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NUR 105 Fnal Exam > nose, mouth and throat, resp and musculoskeletal > Flashcards

nose, mouth and throat, resp and musculoskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

T/F:

sinuses drain into the middle meatus

A

True

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2
Q

T/ F :

tears from the nasolacrimal duct drain into the superior meatus

A

False - inferior

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3
Q

T/F:

olfactory receptors lie in the roof of the nasal cavity and in the upper 1/3 of the septum

A

True

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4
Q

T/F:

the receptors for smell merge to form cranial nerve II

A

false - CN I

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5
Q

T/F:

smell is important as it reduces the risk of poor nutritional intake by enhancing the smell as taste of food

A

True

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6
Q

T/F:

adults have 32 permanent teeth - 16 in each arch

A

True

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7
Q

T/F:

each tooth has 3 parts: crown, neck and root

A

True

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8
Q

T/F:

the gums (gingivae) collar the teeth and are mucous membranes

A

false

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9
Q

T/F:

drooling indicates the eruption of the first tooth

A

false

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10
Q

T/F:

teeth begin development in the utero

A

True

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11
Q

T/F:

children have 20 deciduous teeth which erupt between 6mnth and 24 mth

A

True

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12
Q

T/F:

deciduous teeth are lost beginning at 4 - 14 y/o

A

False - 6-12 y/o

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13
Q

T/F:

permanent teeth appear earlier in boys and dark skinned children

A

False - jus girls

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14
Q

the most common site of nosebleeds is:

a) the turbinates
b) the columellae
c) Kiesselbach’s plexus
d) the meatus

A

c) Kiesselbach’s plexus

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15
Q

the sinuses that are accessible to examine are:

a) ethmoid and sphenoid
b) frontal and ethmoid
c) maxillary and sphenoid
d) frontal and maxillary sinuses

A

d) frontal and maxillary sinuses

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16
Q

the frenulum is:

a) the midline fold of tissue that connects the tongue to the floor of the mouth
b) the anterior border of the oral cavity
c) the arching roof of the mouth
d) the free projection hanging down from the middle of the soft palate

A

a) the midline fold of tissue that connects the tongue to the floor of the mouth

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17
Q

the largest salivary gland is located:

a) within the cheeks in front of the ear
b) beneath the mandible at the angle of the jaw
c) within the floor of the mouth under the tongue
d) at the base of the tongue

A

a) within the cheeks in front of the ear

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18
Q

a 70 y/o complains of dry mouth. the most frequent cause is:

a) the aging process
b) related to medications may be taking
c) use of dentures
d) related to diminished sense of smell

A

b) related to medications may be taking

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19
Q

in order differentiate between an acute infection and chronic inflammation. the confirmation of acute infection is indicated by:

a) nodes are hard, unilateral, nontender and fixed
b) nodes are bilateral, enlarged, warm, tender and freely moveable
c) nodes are enlarged, firm, nontender and mobile
d) nodes are clumped into strings

A

b) nodes are bilateral, enlarged, warm, tender and freely moveable

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20
Q

match the following

a) circumoral pallor
b) cherry red lips
c) cyanosis

1 - carbon monoxide poisoning
2- hypoxaemia and chilling
3 - shock and anaemia

A 
a = 3
b = 1 
c = 2
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21
Q

oral malignancies are most likely to develop:

a) on the soft palate
b) on the tongue
c) in the buccal cavity
d) under the tongue

A

d) under the tongue

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22
Q

in a medical record a grade 3+ of the tonsils would be:

a) visible
b) halfway between tonsillar pillars and uvula
c) touching the uvula
d) touching each other

A

c) touching the uvula

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23
Q

the function of the nasal turbinates is to:

a) warm the inhaled air
b) detect odours
c) stimulate tear formation
d) lighten the weight of the skull bones

A

a) warm the inhaled air

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24
Q

the opening of an adults parotid gland (stensens duct) is opposite the:

a) lower 2nd molar
b) lower incisors
c) upper incisors
d) upper 2nd molar

A

d) upper 2nd molar

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25
Q

a nasal polyp may be distinguished from the nasal turbinates for 3 of the following reasons. which is FALSE:

a) an aortic aneurysm
b) pleural adhesions
c) unilateral thyroid lobe enlargement
d) pneumothorax

A

b) pleural adhesions

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26
Q

T/F:

the trachea lies posterior to the oesophagus

A

F

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27
Q

T/F:

the adult trachea is 10-11 cm long

A

T

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28
Q

T/ F:

the trachea begins at the level of the cricoid cartilage in the neck and bifurcates just below the sternal angle into the right and left main bronchi

A

T

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29
Q

T/ F:

tracheal bifurcation is at the level of T2

A

F

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30
Q

T/ F:

the left main bronchus is shorter, wider and more vertical than the right main bronchus

A

F

31
Q

T/ F:

the trachea and bronchi constitutes the dead space

A

T

32
Q

the manubriosternal angle is:

a) the articulation of the manubrium and the body of the sternum
b) a hollow, U - shaped depression just above the sternum
c) also known as the breastbone
d) a term synonymous with costochondral junction

A

a) the articulation of the manubrium and the body of the sternum

33
Q

select the correct description of the left lung:

a) narrower than the R lung with 3 lobes
b) narrower than the R lung with 2 lobes
c) wider than the R lung with 2 lobes
d) shorter than the R with 3 lobes

A

b) narrower than the R lung with 2 lobes

34
Q

the cough associated with chronic bronchitis is best described as:

a) continuous throughout the day
b) productive cough for at least 3 mths of the year for 2 yrs in a row
c) occurring in the afternoon /evening because of exposure to irritants at work
d) occurring in the early morning

A

b) productive cough for at least 3 mths of the year for 2 yrs in a row

35
Q

symmetrical chest expansion is best confirmed by:

a) placing hands on the posterolateral chest wall with thumbs at the level of T9 or T10 , then sliding the hands up to pinch up a sml fold of skin between the thumbs
b) inspection of the shape and configuration of the chest wall
c) placing the palmer surface of the fingers of one hand against the chest and having the person repeat the words ‘ninety nine’
d) percussion of the posterior chest

A

a) placing hands on the posterolateral chest wall with thumbs at the level of T9 or T10 , then sliding the hands up to pinch up a sml fold of skin between the thumbs

36
Q

absence of diaphragmatic excursion occurs with:

a) asthma
b) an unusually thick chest wall
c) pleural effusion or atelectasis of the lower lobes
d) age related changes in the chest wall

A

c) pleural effusion or atelectasis of the lower lobes

37
Q

auscultation of breathing sounds. select the most accurate description of this part of the examination

a) hold the bell of the stethoscope against the chest wall, listen to the entire R field then the entire left L field
b) hold the diaphragm of the stethoscope against the chest wall; listen to one full respiration in each location, being sure to do side to side comparisons
c) listen from the apices to the bases of each lung field using the bell of the stethoscope
d) select the bell or diaphragm depending upon the quality of sounds heard; listen for one respiration in each location, moving from side to side

A

b) hold the diaphragm of the stethoscope against the chest wall; listen to one full respiration in each location, being sure to do side to side comparisons

38
Q

select the best description of bronchovesicular breath sounds:

a) high pitched, of longer duration on inspiration than expiration
b) moderate pitch, inspiration equal to expiration
c) low pitched, inspiration greater than expiration
d) rustling sounds, like the wind in the trees

A

b) moderate pitch, inspiration equal to expiration

39
Q

a pt has: increased resp rate, chest expansion decreased on L side, dull to percussion over L lower lobe, breath sounds loured with fine crackles over L lower lober. These are consistant with the diagnosis of:

a) bronchitis
b) asthma
c) pleural effusion
d) lobar pneumonia

A

d) lobar pneumonia

40
Q

T/F:

tachypnoea =
rapid shallow breathing, increased rate>24 p/m; normal response to fever, fear or exercise . rate increases with resp insufficiency, pneumonia, alkalosis, pleurisy ad lesions in pons

A

T

41
Q

T/F:

hypoventilation =
irregular shallow pattern; an overdose of narcotics or anaesthetics

A

T

42
Q

T/F:

Cheyne - strokes resp =
cyclic, regular, increasing in rate and depth and then decreasing; severe heart failure, renal failure, meningitis, drug overdose and increased intracranial pressure

A

T

43
Q

T/F :

Bradypnoea =
slow breathing, decreased, regular rate(<10 p/m); drug induced depression of resp centre, increased intreacranial pressure and diabetic coma

A

T

44
Q

T/F:

hyperventilation - Kussmaul’s resp =

increase in both rate and depth; diabetic ketoacidosis

A

T

45
Q

upon examination, you note a coarse, low pitched sound during inspiration and expiration. pt complains of pain with breathing. These findings are consistant with:

a) fine crackles
b) wheezes
c) atelectatic crackles
d) pleural friction rub

A

d) pleural friction rub

46
Q

in order to use the technique of egophony, ask pt to:

a) take several deep breaths, then hold for 5 sec
b) say ‘eeee’ each time the stethoscope is moved
c) repeat the phrase ‘ 99’ each time the stethoscope is moved
d) whisper a phrase as auscultation is performed

A

b) say ‘eeee’ each time the stethoscope is moved

47
Q

Pulse oximeter measures:

a) aterial ox sats
b) venous ox sats
c) combined of aterial and venous blood
d) carboxyhaemoglobin levels

A

a) aterial ox sats

48
Q

when performing a resp assessment on an infant / child. which of the following is correct:

a) the newborns chest circumference equal to the head circumference until 2 y/o
b) the thoracic cage is soft and flexible
c) resp assess is a part of the Apgar scoring system
d) infants breaths through the nose rather than the mouth and are obligate nose breathers until 3 mnths

A

a) the newborns chest circumference equal to the head circumference until 2 y/o

49
Q

Mix and match
a - normal chest
b - barrel chest
c - pectus excavatum

1 - anteroposterior > transverse diameter
2 - sunken sternum and adjacent cartilages
3 - elliptical shape with an anteropsterior: transverse diameter in the ratio of 1:2

A 
a = 3 
b = 1 
c = 2
50
Q

Mix and match:

a - pectus carinatum
b - scoliosis
c - kyphosis

1 - forward protrusion of the sternum with ribs sloping back at either side
2 - lateral , s shaped curvature of the thoracic and lumbar spine
3 - exaggerated posterior curvature of thoracic spine

A 
a = 1 
b = 2 
c = 3
51
Q

T/ F:

swelling of subacromial bursa is localised under the deltoid muscle and may be accentuated when the person tries to abduct the arm

A

T

52
Q

T/ F:

shoulder pain may be from local causes or it may be referred pain from the hiatus hernia or cardiac or pleural condition

A

T

53
Q

T/ F:

a dislocated shoulder loses the normal rounded shape and looks flattened anteriorly

A

T

54
Q

T/ F:

pain from a local cause is reproducible during the examination by palpation or motion

A

T

55
Q

during an assessment of the spine, the pt would be asked to:

a) adduct and extend
b) supinate, evert and retract
c) extend, adduct, invert and rotate
d) flex, extend, abduct and rotate

A

d) flex, extend, abduct and rotate

56
Q

pronation and supination of the hand and forearm are the result of the articulation of the:

a) scapula and clavicle
b) radius and ulna
c) patella and condyle of fibula
d) femur and acetabulum

A

b) radius and ulna

57
Q

anterior and posterior stability is provided to the knee joint by the :

a) medial and lateral menisci
b) patellar tendon and ligament
c) medial collateral ligament and quadriceps muscle
d) anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments

A

d) anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments

58
Q

which of the following is a common age related change in the curvature of the spinal column:

a) lordosis
b) scoliosis
c) kyphosis
d) lateral scoliosis

A

c) kyphosis

59
Q

timing of joint pain can assist in determining cause. The joint pain asscociated with rheumatic fever would:

a) be worse in the morning
b) be worse later in the day
c) be worse in the morning but improve during the day
d) occur 10-14 days after an untreated sore throat

A

d) occur 10-14 days after an untreated sore throat

60
Q

examination of the shoulder includes 4 motions. These are:

a) forward flexion, internal rotation, abduction and external rotation
b) abduction, adduction, pronation and supination
c) circumduction, inversion, eversion and rotation
d) elevation, retraction, protraction and circumduction

A

a) forward flexion, internal rotation, abduction and external rotation

61
Q

the bulge sign is a test for:

a) swelling in the suprapatellar pouch
b) carpal tunnel syndrome
c) Heberden’s nodes
d) olecranon bursa inflammation

A

a) swelling in the suprapatellar pouch

62
Q

the examiner is going to measure a pts legs for length discrepancy. The normal findings would be:

a) no difference is measurements
b) 0.5 cm difference
c) within 1cm of each other
d) 2 cm difference

A

c) within 1cm of each other

63
Q

a 2 y/o has been brought to the clinic for a health examination. A common finding would be:

a) kyphosis
b) lordosis
c) scoliosis
d) no deviation is normal

A

b) lordosis

64
Q

many disorders can impact bone health. which of the following disorders would not be included:

a) hyperthyroidism
b) diabetes
c) renal disease
d) cardiac disease
e) malabsorption syndrome

A

d) cardiac disease

65
Q

which of the following surface landmarks would not be used to identify vertebral levels / orient you to the levels:

a) the spinous processes of C7 and T1 prominent at the base of the neck
b) the inferior angle of the scapula normally at the level of the interspace between T7 and T8
c) an imaginary line connecting the 10th ribs
d) an imaginary line connecting the highest point on each iliac crest crosses L4
e) an imaginary line joining the two symmetric dimples that overlie the posterior superior iliac spines crosses the sacrum

A

c) an imaginary line connecting the 10th ribs

66
Q

spina bifida would be suspected in the infant who had which of the following:

a) a small dimple in the midline, anywhere from the head to the coccyx
b) a tuft of hair over a dimple in the midline
c) a dimple in the gluteal fold
d) a positive Allis sign

A

b) a tuft of hair over a dimple in the midline

67
Q

T/ F:

Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) involves symmetrical joints

A

T

68
Q

T/ F:

chronic pain is not associated with degenerative musculoskeletal disorders

A

F

69
Q

T/ F:

pain related to acute inflammation is often described as exquisitely tender

A

T

70
Q

T/ F:

Osteoarthritis pain is worse in the morning when arising; RA is worse later in the day

A

F

71
Q

T/ F:

most joint pain is mechanical except in RA, when deformities restricts movement

A

T

72
Q

T/ F:

joint pain 10-14 days after an untreated strep throat suggests rheumatic fever

A

T

73
Q

Mix and match:

a - flexion
b - extension
c - abduction
d - adduction

1 - straightening a limb at a joint
2 - bending a limb at a joint
3 - moving a limb towards the midline of the body
4 - moving a limb away from the midline of the body

A 
a = 2 
b = 1 
c = 4 
d = 3
74
Q

mix and match:

a - pronation 
b - supination 
c - circumduction 
d - inversion 
e - eversion

1 - turning the forearm so that the palm is up
2 - turning the forearm so that the palm is down
3 - moving the arm in a circle around the shoulder
4 - moving the sole of the foot outwards at the ankle
5 - moving the sole of the foot inwards at the ankle

A 
a = 2
b = 1
c = 3
d = 5
e = 4

NUR 105 Fnal Exam (6 decks)

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