriented approach, similar to Business Process-Oriented, provides services instead of just information, emphasizing loose coupling.

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6
Q

What is the main focus of Portal-Oriented approach to application integration?

A

Portal-Oriented approach aims to provide a single view of multiple systems by integrating at the UI level, typically through a web browser.

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7
Q

Explain the concept of Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) in system integration.

A

EDI was developed to enable seamless document exchange between companies, with specific and well-defined formats for the exchanged documents.

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8
Q

Describe Remote Procedure Calls (RPC) in the context of system integration.

A

RPC allows distributed systems to integrate by remotely executing procedures/subroutines as if they were part of one system, but implementation can be language-dependent.

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9
Q

What is the purpose of Common Object Request Broker Architecture (CORBA) in system integration?

A

CORBA aims to provide a language and OS-agnostic way for different systems to interact, similar to RPC but with more flexibility.

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10
Q

Explain the significance of Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) in web services.

A

SOAP allows remote requests to external services, independent of programming models, and can be implemented over various protocols like HTTP or SMTP.

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11
Q

Describe the concept of Representational State Transfer (REST) in integration.

A

REST is an architectural style focusing on resources rather than actions, allowing clients to interact with server resources without specifying the data transfer format.

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12
Q

What is GraphQL and how does it simplify API querying?

A

GraphQL is a query language for APIs that is strongly typed, enabling early error detection and providing a single entry point for querying various resources.

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13
Q

Describe the function of an application server in 3-/multi-tier architectures.

A

An application server is a dedicated software component that provides application (business) logic, enabling the separation of this logic from UI functionality, data delivery, and data management.

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14
Q

What are the basic functions of an application server in large-scale deployments?

A

In large-scale deployments, application servers allow for the distribution of client requests across multiple instances (clusters) for load balancing.

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15
Q

Define REST API and discuss its strengths and weaknesses.

A

REST API, or REpresentation State Transfer, is a software architectural style used for web APIs. It is easy to integrate, scalable, and efficient but lacks security and the ability to maintain state.

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16
Q

Explain SOAP API and its strengths and weaknesses.

A

SOAP API, or Simple Object Access Protocol, is a message specification for exchanging information between systems. It is dependable, standardized, and has built-in error handling but can make API evolution slower and uses XML for messages.

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17
Q

Describe GraphQL and its primary functions.

A

GraphQL is a query language that allows developers to construct requests to pull data from multiple sources in one API call. Its primary functions include Query to read, Mutation to write, and Subscription to observe events.

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18
Q

What is HL7 V2 and its main use case?

A

HL7 V2 is the most common communication standard in Hospital Information Systems for transferring messages related to entities like patients and cases. It is used for exchanging messages between different application systems.

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19
Q

Explain HL7 V3 and its Clinical Document Architecture (CDA).

A

HL7 V3 includes the Clinical Document Architecture (CDA), an XML-based document standard for storing and exchanging clinical content like discharge letters and lab findings. It is derived from the HL7 Reference Information Model.

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20
Q

Define FHIR and its relation to HL7 standards.

A

FHIR, or Fast Healthcare Interoperability Resources, is a recent HL7 standard based on experience from other standards. It aims to improve interoperability in healthcare systems.

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21
Q

Describe the focus of Fast Healthcare Interoperability Resources (FHIR)

A

Focuses on sharing medical data and making it portable by using REST APIs and simple HTTP operations.

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22
Q

What is the purpose of Digital Imaging and COmmunications in Medicine (DICOM)?

A

To address integration requirements of the medical imaging sector and define file and message formats for medical imaging modalities.

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23
Q

Define Integrating the Healthcare Enterprise (IHE) and its role in interoperability

A

IHE is an organization aiming to improve integration of healthcare app systems by analyzing work processes, selecting standards, and offering test software for process interoperability.

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24
Q

How does Service-Oriented Architectures (SOA) contribute to software design?

A

SOA simplifies software design by decomposing complex problems, enhancing reusability of IT resources, and improving adaptability to changing business requirements.

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25
Q

What are the potential benefits of SOA?

A

Simpler software design, improved reusability, adaptability to changing business requirements, and cost savings.

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26
Q

Describe the steps involved in redesigning a resource for reuse

A

Steps include examining design assumptions, isolating textual elements, identifying general underlying problems, and deciding on re-engineering efforts based on constraints.

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27
Q

On what timescale should SOA objectives be considered?

A

Consider SOA objectives on the long term, with real-life examples requiring a minimum time investment of 4 years.

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28
Q

Why is service discovery little used in practice within SOA?

A

Service discovery is challenging due to the need for expert human intervention to determine service appropriateness, especially with the vast number of subroutines in development frameworks.

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29
Q

Describe the dangers of using an SOA for medical applications.

A

Outsourcing Decision Support (DS) to external agencies can lead to potential imperfections, inhibiting reliance on external clinical SOA services. Healthcare providers are legally responsible for overriding erroneous advice given by SOA services.

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30
Q

Define microservice architecture.

A

Microservices are small, autonomous services that work together, deployed independently, loosely coupled, and each focusing on one task.

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31
Q

How does microservice structure compare to monolithic architecture?

A

Microservices have a code base per service, better readability, easier maintenance, simple deployment with minimal downtime, support multiple programming languages, and allow scaling of bottlenecked services without scaling the entire app.

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32
Q

What is the role of continuous integration/deployment in microservice architecture?

A

Continuous integration/deployment ensures software is continuously developed and features are added, with constant integration across different environments.

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33
Q

Why is monitoring important in microservice architecture?

A

Monitoring in microservices helps detect failures quickly, auto-restore services, and prevent service failures caused by infrastructure unavailability.

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34
Q

How does polyglot persistence fit into microservice architecture?

A

Polyglot Persistence allows each service to manage its own database, whether using different instances of the same DB technology or entirely different DB systems, decentralizing logic and data storage decisions.

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35
Q

Describe what backing services are according to the 12-Factor App methodology.

A

Backing services are services consumed by the app over the network as part of normal operation, including datastores, messaging systems, and third-party services. Each distinct backing service is treated as a resource.

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36
Q

Define containers and explain why they are ideal for running services.

A

Containers are self-contained execution environments with isolated resources that share the host OS kernel. They are ideal for running services as they isolate resources for a single process and package apps with individual runtime stacks.

37
Q

How can communication between services be achieved?

A

Communication between services is done using Inter-Process Communication mechanisms, either synchronously through mechanisms like HTTP-based REST or asynchronously through protocols like AMQP.

38
Q

Explain the importance of a service registry in microservice architecture.

A

A service registry is a database of available service instances that allows dynamic changes in running service instances, including network locations, through service discovery mechanisms.

39
Q

Describe the shortcomings of plan-driven system development.

A

Plan-driven system development struggles with effectively handling changing requirements and tends to go significantly over budget and behind schedule.

40
Q

What are the four key ideas of the agile approach?

A

Agile prioritizes individuals and interactions over processes and tools, working software over comprehensive documentation, customer collaboration over contract negotiation, and responding to change over following a plan.

41
Q

Compare the home ground attributes of agile versus plan-driven development.

A

Agile development emphasizes knowledgeable, collocated, and collaborative developers, while plan-driven development focuses on adequate skills and access to external knowledge.

42
Q

Describe the primary differences between plan-driven and Agile approaches in software development.

A

Plan-driven focuses on strict planning and inflexibility, while Agile is quick but requires customer involvement.

43
Q

Do users and developers collaborate in Extreme Programming (XP) process? If so, how?

A

Yes, users identify features, provide detailed acceptance tests, and assign priority. Developers implement features in the order users want and pass user-specified tests.

44
Q

Define the Planning Game in Extreme Programming (XP) and its purpose.

A

Continuous and progressive planning where developers estimate feature costs and customers prioritize based on cost and business value.

45
Q

How does XP ensure code quality through the practice of Pair Programming?

A

Two programmers work on production simultaneously on one machine, promoting code quality and knowledge sharing.

46
Q

Describe the concept of Continuous Integration in XP and its significance.

A

Integrating new changes with current code to detect system failures early, ensuring a smooth development process.

47
Q

How does XP promote collective responsibility among developers?

A

All developers are responsible for all code, allowing changes to be made by anyone when necessary.

48
Q

What are the advantages of Extreme Programming (XP) in software development?

A

Quick prototype production, iterative process, frequent user feedback, refactoring, increased user satisfaction, quality code, team ownership of code.

49
Q

What are the disadvantages of Extreme Programming (XP) in software development?

A

Scalability issues, overfocus on early results, pair programming not cost-effective, test-drive approach adds dev time, lack of specific requirements, unstructured approach.

50
Q

How does XP’s emphasis on small releases benefit the software development process?

A

Frequent review of the system by developers and users helps identify errors, supports testing, and builds trust.

51
Q

Describe the importance of following all 12 key principles of Extreme Programming (XP) in software development.

A

Following the principles leads to advantages over traditional software engineering methods, such as better communication, continuous planning, increased confidence, and quality code production.

52
Q

What are the properties of organizational culture typically found in the public sector?

A

Hierarchical structure, inflexible rules, regulations, politics, and lack of end-user involvement and participation.

53
Q

How does Agile software development allow for fast software development?

A

By defining roles clearly, enabling task coverage in case of unavailability, providing a starting point for improvements, and allowing quick strategy setup.

54
Q

What is the role of time in Agile software development and why is it important?

A

Time is crucial for readiness for change, learning, practice, engagement, and reflection. Agile ensures time allocation for involvement and practice.

55
Q

Differentiate between an Agile coach and a project manager in software development.

A

An Agile coach supports the development process and guides the team, while a project manager is responsible for deliverables and managing scope, budget, time, and resources.

56
Q

Explain the role of an Agile steering group in software development.

A

The Agile steering group provides guidance and direction, ensuring alignment with organizational goals and facilitating decision-making processes.

57
Q

Describe the differences between agile and waterfall methodologies in terms of stakeholder involvement.

A

Agile involves close customer involvement and feedback throughout the development process, while Waterfall does not require full-time customer participation in all stages.

58
Q

Define change management and explain the role of agile in change management.

A

Change management is the process of supporting individuals and organizations in transitioning from old to new methods. Agile increases readiness for change by offering time for learning, practicing, engaging with, reflecting on, and adopting solutions.

59
Q

Do healthcare professionals tend to be resistant to change? Why?

A

Healthcare professionals are often resistant to change because their decisions directly impact patients’ lives and health. Resistance can also stem from past experiences with abandoned implementations, perceived tediousness over innovation, or initiative exhaustion.

60
Q

Describe the do’s and don’ts for organizational management in agile projects.

A

In agile projects, organizational management should adopt a decentralized style, work ‘bottom-up,’ relinquish micromanagement, be open to new processes, empower project teams, and encourage collaboration between project participants and management.

61
Q

What are social robots and what are they designed for?

A

Social robots are designed to interact closely with humans as artificial companions or helpers. They are made to mimic humans in looks, mind, emotional expression, and behavior.

62
Q

How can robots help with the recovery from stroke, and are they effective in doing so?

A

Robots can help improve hand/arm functions and aid in gait recovery post-stroke. They have been proven effective, offering benefits for mobility, independence, and improved mood.

63
Q

Explain the concerns and ethical issues related to the use of social robots.

A

Concerns include potential impact on children’s development and decreased empathy during interactions. Ethical issues may arise from deception about artificial love or friendship.

64
Q

Define the uncanny valley and provide an example.

A

The uncanny valley refers to the feeling of eeriness when something looks almost, but not quite human. An example is the discomfort experienced when faced with images morphing from a robot face to a human face.

65
Q

Describe what an agent is and list some properties that agents may have.

A

An agent is an entity capable of perceiving the physical or virtual world using sensors. Properties of agents include autonomy, reactivity, proactiveness, and social ability to interact with other agents.

66
Q

What is a multi-agent system, and why are they suitable for healthcare applications?

A

A multi-agent system is an application that uses multiple autonomous software agents to solve complex problems. They are suitable for healthcare applications due to the distributed nature of healthcare problems and the need for coordination among individuals with different skills and locations.

67
Q

Describe the difference between User Experience (UX) and Software Engineering (SE)

A

UX focuses on rapidness and agility, while SE lacks a conceptual design stage.

68
Q

Do you rush in software development?

A

No, rushing is not advisable as it can lead to mistakes.

69
Q

Define cloud computing in simple terms.

A

Storing and accessing data and programs over the Internet instead of a PC’s hard drive.

70
Q

How do the four types of cloud differ in security?

A

Private cloud offers high security, public cloud offers low security, community cloud offers high security, and hybrid cloud offers medium security.

71
Q

Define Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Software as a Service (SaaS) service models, and their benefits.

A

IaaS provides virtualized computing resources, PaaS offers system software and computing resources, and SaaS delivers app software. Benefits include cost reduction, scalability, and access to enterprise-grade resources.

72
Q

Describe the characteristics of cloud computing.

A

Cloud computing features on-demand self-service, cost-effectiveness, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, measured services, multitenancy, scalability, reliability, economies of scale, customization, efficient resource utilization, virtualization.

73
Q

What are the main challenges faced by cloud computing?

A

Data protection is a crucial challenge, with organizations concerned about data security, confidentiality, and potential data loss to competitors.

74
Q

Describe the role of firewalls in protecting data across data centers in existing models.

A

Firewalls in existing models are used to protect data across data centers.

75
Q

What is the responsibility of cloud providers in terms of security, according to the content?

A

Cloud providers are responsible for security, and enterprises need to rely on them.

76
Q

Define Service Level Agreements (SLA) and their importance in business applications.

A

SLAs are agreements that dictate the level of service expected and are crucial for business applications.

77
Q

How do operational teams contribute to the management of Service Level Agreements (SLAs) and runtime governance of applications in a rod environment?

A

Operational teams support various tasks such as data replication, clustering, failover, system monitoring, disaster recovery, capacity management, and maintenance.

78
Q

Describe the challenges faced in managing infrastructure and platforms with multiple providers according to the content.

A

Managing infrastructure and platforms with multiple providers is still immature, with a need for dynamic scaling and resource allocation.

79
Q

Explain the impact of regulatory restrictions in some EU countries on the location of customer data for providers.

A

Some EU countries have regulations that require customer data to be stored within the state/country, posing a challenge for providers.

80
Q

Define Personal Health Records (PHR) and differentiate them from Electronic Health Records (EHR).

A

PHR is a patient-centered tool for self-management, while EHR is a repository of patient data.

81
Q

What is the purpose of the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) according to the content?

A

GDPR aims to standardize data protection regulations in the EU and enhance individual rights over personal information.

82
Q

Explain the concept of Data Protection Impact Assessments (DIA/PIA’s) as outlined in the GDPR guidelines.

A

DIA/PIA’s are tools to help organizations comply with data protection obligations and assess privacy expectations.

83
Q

Describe the Model Privacy Notice (MPN) initiative and its purpose.

A

MPN is a resource for conveying privacy and security policies to consumers in a straightforward manner.

84
Q

How are barriers addressed in the Dutch PHR initiative, as mentioned in the content?

A

The Dutch PHR initiative addresses barriers through the use of laws for protection and security standards like NEN7510.

85
Q

Explain the concept of Function as a Service (FaaS) as mentioned in the content.

A

FaaS allows code execution in response to events without complex infrastructure management, focusing on individual functions in code.

86
Q

Define TP monitors and their role as a type of middleware.

A

TP monitors are transaction-oriented middleware derived from database transactions, ensuring criteria like atomicity and consistency.

87
Q

What is the goal of the Foundation for Intelligent Physical Agents (FIPA) as mentioned in the content?

A

FIPA aims to develop standards for communication between independently developed agents to prevent communication chaos.

88
Q

Describe the role of DaaS (Desktop as a Service) as explained in the content.

A

DaaS is a variant of infrastructure that virtualizes desktop computers for end-users.

89
Q

Explain the concept of SAP (ERP) as mentioned in the content.

A

SAP is an Enterprise Resource Planning system known for its comprehensive business management capabilities.