MOVIE 2 Flashcards
Which of the following is a fungus known to cause chromoblastomycosis?
A. Curvularia spp.
B. Acremonium spp.
C. Bipolaris spp.
D. Cladosporium spp.
D
The mode of transmission of schistosomal infection is by:
A. Ingestion of contaminated aquatic vegetation
B. Direct penetration of the skin by cercariae
C. Ingestion of raw fish
D. Mosquito bite
B
Infection with S. haematobium may present with which of the following?
A. Nausea
B. Basophilia
C. Hematuria
D. Jaundice
C
All of the following are medically dimorphic fungi except:
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Blastomyces dermatitidis
C. Coccidioides immitis
D. Aspergillus niger
D
Which fungus is most often acquired by traumatic implantation into the skin?
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Sporothrix schenckii
C. Coccidioides immitis
D. Penicillium marneffei
B
Which test can be used to differentiate T. mentagrophytes from T. rubrum?
A. Fluorescence using a Wood’s lamp
B. In vitro hair perforation
C. Red color on reverse side of colony
D. Pyriform microconidia
B
Which dimorphic fungus may be contracted by people who clean chicken coops?
A. Blastomyces dermatitidis
B. Histoplasma capsulatum
C. Coccidioides immitis
D. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
B
A 65-year-old male with HIV presents to the emergency department with night sweats, a nonproductive cough, and a low-grade fever. PCP is suspected. Which of the following is the best specimen for diagnostic staining for Pneumocystis jiroveci?
A. Urine
B. Sputum
C. Bronchial alveolar lavage fluid
D. Blood
E. Nasopharyngeal swab
C
Germ tube formation is seen with which two yeasts?
A. C. albicans, C. neoformans
B. C. albicans, C. parapsilosis
C. C. glabrata, C. parapsilosis
D. C. albicans, C. dubliniensis
E. C. glabrata, C. dubliniensis
D
In the virus laboratory, most manipulation of viruses occurs at what safety level?
A. Biosafety Level 1
B. Biosafety Level 2
C. Biosafety Level 3
D. No biosafety is needed; manipulations are done on the bench.
B
VIROLOGY
Respiratory specimens are best collected with what type of swabs?
A. Calcium alginate swabs
B. Dacron- or polyester-tipped swabs
C. Swabs with cotton tips or wooden shafts
D. All of the above are acceptable
B
Dacron is a registered trade name for a polyester fiber made by DuPont.
CHECK YOUR BAILEYS VIROLOGY
1. What pH indicator is added to the cell culture growth medium to monitor pH changes?
A. Eagle’s minimum essential medium
B. Fetal bovine serum
C. Earle’s balanced salt solution
D. Phenol red
- Which instrument is used to detect CPE in cell culture?
A. Fluorescent microscope
B. Electron microscope
C. Biologic safety cabinet
D. Inverted light microscope
D, D
Once inoculated with specimen, cell cultures are incubated for 1 to 4 weeks, depending on the viruses suspected. Periodically the cells are inspected microscopically with an inverted light microscope for the presence of virus, indicated by areas of dead or dying cells, called cytopathic effect. The degree of CPE is graded from 1+ to 4+; 1+ involves 25% of the cell monolayer; 2+ involves 50%; 3+ involves 75%; and 4+ involves 100% of the cell monolayer.
Metabolism of growing cells in a closed tube results in the production of carbon dioxide and acidification of the growth liquid. To counteract the pH decrease, a bicarbonate buffering system is used in the culture medium to keep the cells at physiologic pH (7.2). Phenol red, a pH indicator that is red at physiologic pH, yellow at acidic pH, and purple at alkaline pH, is added to monitor adverse pH changes.
The filovirus that has a characteristic “shepherd’s hook” morphology when viewed by electron microscopy is:
A. Ebola Zaire virus
B. Ebola Reston virus
C. Ebola Sudan virus
D. Marburg virus
D
Which family of viruses produces one of the most lethal hemorrhagic fevers?
A. Bunyaviridae
B. Filoviridae
C. Flaviviridae
D. Arenaviridae
B
The three respiratory agents most often responsible for causing croup in pediatric patients are:
A. Parainfluenza, RSV, and rhinovirus
B. Influenza A, RSV, and parainfluenza 3
C. Coronavirus, RSV, and rhinovirus
D. Parainfluenza, RSV, and metapneumovirus
D
What is the safe volume of blood to be drawn for pediatric blood cultures?
A. <1 mL
B. 1 to 5 mL
C. 5 to 10 mL
D. 10 to 20 mL
B
For infants and small children, only 1 to 5 mL of blood should be drawn for bacterial culture. Blood culture bottles are available designed specifically for the pediatric patient. Because blood specimens from septic children may yield fewer than 5 CFU/mL of the organism, quantities less than 1 mL may not be adequate to detect pathogens. Nevertheless, smaller volumes should still be cultured because high levels of bacteremia (more than 1000 CFU/mL of blood) are detected in some infants.
Psittacosis is a lower respiratory infection in humans caused by contact with what animal?
A. Swine
B. Seals
C. Cats
D. Birds
D
PAROTID GLAND (SALIVARY)
What virus traditionally causes viral parotitis?
A. Influenza virus
B. Parainfluenza virus
C. Rhinovirus
D. Mumps virus
D
What is the primary cause of stomatitis, inflammation of the mucous membranes of the oral cavity?
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Klebsiella spp.
C. Candida spp.
D. Enterobacteriaceae
A
Stomatitis is an inflammation of the mucous membranes of the oral cavity. Herpes simplex virus is the primary agent of this disease, in which multiple ulcerative lesions are seen on the oral mucosa. These lesions are painful and can be found in the mouth and in the oropharynx. Herpetic infections of the oral cavity are prevalent among immunosuppressed patients.
Loeffler’s agar slant is a special culture medium used to recover which organism?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Bordetella pertussis
D. Neisseria meningitidis
B
Which of the following bacteria is able to hydrolyze urea via urease production, which results in an increase in urine pH that is toxic to kidney cells and stimulates the formation of kidney stones?
A. E. coli
B. Proteus
C. S. aureus
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B
Which organism is associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura?
A. Shigella dysenteriae
B. Clostridium difficile
C. EHEC (VTEC)
D. Vibrio cholerae
C
E. coli are associated with hemorrhagic colitis and the sequelae following infection of hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) and thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP). These strains of E. coli are referred to as enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC), also referred to as serotoxigenic or STET/VTEC.
A patient has been diagnosed as having amebiasis but continues to be asymptomatic. The physician has asked for an explanation and recommendations regarding follow-up. Suggestions should include:
A. Consideration of Entamoeba histolytica versus Entamoeba dispar
B. A request for an additional three stools for culture
C. Initiating therapy, regardless of the patient’s asymptomatic status
D. Performance of barium x-ray studies
A
Because this patient is asymptomatic, the organisms seen in the fecal smears are probably E. dispar (nonpathogen); the laboratory report should have said “Entamoeba histolytica/
E. dispar—unable to differentiate on the basis of morphology unless trophozoites are seen to contain ingested RBCs (E. histolytica).
Charcot–Leyden crystals in stool may be associated with an immune response and are thought to be formed from the breakdown products of:
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Monocytes
D. Lymphocytes
B
Which of the following is the best technique to identify Dientamoeba fragilis in stool?
A. Formalin concentrate
B. Trichrome-stained smear
C. Modified acid-fast–stained smear
D. Giemsa’s stain
B
One of the following protozoan organisms has been implicated in waterborne and foodborne outbreaks. The suspect organism is:
A. Pentatrichomonas hominis
B. Dientamoeba fragilis
C. Giardia lamblia
D. Balantidium coli
C
An operculated CESTODE egg that can be recovered from human feces is:
A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. Paragonimus westermani
D. Dipylidium caninum
B
Oocysts of Cryptosporidium spp. can be detected in stool specimens using:
A. Modified Ziehl–Neelsen acid-fast stain
B. Gram stain
C. Methenamine silver stain
D. Trichrome stain
A
Eye infections with Acanthamoeba spp. have most commonly been traced to:
A. Use of soft contact lenses
B. Use of hard contact lenses
C. Use of contaminated lens care solutions
D. Failure to remove lenses while swimming
C
Which parasite causes eosinophilic meningoencephalitis, a form of larva migrans causing fever, headache, stiff neck, and increased cells in the spinal fluid?
A. Necator americanus
B. Angiostrongylus cantonensis
C. Ancylostoma braziliense
D. Strongyloides stercoralis
B
When humans have hydatid disease, the causative agent and host classification are:
A. Echinococcus granulosus—accidental intermediate host
B. Echinococcus granulosus—definitive host
C. Taenia solium—accidental intermediate host
D. Taenia solium—definitive host
A
Microsporidial infections can be confirmed using:
A. Light microscopy and modified trichrome stains
B. Phase contrast microscopy and routine trichromestains
C. Electron microscopy and modified acid-faststains
D. Fluorescence microscopy and hematoxylin stains
A
Examination of a modified acid-fast stained fecal smear reveals round structures measuring approximately 8–10 μm, some of which are stained and some of which are not. They do not appear to show any internal morphology. The patient is symptomatic with diarrhea, and the cause may be:
A. Blastocystis hominis
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
C. Cyclospora cayetanensis
D. Large yeast cells
C
A transplant patient is currently receiving steroids. The patient is now complaining of abdominal pain and has symptoms of pneumonia and positive blood cultures with gram-negative rods. The individual has been living in the United States for 20 years but grew up in Central America. The most likely parasite causing these symptoms is:
A. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Strongyloides stercoralis
D. Schistosoma japonicum
C
As the patient became more immunosuppressed (steroids), the life cycle began to reactivate with penetration of the larvae through the intestinal wall (abdominal pain) and larval migration through the lungs (pneumonia), and the patient may have presented with evidence of sepsis (often with gram-negative bacteria carried with the larvae as they penetrate the intestinal wall). Patients who become immunosuppressed may see the life cycle of Strongyloides reactivated with serious illness resulting; this can occur many years after the initial infection and after the patient has left the endemic area.
- Entamoeba dispar is most easily confused morphologically with:
A. Entamoeba coli
B. Entamoeba hartmanni
C. Dientamoeba fragilis
D. Entamoeba histolytica
E. Blastocystis hominis - A patient has been diagnosed as having amebiasis but continues to be asymptomatic. The physician has asked for an explanation and recommendations regarding follow-up. Suggestions should include:
A. Consideration of Entamoeba histolytica versus Entamoeba dispar
B. A request for an additional three stools for culture
C. Initiating therapy, regardless of the patient’s asymptomatic status
D. Performance of barium x-ray studie
D, A
A dehydrated 25-year-old male patient was admitted to the hospital with symptoms similar to those of chronic fatigue syndrome. Serological testing proved negative for recent streptococcal infection, Epstein–Barr virus, and hepatitis. Which of the following viral serological tests should help with a possible diagnosis?
A. CMV
B. Echovirus
C. Respiratory syncytial virus
D. Measles virus
A
A 2-month-old infant in good health was scheduled for a checkup at the pediatrician’s office. After arriving for the appointment, the mother noted white patches on the baby’s tongue and in his mouth. The baby constantly used a pacifier. What is the most likely organism causing the white patches
A. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Candida albicans
C. Aspergillus fumigatus
D. None of these option
B
A sputum specimen from an 89-year-old male patient with suspected bacterial pneumonia grew a predominance of gram-positive cocci displaying alpha-hemolysis on 5% sheep blood agar. The colonies appeared donut shaped and mucoidy and tested negative for catalase. The most appropriate tests for a final identification are:
A. Coagulase, glucose fermentation, lysostaphin
B. Penicillin, bacitracin, CAMP
C. Optochin, bile solubility, PYR
D. Bile esculin, hippurate hydrolysis
C
S. pneumoniae
A wound (skin lesion) specimen obtained from a newborn grew predominantly β-hemolytic colonies of gram-positive cocci on 5% sheep blood agar. The newborn infant was covered with small skin eruptions that gave the appearance of a “scalding of the skin.” The gram-positive cocci proved to be catalase positive. Which tests should follow for the appropriate identification?
A. Optochin, bile solubility, PYR
B. Coagulase, glucose fermentation, DNase
C. Bacitracin, PYR, 6.5% salt broth
D. CAMP, bile-esculin, 6.5% salt broth
B.
Staphylococcus aureus
An isolate recovered from a vaginal culture obtained from a 25-year-old female patient who is 8 months pregnant is shown to be a gram-positive cocci, catalase negative, and β-hemolytic on blood agar. Which tests are needed for further identification?
A. Optochin, bile solubility, PYR
B. Bacitracin, CAMP, PYR
C. Methicillin, PYR, trehalose
D. Coagulase, glucose, PYR
B.
S. Agalactiae
Family history of chromosome abnormalities, such as TRISOMY 21 (DOWN SYNDROME), amniocentesis may be indicated at:
A. 1 to 7 weeks gestation
B. 7 to 14 weeks gestation
C. 15 to 18 weeks gestation
D. 20 to 42 weeks gestation
C
Excess CSF should be:
A. Discarded
B. Refrigerated
C. Frozen
D. Maintained at room temperature
C
Amniotic fluid for Lamellar bodies determination:
1. OD 650
A. Mixed with 95% ethanol
B. Mixed with 1% NaOH
C. Centrifuged
D. Gentle inversion, tube rocker
- Lamellar Body Count (LBC) by impedance or optical principle:
A. Mixed with 95% ethanol
B. Mixed with 1% NaOH
C. Centrifuged
D. Gentle inversion, tube rocker
C, D
- Green with carbocyanine:
A. DNA
B. DNA and nuclear membrane
C. Nuclear membrane and mitochondria
D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane - Orange with phenathridine:
A. DNA
B. DNA and nuclear membrane
C. Nuclear membrane and mitochondria
D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane
D, A
- Reagent for the APT’s test:
A. Guaiac
B. 1% sodium hydroxide
C. 95% ethanol
D. 10% eosin - Fetal hemoglobin (Hb F) in Apt’s test
A. Pink solution
B. Pink precipitate
C. Yellow-brown supernatant
D. Yellow-brown precipitate - Adult hemoglobin (Hb A) in Apt’s test
A. Pink solution
B. Pink precipitate
C. Yellow-brown supernatant
D. Yellow-brown precipitate
B, A, C
- Living sperm cells in the Modified Bloom’s test:
A. Unstained, bluish-white
B. Purple on a red background
C. Purple on a black background
D. Red on a purple background - Dead sperm cells in the Modified Bloom’s test:
A. Unstained, bluish-white
B. Purple on a red background
C. Purple on a black background
D. Red on a purple background
A, D
Useful early predictor of ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY (AKI) and has prognostic value for clinical endpoints, such as initiation of dialysis and mortality:
A. Cystatin C
B. Neutrophil gelatinase-associated lipocalin (NGAL)
C. Urea
D. Creatinine
B
- Low to absent fructose level in the semen:
A. Low sperm concentration
B. Low sperm motility
C. Low sperm viability
D. Presence of antisperm antibodies - Specimens for fructose levels should be tested within 2 hours of collection or _______ to prevent fructolysis.
A. Refrigerated
B. Frozen
C. Incubated at 37C
D. Maintained at room temperature - Specimens can be screened for the presence of fructose using the resorcinol test that produces an _______color when fructose is present.
A. Blue
B. Black
C. Green
D. Orange
A, B, D
What substance may be measured as an alternative to creatinine for evaluating GFR?
A. Plasma urea
B. Cystatin C
C. Uric acid
D. Potassium
B
Centrifugation for urine microscopic examination:
A. RCF of 100 for 2 minutes
B. RCF of 400 for 5 minutes
C. RCF of 500 for 5 minutes
D. RCF of 500 for 10 minutes
B
Wet preparation for demonstration of fecal leukocytes:
A. Methylene blue
B. Gram stain
C. Wright’s stain
D. All of these
A
An indicator of PREECLAMPSIA:
A. Cylindruria
B. Ketonuria
C. Hematuria
D. Proteinuria
D
Pathologically, these casts are increased in congestive heart failure:
A. Hyaline cast
B. Granular cast
C. Cellular cast
D. Waxy cast
A
- Which of the following could be a broad cast?
A. Hyaline cast
B. Granular cast
C. Waxy cast
D. All of these - Most commonly seen broad casts:
A. Hyaline and granular casts
B. Hyaline and waxy casts
C. Granular and waxy casts
D. RBC and WBC casts
D, C
Bence Jones protein precipitates at temperatures between ___, and redissolves at near ___ ° C.
A. Precipitates at 100-120C, and redissolves at 60C
B. Precipitates at 10 to 20C, and redissolves at 100C
C. Precipitates at 80-100C, and redissolves at 60C
D. Precipitates at 40 to 60C, and redissolves at 100C
D
It corrects renal blood flow in the following ways: causing VASODILATION OF THE AFFERENT ARTERIOLES and CONSTRICTION OF THE EFFERENT ARTERIOLES, stimulating reabsorption of sodium and water in the proximal convoluted tubules, and triggering the release of the sodium-retaining hormone aldosterone by the adrenal cortex and antidiuretic hormone by the hypothalamus:
A.Renin
B.Angiotensin I
C.Angiotensin II
D.Aldosterone
C
- High urine volume, low urine specific gravity:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Acute pyelonephritis - High urine volume, high urine specific gravity:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Acute pyelonephritis
B, A
Severe hemolysis and suggests a severely affected fetus. Intervention through induction of labor or intrauterine exchange transfusion must be considered.
A. Zone 1 of Liley graph
B. Zone 2 of Liley graph
C. Zone 3 of Liley graph
D. None of these
C
Hops or cabbage odor of the urine:
A. MSUD
B. Isovaleric acidemia
C. Methionine malabsorption
D. Tyrosinemia
C
- Most frequently performed chemical analysis on urine:
A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Uric acid
D. Blood - Most frequently performed chemical test on CSF:
A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Uric acid
D. Blood - Most frequently requested test in synovial fluid:
A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Uric acid
D. Blood
B, A, B
The presence of _____ increases the OD of the amniotic fluid. Specimens are centrifuged at 2,000 g for 10 minutes and examined using a wavelength of 650 nm.
A. Bilirubin
B. Oxyhemoglobin
C. Lamellar bodies
D. None of these
C
- Positive result for the acid-albumin and CTAB test for mucopolysaccharides:
A. White turbidity
B. Yellow turbidity
C. Red spot
D. Blue spot - Positive result for the METACHROMATIC STAINING SPOT TEST for mucopolysaccahrides:
A. White turbidity
B. Yellow turbidity
C. Red spot
D. Blue spot
A, D
- In the four-glass method for diagnosis of prostatitis, urinary bladder infection is tested for:
A. VB1
B. VB2
C. EPS
D. VB3 - In the four-glass method for diagnosis of prostatitis, urethral infection or inflammation is tested for:
A. VB1
B. VB2
C. EPS
D. VB3
B, A
- Shape of monosodium urate crystals in synovial fluid:
A. Envelopes
B. Needles
C. Rods, rhomboid square
D. Flat, variable-shaped plates - Shape of calcium pyrophosphate crystals:
A. Envelopes
B. Needles
C. Rods, rhomboid square
D. Flat, variable-shaped plates
B, C
Which protein test is NOT able to detect immunoglobulin light chains (Bence Jones protein) in urine?
A. Immunoelectrophoresis
B. Protein precipitation between 40 and 60C
C. Sulfosalicylic acid (SSA) precipitation test
D. Reagent strip test based on protein error of indicators
D
By far the most frequently performed fecal analysis is the detection of:
A. Carbohydrates
B. Fats
C. Muscle fibers
D. Occult blood
D
Number of orange-red fat droplets in direct fat stain indicative of steatorrhea:
A. Greater than 10/hpf
B. Greater than 50/hpf
C. Greater than 60/hpf
D. Greater than 100/hpf
C
Which of the following would result in a permanent deferral for a whole blood donation?
A. Jaundice as a small child
B. Temperature above 37C
C. Recipient of human growth hormone
D. Accidental needle stick 1 year previously; negative for infectious diseases
C
- Inoculum size for DISK DIFFUSION susceptibility testing:
A. 1 x 10^4 CFU/mL
B. 1.5 x 10^5 CFU/mL
C. 1.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL
D. 5 x 10^5 CFU/mL - Inoculum size for AGAR DILUTION susceptibility testing:
A. 1 x 10^4 CFU/spot
B. 1.5 x 10^5 CFU/spot
C. 1.5 x 10^8 CFU/spot
D. 5 x 10^5 CFU/spot - Inoculum size for BROTH DILUTION susceptibility testing:
A. 1 x 10^4 CFU/mL
B. 1.5 x 10^5 CFU/mL
C. 1.5 x 10^8 CFU/mL
D. 5 x 10^5 CFU/mL
C, A, D
Which of the following is the key pathogen that infects the lungs of patients with cystic fibrosis?
A. B. cepacia
B. B. pseudomallei
C. P. fluorescens
D. P. aeruginosa
D
A 17-year-old female with cystic fibrosis is diagnosed with pneumonia. A sputum sample grew gram-negative bacilli with yellow ✅, smooth colonies that have the following biochemical reactions:
Oxidase: positive ✅
TSI: alk/alk
Glucose: oxidized
Fluorescence: negative
Lysine decarboxylase: positive
The most likely organism is:
A. Burkholderia cepacia
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Shewanella putrefaciens
D. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
A
A sputum culture from a 13-year-old cystic fibrosis patient grew a predominance of short, gram-negative rods that tested oxidase negative ✅. On MacConkey, chocolate, and blood agar plates, the organism appeared to have a lavender-green pigment. Further testing showed:
Motility = +
Glucose = + (oxidative)
Lysine decarboxylase = +
DNase = +
Maltose = + (oxidative)
Esculin hydrolysis = +
What is the most likely identification?
A. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
B. Acinetobacter baumannii
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Burkholderia (P.) cepacia
A
Which of the following is associated with GRANULOMATOUS DISEASE IN ANIMALS and have been associated with SOFT TISSUE INFECTION IN HUMANS FOLLOWING ANIMAL BITES?
A. Actinobacillus
B. Cardiobacterium
C. Haemophilus
D. Vibrio
A
Which mycobacterium is associated with Crohn’s disease?
A. M. marinum
B. M. paratuberculosis
C. M. avium
D. M. gordonae
B
Transient aplastic crisis can occur with:
A. Parvovirus B19
B. WNV
C. CMV
D. EBV
A
- JC Virus:
A. Hemorrhagic cystitis
B. Progressive multifocal leukoencaphalopathy
C. Keratoconjunctivitis
D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis - BK Virus:
A. Hemorrhagic cystitis
B. Progressive multifocal leukoencaphalopathy
C. Keratoconjunctivitis
D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis
B, A
Microscopically, numerous smooth, thin-walled, club-shaped, multiseptate (2 to 4 μm) macroconidia are seen. They are rounded at the tip and are borne singly on a conidiophore or in groups of two or three. MICROCONIDIA ARE ABSENT, spiral hyphae are rare, and chlamydoconidia are usually numerous.
A. Epidermophyton floccosum
B. Microsporum canis
C. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
D. Trichophyton rubrum
A
- Fluorescence on Wood’s lamp, growth in rice medium:
A. Microsporum canis
B. Microsporum gypseum
C. Microsporum audouinii
D. Epidermophyton floccosum - Fluorescence on Wood’s lamp, no growth in rice medium:
A. Microsporum canis
B. Microsporum gypseum
C. Microsporum audouinii
D. Epidermophyton floccosum
A, C
A patient with a Wood’s lamp positive, dermatophytic infection has a skin scraping taken for culture. The organism grows on SDA agar with a light-tan front and salmon-colored reverse. Microscopically the organism produces rare distorted macroconidia and rare microconidia. Additionally, there was no growth on sterile rice medium.What is themost likely organism?
A. Microsporum canis
B. Microsporum gypseum
C. Microsporum audouinii
D. Epidermophyton floccosum
C
Methods other than packaged microsystems used to identify anaerobes include:
A. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing
B. Gas–liquid chromatography (GLC)
C. Special staining
D. Enzyme immunoassay
B
- Bacteria:
A. Unicellular, prokaryotes
B. Multicellular, prokaryotes
C. Unicellular, eukaryotes
D. Multicellular, eukaryotes - Yeasts:
A. Unicellular, prokaryotes
B. Multicellular, prokaryotes
C. Unicellular, eukaryotes
D. Multicellular, eukaryotes
A, C
An 18-year-old female with a hematocrit of 38%, temperature of 37C, and blood pressure of 175/ 90 mm Hg presents for whole blood donation. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor?
A. Accept
B. TD, blood pressure is too high for a person ofher age
C. TD, temperature is too high
D. PD, for all values listed
A
A 63-year-old man with a hemoglobin value of 130 g/L (13 g/dL) and pulse of 80 beats/min, who received human pituitary growth hormone (PGH) when he was 10 years old, presents for whole blood donation. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD,) or temporarily defer (TD) the donor?
A. Accept the donor
B. TD, because of the human PGH
C. PD, because of the human PGH
D. PD, because of the high hemoglobin value
C
A 38-year-old female weighing 153 lbs, who received the rubella vaccine 2 months previously, presents to donate whole blood. She also received 2 units of packed cells after the delivery of her eighth child 8 weeks ago. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor?
A. Accept the donor
B. TD because of the packed cells 8 weeks ago
C. PD because of receiving blood products
D. TD because of the rubella vaccine
B
A 22-year-old female with a cousin with AIDS who had taken aspirin the day before and with needle marks on both arms presents to donate WHOLE BLOOD. Based on this information, would you accept, permanently defer (PD), or temporarily defer (TD) the donor?
A. PD, needle marks on both arms
B. TD, needle marks on both arms
C. PD, cousin with AIDS
D. TD, because of the aspirin
A
The worm has a characteristic, thick cuticle and a large uterus that fills the body cavity and contains rhabditoid larvae:
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Enterobius vermicularis
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Dracunculus medinensis
D
To optimize recovery of S. haematobium in urine, the specimen should be collected:
A. Early morning
B. Between noon and 2 pm
C. Between 2 pm and 4 pm
D. Between 10 pm and 2 am
B
It resembles egg of S. haematobium, but acid-fast positive:
A. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Schistosoma intercalatum
D. Schistosoma mekongi
C
- Quadrate scolex with 4 suckers; no rostellum or hooklets:
A. D. latum
B. T. saginata
C. T. solium
D. H. diminuta - Quadrate scolex with 4 suckers; has rostellum and hooklets:
A. D. latum
B. T. saginata
C. T. solium
D. H. diminuta
B, C
Gravid proglottids characteristically contain a centrally located uterine structure that frequently assumes a ROSETTE formation.
A. Dipylidium caninum
B. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. Taenia saginata
D. Taenia solium
B
It is more frequent in populations living in conditions of poverty or poor hygiene, in day care centers, and in persons living in institutional settings or prisons.
A. Diphyllobothrim latum
B. Hymenolepis nana
C. Taenia saginata
D. Taenia solium
B
Proglottids with 15 to 20 lateral branches in dichotomous or tree-like arrangement:
A. D. latum
B. T. saginata
C. T. solium
D. D. caninum
B
Which malarial organism has large, coarse, red dots within a large, pale red blood cell with fimbriated edges?
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium ovale
D. Plasmodium malariae
C
- Early ring stages of the fifth human malaria, Plasmodium knowlesi, resemble those of:
A. Plasmodium malariae
B. Plasmodium ovale
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium vivax - Older developing stages (trophs, schizonts) of the fifth human malaria, P. knowlesi, resemble those of:
A. Plasmodium malariae
B. Plasmodium ovale
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium vivax
C, A
Synchronized rupture of RBCs every 72 hours:
A. P. falciparum
B. P. vivax
C. P. ovale
D. P. malariae
D
Massive hemolysis, blackwater fever, and central nervous system involvement are most common with:
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium ovale
D. Plasmodium malariae
B
Red cells in blood smear show multiple infection with ring stages. Indicates infection with:
A. P. falciparum
B. P. vivax
C. P. malariae
D. P. ovale
A
Rapid antigen detection for HISTIDINE-RICH PROTEIN II (HRP-II) is specific for:
A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Plasmodium malariae
C. Plasmodium ovale
D. Plasmodium vivax
A
- Resistant to invasion by P. falciparum merozoites:
A. Fy (a-b-)
B. Fy (a+b-)
C. M-N-
D. M+N- - Resistant to malarial invasion with Plasmodium knowlesi and Plasmodium vivax:
A. Fy (a-b-)
B. Fy (a+b-)
C. M-N-
D. M+N-
C, A
Which of the following is the most important feature in differentiating CYSTS of Entamoeba histolytica from E. dispar?
A. Number of nuclei
B. Size of the cyst
C. Shape of the karyosome
D. Distinguishing surface antigens by immunologic assays
D
AMEBOID TROPHOZOITES
Which species of malaria parasite usually has ameboid trophozoites and produces small reddish dots in the red blood cell cytoplasm?
A. Plasmodium knowlesi
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium malariae
D. Plasmodium vivax
D
CRESCENT-SHAPED GAMETOCYTES
Which species of Plasmodium may readily be identified when crescent-shaped gametocytes are found in stained blood films?
A. P. falciparum
B. P.malariae
C. P.ovale
D. P.vivax
A
- Slowly multiplying trophozoite stage of Toxoplasma gondii:
A. Gametocyte
B. Sporozoite
C. Bradyzoite
D. Tachyzoite - Rapidly multiplying trophozoite stage of Toxoplasma gondii:
A. Gametocyte
B. Sporozoite
C. Bradyzoite
D. Tachyzoite
C, D
First-stage larva of flukes that emerge from the egg in fresh water, equipped with cilia, which aid in movement:
A. Cercaria
B. Metacercaria
C. Redia
D. Miracidium
D
Schistosomal infection occurs through skin penetration by infected ______ released from a freshwater snail containing the intermediate stages of the schistosome life cycle.
A. Miracidium
B. Redia
C. Cercaria
D. Metacercaria
C
QBC: QUANTITATIVE BUFFY COAT
1. Malarial parasites appear bright green and yellow under a fluorescent microscope in the Quantitative Buffy Coat (QBC) method. This method uses capillary tube coated with:
A. Auramine-rhodamine
B. Methyl green-pyronine
C. Acridine orange
D. Fluoresceine isothiocyanate
- Quantitative Buffy Coat (QBC) method for malaria diagnosis:
A. Brightfield microscope
B. Fluorescent microscope
C. Phase-contrast microscope
D. Electron microscope
C, B
- This organism is associated with PRIMARY AMOEBIC MENINGOENCEPHALITIS (PAM):
A. Naegleria fowleri
B. Acanthamoeba sp.
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Giardia lamblia - This organism is associated with GRANULOMATOUS AMEBIC ENCEPHALITIS (GAE):
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Dientamoeba fragilis
C. Naegleria fowleri
D. Acanthamoeba sp.
A, D
- Eggs can be confused with POLLEN GRAINS:
A. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Dipylidium caninum
C. Hymenolepis nana
D. Taenia spp. - Gravid proglottids resemble RICE GRAINS (dry) or CUCUMBER SEEDS (moist):
A. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Dipylidium caninum
C. Hymenolepis nana
D. Taenia spp.
D, B
- Infective stage is the SHEATHED FILARIFORM LARVA:
A. Strongyloides stercoralis
B. Ancylostoma duodenale, Necator americanus
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Enterobius vermicularis - Infective stage is the UNSHEATHED FILARIFORM LARVA:
A. Strongyloides stercoralis
B. Ancylostoma duodenale, Necator americanus
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Enterobius vermicularis
B, A
Infection may mimic acute viral enteritis, bacillary dysentery, bacterial or other food poisoning, acute intestinal amebiasis, or “TRAVELER’S DIARRHEA” (ETEC). However, the type of diarrhea plus the lack of blood, mucus, and cellular exudate is consistent with:
A. Amebiasis
B. Ascariasis
C. Balantidiasis
D. Giardiasis
D
Presence of _____ RTE cells indicates tubular injury, and such specimens should be referred for cytologic urine testing.
A. 1 to 3 RTE cells per LPF
B. 3 to 5 RTE cells per LPF
C. More than 2 RTE cells per HPF
D. 1 to 2 RTE cells per HPF
C
- Largest cell in urine sediment:
A. Squamous epithelial cells
B. Transitional epithelial cells
C. Renal tubular epithelial cells
D. None of these - Largest RTE cells originate from the:
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Distal collecting tubule
C. Collecting duct
D. None of these
A, A
- Diluent for CSF total cell count:
A. Normal saline
B. 3% acetic acid with methylene blue
C. Formalin
D. Sodium bicarbonate - Diluent for CSF WBC count:
A. Normal saline
B. 3% acetic acid with methylene blue
C. Formalin
D. Sodium bicarbonate
A, B
Serous fluid for pH determination:
A. Must be maintained at room temperature
B. Must be maintained at body temperature, 37C
C. Maintained aerobically in ice
D. Maintained anaerobically in ice
D
Slides for muscle fiber detection (in stool) are prepared by emulsifying a small amount of stool in ____________, which enhances the muscle fiber striations.
A. Crystal violet
B. Loeffler’s methylene blue
C. 10% alcoholic eosin
D. 1% sodium hydroxide
C
When diluting a synovial fluid WBC count, all of the following are acceptable EXCEPT:
A. Acetic acid
B. Isotonic saline
C. Hypotonic saline
D. Saline with saponin
A
- Normal synovial fluid will be able to form ____ cm STRING.
A. 1 to 2 cm
B. 3 to 4 cm
C. 4 to 6 cm
D. 6 to 10 cm - Hyaluronate polymerization can be measured using a ROPES, or MUCIN CLOT TEST. When added to a solution of 2% to 5% acetic acid, normal synovial fluid forms:
A. No clot
B. Friable clot
C. Soft clot
D. Solid clot surrounded by clear fluid
C, D
Sensitive early marker for liver disease:
A. Platelet count
B. PT
C. PTT
D. Thrombin time
B
Factor VII - SHORTEST HALF-LIFE. Because prothrombin time (PT) is particularly sensitive to factor VII activity, it is characteristically prolonged in mild liver disease, serving as a sensitive early marker.
- Diluent for CSF total cell count:
A. Normal saline
B. 3% acetic acid with methylene blue
C. Formalin
D. Sodium bicarbonate - Diluent for CSF WBC count:
A. Normal saline
B. 3% acetic acid with methylene blue
C. Formalin
D. Sodium bicarbonate
A, B
Serous fluid for pH determination:
A. Must be maintained at room temperature
B. Must be maintained at body temperature, 37C
C. Maintained aerobically in ice
D. Maintained anaerobically in ice
D
Slides for muscle fiber detection (in stool) are prepared by emulsifying a small amount of stool in ____________, which enhances the muscle fiber striations.
A. Crystal violet
B. Loeffler’s methylene blue
C. 10% alcoholic eosin
D. 1% sodium hydroxide
C
When diluting a synovial fluid WBC count, all of the following are acceptable EXCEPT:
A. Acetic acid
B. Isotonic saline
C. Hypotonic saline
D. Saline with saponin
A
- Normal synovial fluid will be able to form ____ cm STRING.
A. 1 to 2 cm
B. 3 to 4 cm
C. 4 to 6 cm
D. 6 to 10 cm - Hyaluronate polymerization can be measured using a ROPES, or MUCIN CLOT TEST. When added to a solution of 2% to 5% acetic acid, normal synovial fluid forms:
A. No clot
B. Friable clot
C. Soft clot
D. Solid clot surrounded by clear fluid
C, D
Sensitive early marker for liver disease:
A. Platelet count
B. PT
C. PTT
D. Thrombin time
B
Factor VII - SHORTEST HALF-LIFE. Because prothrombin time (PT) is particularly sensitive to factor VII activity, it is characteristically prolonged in mild liver disease, serving as a sensitive early marker.
Red cells from a recently transfused patient were DAT positive when tested with anti-IgG. Screen cells and a panel performed on a patient’s serum showed very weak reactions with inconclusive results.
What procedure could help to identify the antibody?
A. Elution followed by a panel on the eluate
B. Adsorption followed by a panel on the adsorbedserum
C. Enzyme panel
D. Antigen typing the patient’s red cells
A
An anti-M reacts strongly through all phases of testing. Which of the following techniques would not contribute to removing this reactivity so that more clinically significant antibodies may be revealed?
A. Acidifying the serum
B. Prewarmed technique
C. Adsorption with homozygous cells
D. Testing with enzyme-treated red cells
A
The following results were obtained on a 51-year-old male with hepatitis C:
Anti-A 4+
Anti-B 4+
Anti-D 4+
A1 cells 0
B cells 0
What should be done next?
A. Retype the patient’s sample to confirm group AB positive
B. Repeat the Rh typing
C. Run a saline control in forward grouping
D. Report the patient as group AB, Rh positive
C
- PT normal
APTT prolonged
APTT + fresh plasma = corrected
APTT + adsorbed plasma = corrected
APTT + aged serum = not corrected
Most likely coagulation factor deficient:
A. Factor I
B. Factor VII
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor IX - PT normal
APTT prolonged
APTT + fresh plasma = corrected
APTT + adsorbed plasma = not corrected
APTT + aged serum = corrected
A. Factor I
B. Factor VII
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor IX
C, D
- PT prolonged
APTT prolonged
APTT + fresh plasma = corrected
APTT + adsorbed plasma = not corrected
APTT + aged serum = not corrected
Most likely coagulation factor deficient:
A. Factor I
B. Factor V
C. Factor X
D. Factor II - Patient with severe bleeding
PT normal
APTT prolonged
APTT + fresh plasma = corrected
APTT + adsorbed plasma = corrected
APTT + aged serum = corrected
Most likely coagulation factor deficient:
A. Factor VIII
B. Factor IX
C. Factor XI
D. Factor XII - Patient with no bleeding tendency
PT normal
APTT prolonged
APTT + fresh plasma = corrected
APTT + adsorbed plasma = corrected
APTT + aged serum = corrected
Most likely coagulation factor deficient:
A. Factor VIII
B. Factor IX
C. Factor XI
D. Factor XII
D, C, D
Patients should avoid banana, pineapples and tomatoes when testing for:
A. 5-HIAA
B. Mucopolysaccharides
C. Phenylalanine
D. Melanin
A
PLEASE REFER TO STRASINGER
Seminal fluid are collected following a period of sexual abstinence of:
A. 1 to 3 days
B. 3 to 5 days
C. 2 to 7 days
D. 7 to 10 days
C
Red diamond or fire hazard, classified according to Flash Point:
A. A to C
B. A to D
C. 1 to 10
D. 0 to 4
D
MUDDY CASTS
GRANULAR, DIRTY, BROWN CASTS representing hemoglobin degradation products are associated with:
A. Cystitis
B. Acute pyelonephritis
C. Acute interstitial nephritis
D. Acute tubular necrosis
D
Yellow to brownish red and are moderately hard stone:
A. Cystine stones
B. Calcium oxalate stones
C. Phosphate stones
D. Uric acid and urate stones
D
RENAL STONE yellow-brown resembling an old soap and feel somewhat greasy:
A. Phosphate
B. Urate
C. Cystine
D. Calcium oxalate
C
The primary inorganic substance found in urine is:
A. Sodium
B. Phosphate
C. Chloride
D. Calcium
C
Strongly pungent urine odor:
A. Acute tubular necrosis
B. Trimethylaminuria
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis
D. Severe urinary tract infection
D
Highly refractile RTE cells:
A. Columnar RTE cells
B. Cuboidal RTE cells
C. Bubble cells
D. Oval fat bodies
D
These granules are highly refractile spheres, usually with a dimpled center.
A. Oil droplets
B. Starch granules
C. Pollen grains
D. Hair and fibers
B
- Dilution for cell count for a hazy CSF:
A. Undiluted
B. 1:10
C. 1:20
D. 1:100
E. 1: 200 - Dilution for cell count for a slightly hazy CSF:
A. Undiluted
B. 1:10
C. 1:20
D. 1:100
E. 1: 200 - Dilution for cell count for a cloudy CSF:
A. Undiluted
B. 1:10
C. 1:20
D. 1:100
E. 1: 200 - Dilution for cell count for a slightly cloudy CSF:
A. Undiluted
B. 1:10
C. 1:20
D. 1:100
E. 1: 200
C, B, E, D
A cloudy urine specimen received in the laboratory may have been preserved using:
A. Boric acid
B. Chloroform
C. Refrigeration
D. Formalin
C
REFRIGERATION precipitates amorphous phosphates and urates.
Preserves protein and formed elements well:
A. Boric acid
B. Formalin
C. Thymol
D. Toluene
A
Three-dimensional images of high contrast and resolution are obtained, without haloing:
A. Bright-field microscopy
B. Polarizing microscopy
C. Phase-contrast microscopy
D. Interference contrast microscopy
D
Glitter cells are neutrophils:
A. Exposed to urine with high specific gravity
B. Exposed to urine with low specific gravity
C. Containing lipids
D. Containing non-lipid vacuoles
B
Glitter cells - neutro in hypotonic urine (low sp. gr.)
Differentiation of WBC cast and epithelial cast:
A. Solubility in dilute HCl
B. Solubility at 60C
C. Supravital staining
D. Staining with Prussian blue
C
Differentiation of WBC casts from epithelial casts: supravital staining, phase microscopy and Pap’s (Henry)
Clot formation in CSF, except:
A. Traumatic tap
B. Froin’s syndrome
C. Tuberculous meningitis
D. Intracranial hemorrhage
D
Discovery of genetic principles underlying the generation of antibodies with different specificities:
A. Gerald Edelman
B. Cesar Milstein
C. Susumu Tonegawa
D. Louis Pasteur
C
What should be done if a noticeable clot is found in an RBC unit?
A. Issue the unit; the blood will be filtered
B. Issue the unit; note the presence of a clot on the release form
C. Filter the unit in the blood bank before issue
D. Do not issue the unit
D
A technologist removed 4 units of blood from the blood bank refrigerator and placed them on the counter. A clerk was waiting to take the units for transfusion. As she checked the paperwork, she noticed that one of the units was leaking onto the counter. What should she do?
A. Issue the unit if the red cells appear normal
B. Reseal the unit
C. Discard the unit
D. Call the medical director and ask for an opinion
C
The most serious hemolytic transfusion reactions are due to incompatibility in which of the following blood group systems?
A. ABO
B. Rh
C. MN
D. Duffy
A
Components of an information system consist of all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Validation
D. People
C
User passwords should be:
A. Shared with others
B. Kept confidential
C. Posted at each terminal
D. Never changed
B
A few isolated aggregates; mostly free-floating cells; supernatant appears red:
A. Negative
B. Trace
C. 1+
D. 2+
E. Mixed-field
E
ACUTE TRANSFUSION REACTION is defined as a reaction in which signs and symptoms present ___ HOURS of a transfusion.
A. Within 72 hours
B. Within 48 hours
C. Within 24 hours
D. After 24 hours
C
What component is most frequently involved with transfusion-associated sepsis?
A. Plasma
B. Packed red blood cells
C. Platelets
D. Whole blood
C
All of the following are routinely performed on a cord blood sample except:
A. Forward ABO typing
B. Antibody screen
C. Rh typing
D. DAT
B
An antibody screen is not performed routinely on a cord blood sample because a baby does not make antibodies until about 6 months of age. Any antibodies detected in a cord blood sample come from the mother.
When using a standard 450 mL collection bag, what is the acceptable range for the volume of whole blood collected?
A. 350 to 550 mL
B. 400 to 500 mL
C. 405 to 495 mL
D. 425 to 475 mL
C
Donor deferral for first-trimester or second-trimester abortion or miscarriage:
A. 2 weeks deferral
B. 6 weeks deferral
C. 12 months deferral
D. Not cause for deferral
D
A potential donor has received vaccination for yellow fever:
A. 2 weeks deferral
B. 4 weeks deferral
C. 8 weeks deferral
D. No deferral
A
Beta cell destruction, usually leading to absolute insulin deficiency:
A. Type 1 DM
B. Type 2 DM
C. Gestational DM
D. Other specific causes of diabetes
A
Diabetes resulting from a progressive insulin secretory defect with insulin resistance:
A. Type 1 DM
B. Type 2 DM
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Drug-induced diabetes
B
Comparing a current laboratory result with results obtained on a previous specimen from the same patient:
A. Delta check
B. Average of normal
C. Pattern recognition
D. Randomized duplicate specimens
A
Glucose measurements can be ____ mg/dL erroneously higher by reducing methods than by more accurate enzymatic methods.
A. 1 to 5 mg/dL
B. 5 to 15 mg/dL
C. 20 to 25 mg/dL
D. 30 to 35 mg/dL
B
This needle gauge is used primarily for infant or child veins:
A. 16
B. 18
C. 21
D. 23
D
Detected using the “standing plasma” test:
A. CM
B. LDL
C. HDL
D. Lp(a)
A
The heme portion of the hemoglobin molecule consists of ____ iron (Fe2+) atom(s) and ____ pyrrole rings that are joined to each other.
A. One iron and two pyrrole rings
B. One iron and four pyrrole rings
C. Two iron and four pyrrole rings
D. Four iron and four pyrrole rings
B
EFFECT OF SHORT DRAW TO HEMATOCRIT
An increased concentration of anticoagulant (short draw in an evacuated tube) _______ the hematocrit reading.
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Variable
D. Undetermined
B
In general, cytoplasmic color in younger cells:
A. Pink
B. Red
C. Dark blue
D. Light blue
C
- Most common complication encountered in obtaining a blood specimen:
A. Ecchymosis (bruise)
B. Hematoma
C. Hemoconcentration
D. None of these - It is caused by leakage of a SMALL AMOUNT OF BLOOD in the tissue around the puncture site:
A. Ecchymosis (bruise)
B. Hematoma
C. Hemoconcentration
D. None of these - Leakage of a LARGE AMOUNT OF BLOOD around the puncture site causes the area to rapidly swell:
A. Ecchymosis (bruise)
B. Hematoma
C. Hemoconcentration
D. None of these
A, A, B
Which of the following is a NEUROLOGIC complication of phlebotomy?
A. Pseudoaneurysm
B. Hematoma
C. Seizure
D. Shock
C
Cardiovascular complications of phlebotomy:
1. Cardiac arrest
2. Hypotension
3. Syncope
4. Shock
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D
- Smallest platelets seen:
A. Alport syndrome
B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
C. May-Hegglin anomaly
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome - Largest platelets seen:
A. Alport syndrome
B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
C. May-Hegglin anomaly
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
D, B
Uncontrolled activation of thrombin and consumption of coagulation factors, platelets, and fibrinolytic proteins secondary to many initiating events, including infection, inflammation, shock, and trauma. Most commonly evidenced by diffuse mucocutaneous bleeding.
A. Christmas disease
B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
C. Hemophilia A
D. von Willebrand’s disease
B
During handwashing, rinse hands in a _____ position to prevent recontamination of hands and wrists.
A. Upward
B. Downward
C. Sideward
D. Any of these
B
Effect of prolonged tourniquet application to vWF and Factor VIII:
A. Decreased
B. Increased
C. Variable
D. No effect
B
Upon stimulation, platelets change in shape from discoid to _____, extend pseudopods, undergo internal contraction resulting in centralization of their alpha granules and dense granules, and release the granule contents.
A. Cylindrical
B. Irregular
C. Oval
D. Spherical
D
More than half of the cases have been described in Ashkenazi Jews, but individuals of any ethnic group may be affected:
A. Hemophilia A
B. Hemophilia B
C. Hemophilia C
D. vWD
C
- Initial vWD workup:
- CBC
- PT and APTT
- Bleeding time
- Functional platelet assays
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 - Definitive diagnosis of vWD:
- CBC
- PT and APTT
- History of mucocutaneous bleeding
- Decreased vWF activity
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
A, C
Phlebotomy is used as a therapeutic treatment for:
A. Diabetes
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Phlebitis
D. Polycythemia
D
Which of the following is contained in the primary granules of the neutrophil?
A. Lactoferrin
B. Myeloperoxidase
C. Histamine
D. Alkaline phosphatase
B
- Positive Kleihauer-Betke test:
- Hemoglobin is denatured
- Hemoglobin resists denaturation
- RBCs appear as ghost cells
- RBCs will take up the pink or red stain
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4 - Negative Kleihauer-Betke test:
- Hemoglobin is denatured
- Hemoglobin resists denaturation
- RBCs appear as ghost cells
- RBCs will take up the pink or red stain
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
D, A
- Demonstrates the largest platelets seen and is also referred to as giant platelet syndrome:
A. Alport syndrome
B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
C. May-Hegglin anomaly
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome - Characterized by the presence of large platelets and the presence of Döhle-like bodies in the granulocytic leukocytes:
A. Alport syndrome
B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
C. May-Hegglin anomaly
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome - Disorder that exhibits giant platelets and thrombocytopenia:
THERE ARE THREE POSSIBLE ANSWERS BUT CHOOSE ONE BEST ANSWER (EXACT SENTENCE IN TURGEON BOOK)
A. Alport syndrome
B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
C. May-Hegglin anomaly
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome - Demonstrates the smallest platelets seen:
A. Alport syndrome
B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
C. May-Hegglin anomaly
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
B, C, A, D
Mast cells are not observed in the blood of healthy persons. These cells have an appearance similar to that of the blood:
A. Monocyte
B. Basophil
C. Eosinophil
D. Neutrophil
B
Promonocyte nucleus is deeply indented and should not be confused with:
A. Lymphocyte
B. Plasma cell
C. Basophil
D. Neutrophil band
D
- Maintains cellular energy by generating ATP:
A. Methemoglobin reductase pathway
B. Hexose monophosphate shunt
C. Luebering-Rapaport pathway
D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway - Regulates oxygen affinity of hemoglobin:
A. Methemoglobin reductase pathway
B. Hexose monophosphate shunt
C. Luebering-Rapaport pathway
D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway - Prevents oxidation of heme iron:
A. Methemoglobin reductase pathway
B. Hexose monophosphate shunt
C. Luebering-Rapaport pathway
D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway - Prevents denaturation of globin of the hemoglobin molecule:
A. Methemoglobin reductase pathway
B. Hexose monophosphate shunt
C. Luebering-Rapaport pathway
D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway
D, C, A, B
Its most characteristic feature is that the nucleus begins to assume an indented or kidney bean shape, which will continue to elongate as the cell matures through this phase:
A. Promyelocyte
B. Myelocyte
C. Metamyelocyte
D. Band
C
Metamyelocyte (kidney-shaped, INDENTED nucleus); band (elongated, curved nucleus).
- Factor VII deficiency:
A. Normal PT, Prolonged APTT, Normal TCT
B. Prolonged PT, Normal APTT, Normal TCT
C. Prolonged PT and APTT, Normal TCT
D. Prolonged PT, APTT and TCT - Hemophilia A:
A. Normal PT, Prolonged APTT, Normal TCT
B. Prolonged PT, Normal APTT, Normal TCT
C. Prolonged PT and APTT, Normal TCT
D. Prolonged PT, APTT and TCT - Factor X deficiency:
A. Normal PT, Prolonged APTT, Normal TCT
B. Prolonged PT, Normal APTT, Normal TCT
C. Prolonged PT and APTT, Normal TCT
D. Prolonged PT, APTT and TCT - Fibrinogen deficiency:
A. Normal PT, Prolonged APTT, Normal TCT
B. Prolonged PT, Normal APTT, Normal TCT
C. Prolonged PT and APTT, Normal TCT
D. Prolonged PT, APTT and TCT
B, A, C, D
Assess deficiencies of all factors except VII and XIII:
A. Platelet count
B. Prothrombin time (PT)
C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
D. Thrombin time
C
The purest type of reagent water is:
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. All are equal
A
What is the dilution factor if 4 mL of serum is added to 12 mL of diluent?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 12
D. 15
B
In a person with normal glucose metabolism, the blood glucose level usually increases rapidly after carbohydrates are ingested but returns to a normal level after:
A. 30 minutes
B. 45 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 120 minutes
D
GLUCOSE
The plasma glucose level increases rapidly after a carbohydrate-rich meal, returning to normal 1½ to 2 hours after eating (postprandial level).
In a person with impaired glucose metabolism, such as in type 1 diabetes, what is true about the blood glucose level?
A. It increases rapidly after carbohydrates are ingested but returns to a normal level after 120 minutes.
B. It increases rapidly after carbohydrates are ingested and stays greatly elevated even after 120 minutes.
C. It does not increase after carbohydrates are ingested and stays at a low level until the next meal.
D. It increases rapidly after carbohydrates are ingested but returns to a normal level after 30 minutes.
B
The protein content of the diet will affect primarily the test results for:
A. Creatinine
B. Creatine
C. Uric acid
D. Urea or urea nitrogen
D
Urea concentration is primarily influenced by the protein intake
In which of the following conditions resulting in jaundice is there an increase primarily in unconjugated bilirubin?
A. Increased hemolysis of red cells
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Biliary obstruction
D. Cirrhosis of the liver
A
In which of the following conditions resulting in jaundice is there an increase in both conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin?
A. Hemolysis of red cells
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Obstruction from gallstones
D. Constriction of biliary tract from neoplasm
B
Which of the following statements is true about type 1 diabetes?
A. It is associated with an insufficient amount of insulin secreted by the pancreas.
B. It is associated with inefficient activity of the insulin secreted by the pancreas.
C. It is a more frequent type of diabetes than the non– insulin-dependent diabetes (type 2).
D. Good control of this disease will eliminate complications in the future.
A
Which of the following is considered a lipid?
A. Chylomicrons
B. LDL
C. Cholesterol
D. HDL
C
In the laboratory procedure for the quantification of HDL, the purpose of the dextran sulfate is to:
A. Precipitate all Apo A1 containing lipoproteins
B. Convert cholesterol esters to cholesterol for detection
C. Precipitate all Apo B and Apo A containing lipoproteins
D. Precipitate all Apo B containing proteins
D
Which of the following lipoproteins is the smallest of all the lipoproteins and is composed of 50% protein?
A. HDL
B. Chylomicrons
C. LDL
D. Triglycerides
A
Which of the following enzymes is found bound to HDL and LDL in blood plasma and acts to convert free cholesterol into cholesteryl esters?
A. Cholesterol esterase
B. Cholesterol oxidase
C. Lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase
D. Lipase
C
