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NOTE Flashcards

1
Q

Motile, feeding stage of protozoa:

A

TROPHOZOITE

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2
Q

Amoeba with chromatoid bodies in the cyst stage:

A

ENTAMOEBA

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3
Q

Amoebiasis

A

ENTAMOEBA HISTOLYTICA

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4
Q

Organ of the body most often involved in extraintestinal amoebiasis:

A

LIVER

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5
Q

True amoeba:

A

GENUS ENTAMOEBA

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6
Q

Nonmotile, nonfeeding and infective stage of amoeba:

A

CYST

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7
Q

Mature cyst of Entamoeba polecki:

A

ONE (1) NUCLEUS

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8
Q

Amoeba cyst with chromatoid bodies that have two pointed ends or that can be round, triangular or oval:

A

ENTAMOEBA COLI

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9
Q

Point of differentiation between E. histolytica and E. hartmanni:

A

SIZE

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10
Q

Mature cyst of E. histolytica:

A

FOUR (4) NUCLEI

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11
Q

Failure to find bacteria in purulent spinal fluid:

A

POSSIBILITY OF INFECTION WITH AMOEBA

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12
Q

Achromatic granules surrounding its karyosomal chromatin:

A

IODAMOEBA BUTSCHLII

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13
Q

Double-walled, wrinkled cyst form:

A

ACANTHAMOEBA CASTELLANII

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14
Q

Cyst that possess a single nucleus and a large glycogen vacuole that stains deeply with iodine:

A

IODAMOEBA BUTSCHLII

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15
Q

Spiny, hyaline extensions of some amoeba:

A

ACANTHOPODS

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16
Q

Staining procedures for species of Naegleria and Acanthamoeba:

A

H AND E STAIN, WRIGHT’S STAIN

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17
Q

Amoeba inhabiting the CNS enter the body:

A

THROUGH THE NASAL MUCOSA

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18
Q

Acanthamoeba and Naegleria:

A

USUALLY FOUND IN CSF

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19
Q

Trophozoite whose karyosomal chromatin appears as a rosette of 4 to 6 granules:

A

NAEGLERIA FOWLERI

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20
Q

Mistaken for cysts of amoeba:

A

BLASTOCYSTIS HOMINIS

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21
Q

Shape of the trophozoite of intestinal flagellates:

A

PEAR-SHAPED

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22
Q

Pathognomonic for Giardia lamblia:

A

VENTRAL SUCKING DISK IN THE TROPHOZOITE

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23
Q

Undulating membrane:

A

TRICHOMONAS AND TRYPANOSOMA

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24
Q

Dientamoeba fragilis and Trichomonas vaginalis:

A

NEITHER HAS A CYST FORM

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25
Q

FLAGELLATE that can be a pathogen of the small intestine:

A

GIARDIA

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26
Q

Pear-shaped flagellate with jerky motility that is found in the urine specimen:

A

TRICHOMONAS VAGINALIS

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27
Q

80% of the trophozoites of Dientamoeba fragilis:

A

HAVE 2 NUCLEI

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28
Q

Only bilaterally symmetrical protozoan:

A

GIARDIA

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29
Q

Intracellular form of blood and tissue flagellates:

A

LEISHMANIAL

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30
Q

Vector of African sleeping sickness

A

TSETSE FLY (GLOSSINA)

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31
Q

Demonstration of trypanosomes of sleeping sickness:

A

BLOOD, LYMPH NODE ASPIRATE AND CSF

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32
Q

Extracellular form of Trypanosoma, slender organism characterized by an undulating membrane and a free flagellum :

A

FREE FLAGELLUM ARISE POSTERIORLY FROM THE KINETOPLAST

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33
Q

Kala-azar:

A

LEISHMANIA DONOVANI

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34
Q

Preferred specimen to find Leishman-Donovan bodies:

A

BONE MARROW

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35
Q

Only ciliate pathogenic to man:

A

BALANTIDIUM COLI

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36
Q

Responsible for motility of Balantidium coli:

A

CILIA

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37
Q

REPRODUCTIVE nucleus of Balantidium coli:

A

MICRONUCLEUS

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38
Q

Conjugation of trophozoites of Balantidium coli:

A

NEVER OCCURS BETWEEN SAME SIZE ORGANISMS

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39
Q

Definitive host to Plasmodium:

A

FEMALE ANOPHELES MOSQUITO

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40
Q

Amoeboid ring trophozoites:

A

PLASMODIUM VIVAX

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41
Q

Preferentially invades reticulocytes:

A

PLASMODIUM VIVAX

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42
Q

Fruit pie, rosette merozoites:

A

PLASMODIUM MALARIAE

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43
Q

Band trophozoites:

A

PLASMODIUM MALARIAE

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44
Q

Plasmodium falciparum gametocytes:

A

DIFFERENTIATED FROM OTHERS IN TERMS OF SHAPE; crescent-shaped gametocytes

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45
Q

Ziemann’s stipplings:

A

PLASMODIUM MALARIAE

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46
Q

Maurer’s dots

A

PLASMODIUM FALCIPARUM

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47
Q

Double chromatin dots, applique forms, multiple parasites in infected red blood cells:

A

PLASMODIUM FALCIPARUM

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48
Q

Large, pale red cells with FIMBRIATED EDGES:

A

PLASMODIUM OVALE

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49
Q

SEXUAL reproduction cycle in Plasmodium and Coccidia:

A

SPOROGONY

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50
Q

Infective stage of malarial parasite to the vector:

A

GAMETOCYTES

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51
Q

Infective stage of malarial parasite to man:

A

SPOROZOITES

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52
Q

Synchronized rupture of RBCs every 72 hours:

A

PLASMODIUM MALARIAE

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53
Q

Sudden massive intravascular hemolysis in falciparum malaria:

A

BLACKWATER FEVER

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54
Q

Hemoglobin incompatible with malaria parasite:

A

HEMOGLOBIN SS

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55
Q

Laboratory-bred reduviid bug to feed on patients suspected of having Chagas disease:

A

XENODIAGNOSIS

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56
Q

Humans are infected with Babesia:

A

BITE OF TICKS, BLOOD TRANSFUSION

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57
Q

Done if immature oocysts of Isospora belli are found in stool from infected humans:

A

LEAVE AT ROOM TEMPERATURE

58
Q

Stage of Isospora infective to man:

A

OOCYSTS

59
Q

Isospora belli IMMATURE oocysts contain:

A

SPOROBLAST

60
Q

INFECTIVE oocysts of Isospora belli contain:

A

SPOROZOITES

61
Q

Retinochoroidtis and cerebral calcifications:

A

TOXOPLASMA GONDII, ANTIBODY TITER

62
Q

Both definitive and intermediate host of Toxoplasma gondii:

A

CAT

63
Q

Appearance of Toxoplasma gondii in tissue fluids of man:

A

CRESCENT

64
Q

Positive result in the Sabin-Feldman dye test:

A

TOXOPLASMA LOSES ITS AFFINITY FOR METHYLENE BLUE DYE

65
Q

Test for detection of Cryptosporidium:

A

SHEATHER’S SUGAR FLOTATION

66
Q

Schistosome eggs recovered in rectal biopsy:

A

S. MANSONI AND S. JAPONICUM

67
Q

Scientific name of the HEADof the tapeworm:

A

SCOLEX

68
Q

Oral and ventral cupshaped sucker in the adult stage:

A

TREMATODES

69
Q

First intermediate host of the flukes:

A

SNAIL

70
Q

Schistosomule:

A

CERCARIA MINUS TAIL

71
Q

Beef tapeworm:

A

TAENIA SAGINATA

72
Q

Uterine branches >15, resembling those of a tree:

A

TAENIA SAGINATA

73
Q

Unarmed scolex:

A

BEEF TAPEWORM

74
Q

With 7 to 12 uterine branches:

A

TAENIA SOLIUM

75
Q

Hexacanth embryo enclosed in a radially striated shell:

A

TAENIA SPP.

76
Q

Tapeworm infection to be treated with great care so that man does not acquire the larval infection:

A

TAENIASIS SOLIUM

77
Q

Bile-stained egg and contains a hexacanth embryo that LACKS POLAR KNOBS OR FILAMENTS:

A

HYMENOLEPIS DIMINUTA

78
Q

Dwarf tapeworm: HYMENOLEPIS NANA

A

Rat tapeworm: H. DIMINUTA.

79
Q

Eggs of Echinococcus granulosus:

A

FOUND IN THE FECES OF DOGS

80
Q

Found in the intermediate host of E. granulosus:

A

HYDATID CYST

81
Q

Hydatid disease:

A

DUE TO LARVA OF ECHINOCOCCUS GRANULOSUS

82
Q

First intermediate host of Diphyllobothrium latum:

A

COPEPODS

83
Q

Second intermediate host of Diphyllobothrium latum:

A

FRESHWATER FISH

84
Q

Infective stage of broad fish tapeworm to man:

A

PLEROCERCOID LARVA

85
Q

TAPEWORM egg with operculum and abopercular knob:

A

DIPHYLLOBOTHRIUM LATUM

86
Q

Megaloblastic anemia:

A

DIPHYLLOBOTHRIUM LATUM

87
Q

Male roundworm:

A

DORSALLY CURVED POSTERIOR

88
Q

Demonstration of pinworm infection:

A

CELLOPHANE TAPE PREPARATION

89
Q

Gravid female of pinworm deposits her embryonated eggs:

A

ON THE PERIANAL SKIN

90
Q

Eggs are flattened on one side and contain a motile larva:

A

ENTEROBIUS VERMICULARIS

91
Q

Bile-stained eggs with clear polar plugs:

A

WHIPWORM

92
Q

NO free-living stage:

A

ENTEROBIUS VERMICULARIS

93
Q

Trichuris trichiura infective stage to man:

A

EMBRYONATED EGG

94
Q

Ascaris egg lacking the mammillated coat:

A

DECORTICATED EGG

95
Q

Unholy three:

A

HOOKWORMS, ASCARIS AND TRICHURIS

96
Q

First larval stage of nematodes:

A

RHABDITIFORM LARVA

97
Q

Heart to lung migration:

A

ASCARIS, HOOKWORM, STRONGYLOIDES

98
Q

Eggs of hookworms:

A

EMBRYO IN 2 TO 8 CELL STAGE OF CLEAVAGE, OVAL, THIN-SHELLED AND WITH A CLEAR SPACE BETWEEN SHELL AND EMBRYO

99
Q

Microcytic, hypochromic anemia:

A

HOOKWORMS

100
Q

Rhabditiform larva of the HOOKWORM:

A

LONG BUCCAL CAVITY EQUAL TO THE WIDTH OF THE BODY

101
Q

Mode of transmission is by skin penetration:

A

HOOKWORMS, STRONGYLOIDES

102
Q

Demonstrated as rhabditiform larva in the fecal specimen:

A

THREADWORM

103
Q

Muscle biopsy:

A

TRICHINOSIS

104
Q

Vivaparous nematode:

A

PRODUCES LIVING LARVAE

105
Q

Differential characteristics of microfilariae:

A

PRESENCE OR ABSENCE OF SHEATH

106
Q

Habitat of adult filarial worms:

A

LYMPHATICS AND SUBCUTANEOUS TISSUES

107
Q

Pathological findings in infestations of Wuchereria:

A

ELEPHANTIASIS

108
Q

Intermediate host of Guinea worm:

A

COPEPOD

109
Q

Dirofilaria immitis:

A

DOG HEARTWORM

110
Q

Dracunculus infections:

A

ULCERS THAT RELEASE LARVAE ON CONTACT WITH WATER

111
Q

Eye worm:

A

LOA LOA

112
Q

Cutaneous larva migrans or creeping eruption:

A

CAUSED BY FILARIFORM LARVAE OF ANIMAL HOOKWORMS

113
Q

Causes chronic cough, pulmonary and artery obstruction but no invasion of the heart in man:

A

DIROFILARIA IMMITIS

114
Q

Caused by ingestion of snails by man:

A

RAT LUNGWORM/A. CANTONENSIS

115
Q

Cercarial dermatitis or swimmer’s itch :

A

CAUSED BY CERCARIA OF SCHISTOSOMES

116
Q

BODY of a tapeworm:

A

STROBILA

117
Q

Gravid segments of tapeworms:

A

FILLED WITH EGGS

118
Q

Six-hooked embryo:

A

HEXACANTH EMBRYO

119
Q

TROPHOZOITES in iodine wet stool preparation:

A

TROPHOZOITES ARE DESTROYED BY IODINE

120
Q

CYTOPLASM of protozoan CYST in iodine wet stool preparation:

A

YELLOW-BROWN

121
Q

CHROMATOID BODIES of protozoan cysts in iodine wet stool preparation:

A

DO NOT STAIN

122
Q

CHROMATOID BODIES in TRICHROME stain:

A

BRIGHT TO RED

123
Q

Preservative in trichrome staining:

A

POLYVINYL ALCOHOL

124
Q

Ideal temperature at which to hold a fecal specimen for more than 1 hour:

A

REFRIGERATOR TEMPERATURE

125
Q

Specific gravity of the zinc sulfate solution for the flotation method:

A

1.18

126
Q

Blood specimen is preferred for preparing blood smears for protozoa:

A

FINGER PUNCTURE

127
Q

Venipuncture is not recommended for: MALARIA, BABESIA, HEMOFLAGELLATES (REQUIRES FINGER-PRICK BLOOD)

A

MALARIA, BABESIA, HEMOFLAGELLATES (REQUIRES FINGER-PRICK BLOOD)

128
Q

Detection of stippling, blood film from venipunture:

A

PREPARED 30 MINUTES TO 1 HOUR AFTER BEING DRAWN

129
Q

Spatulate, 3 × 1 mm; no rostellum or hooklets; has 2 shallow grooves (bothria)

A

D.Latum

130
Q

Quadrate, 1-2 mm in diameter; no rostellum or hooklets; 4 suckers

A

T.saginata

131
Q

Quadrate, 1-mm diameter; has rostellum and hooklets; 4 suckers

A

T.solium

132
Q

0.2-0.5 mm in diameter; has conical/retractile rostellum armed with 4-7 rows of small hooklets; 4 suckers

A

D.caninum

133
Q

Knoblike but not usually seen; has rostellum and hooklets; 4 suckers

A

H.nana

134
Q

Knoblike but not usually seen; has rostellum but no hooklets; 4 suckers

A

H.diminuta

135
Q

Beta-hemolytic streptococci - distinctive buttery odor

A

Proteus - “chocolate cake” or “burnt chocolate” smell

136
Q

P. aeruginosa - fruity or grape-like smell, corn tortilla-like odor

A

Burkholderia cepacia complex – dirt-like odor

137
Q

Alcaligenes faecalis - fruity odor res. apples or strawberries

A

Chromobacterium violaceum - smell of ammonium cyanide (almond-like)

138
Q

Eikenella corrodens - chlorine bleach odor

A

Pasteurella multocida - musty or mushroom odor

139
Q

Haemophilus influenzae - mouse nest odor

A

Neisseria animaloris - odor resembles popcorn

140
Q

Clostridium difficile - horse stable odor

A

Stenotrophomonas maltophilia - ammonia smell

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