neuro, eyes, ears Flashcards
medical records indicate that a person has an injury to Broca’s area. when meeting this person you expect:
a) difficulty speaking
b) receptive aphasia
c) visual disturbances
d) emotional lability
a) difficulty speaking
the control of body temp is located in:
a) Wernicke’s area
b) the thalamus
c) the cerebellum
d) the hypothalamus
d) the hypothalamus
to test for stereognosis, you would:
a) have the person close their eyes, then raise the persons arms and ask them to describe its location
b) touch the person with a tuning fork
c) place a coin in the persons hand and ask them to identify it
d) touch the person with a cold object
c) place a coin in the persons hand and ask them to identify it
on an infant. a cotton tip to stimulate the anal sphincter . The absence of a response suggests a lesion of:
a) L2
b) T12
c) S2
d) C5
c) S2
during a neuro exam the tendon reflex fails to appear. Before striking the tendon again, the technique to use would be:
a) 2 point discrimination
b) reinforcement
c) vibration
d) graphaesthesia
b) reinforcement
cerebellar function is assessed by which of the following tests:
a) muscle size and strength
b) cranial nerve examination
c) coordination - hop on one foot
d) spinothalamic test
c) coordination - hop on one foot
to elicit a Babinski reflex :
a) gently tap the Achilles tendon
b) stroke the lateral aspect of the sole of the foot from the heel to the ball
c) present a noxious odour to a person
d) observe the person walking heel to toe
b) stroke the lateral aspect of the sole of the foot from the heel to the ball
A positive Babinski sign is:
a) dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of all toes
b) plantar flexion of the big toe with fanning of all toes
c) the expected response in healthy adults
d) withdrawal of the stimulated extremity from the stimulus
a) dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of all toes
the cremasteric response is:
a) positive when disease of the pyramidal tract is present
b) positive when the ipsilateral testicle elevates upon stroking of the inner aspect of the thigh
c) a reflex of the receptors in the muscles of the abdomen
d) not a valid neurological examination
b) positive when the ipsilateral testicle elevates upon stroking of the inner aspect of the thigh
senile tremors may resemble parkinsonism , EXCEPT that senile tremors do not include:
a) nodding the head as if responding yes or no
b) rigidity and weakness of voluntary movement
c) tremor of the hands
d) tongue protrusion
b) rigidity and weakness of voluntary movement
People with Parkinson’s usually have which of the following characteristics of speech:
a) a garbled manner
b) loud, urgent
c) slow, monotonous
d) word confusion
c) slow, monotonous
Mix and match
a - olfactory
b - optic
c - oculomotor
d - trochlear
1 - vision
2 - extraocular movement, pupil constriction, down and inward movement of the eye
3 - down and inwards movement of the eye
4 - smell
a = 4 b = 1 c = 2 d = 3
mix and match
a- trigeminal
b - abducens
c - facial
d - acoustic
1 - lateral movement of the eyes
2 - hearing and equilibrium
3 - mastication and sensation of face, scalp and cornea
4 - taste, anterior 2/3 of tongue, close eyes
a = 3 b = 1 c = 4 d = 2
mix and match
a - glossopharyngeal
b - vagus
c - spinal
d - hypoglossal
1 -movement of the tongue
2 - movement of trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles
3 - phonation, swolloowing , taste posterioir 3rd of tongue
4 - talking, swallowing, carotid sinus and carotid reflex
a = 3 b = 4 c = 2 d = 1
the palpebral fissure is:
a) the border between the cornea and sclera
b) the open space between the eyelids
c) the angle where the eyelids meet
d) visible on the upper and lower lids at the inner canthus
b) the open space between the eyelids
the corneal reflex structures viewed through the ophthalmoscope are:
a) the optic disc, the retinal vessels, the general background and the macula
b) the cornea, the lens, the choroid and the ciliary body
c) the optic papilla, the sclera, the retina and the iris
d) the pupil, the sclera, the ciliary body and the macula
a) the optic disc, the retinal vessels, the general background and the macula
the nurse records ‘positive consensual light reflex’. This is:
a) the convergence of the axes of the eyeballs
b) the simultaneous constriction of the other pupil when one eye is exposed to bright light
c) a reflex direction of the eye towards an object attracting a persons attention
d) the adaptation of the eye for near vision
b) the simultaneous constriction of the other pupil when one eye is exposed to bright light
several changes occur in the eye with the aging process. the thickening and yellowing of the lens is referred to as :
a) presbyopia
b) floaters
c) macular degeneration
d) senile cataract
d) senile cataract
which of the following is Not a leading cause of blindness and vision impairment:
a) cataract
b) hyphaema
c) diabetic retinopathy
d) under - corrected refractive error
b) hyphaema
other body systems that can affect the eye include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) musculoskeletal
b) cardiovascular
c) neurovascular
d) neurological
a) musculoskeletal
identify the symptom that may constitute an eye emergency and which should be referred immediately:
a) floaters
b) epiphora
c) sudden onset of vision change
d) photophobia
c) sudden onset of vision change
visual acuity is assessed with:
a) the Snellen eye chart
b) an opthalmoscope
c) the Hirschberg test
d) the confrontation test
a) the Snellen eye chart
when using the ophthalmoscope you would:
a) remove your own glasses and approach the pts L eye with your L eye
b) leave light on in the examining room and remove glasses from the pt
c) remove glasses and set the dioptre setting at 0
d) use the smaller white light and instruct the pt to focus on the opthalmoscope
a) remove your own glasses and approach the pts L eye with your L eye
the 6 muscles that control eye movement are innervated by which of the following cranial nerves:
a) II, III, V
b) IV, VI, VII
c) III, IV, VI
d) II, III, VI
c) III, IV, VI
conjunctivitis is always asscociated with:
a) absent red reflex
b) reddened conjunctiva
c) impairment of vision
d) fever
b) reddened conjunctiva
If a person is blind in the R eye. what happens to the pupil of the L eye when illuminated by light?
a) no response in both
b) both pupils constrict
c) R pupil contricts, L has no response
d) L constricts, R no response
b) both pupils constrict
one cause of visual impairment in aging adults is:
a) strabismus
b) glaucoma
c) amblyopia
d) retinoblastoma
b) glaucoma
medications that may cause cataracts include:
a) tetracyclines
b) beta-blockers
c) diuretics
d) steroids
d) steroids
infant blindness is suspected at 3wks of there is:
a) absence of blinking and pupillary light reflex
b) no tracking of objects placed in front of the infant
c) lack of interaction with the mother
d) refusal to open eyes after exposure to a bright light
e ) briefly describe the method of assessing the 6 cardinal fields of vision
a) absence of blinking and pupillary light reflex
using the otoscope, the tympanic membrane is visualised. the colour of a normal membrane is:
a) deep pink
b) creamy white
c) pearly grey
d) depends upon ethnicity
c) pearly grey
sensorineural hearing loss may be related to
a) a gradual nerve degeneration
b) foreign bodies
c) impacted cerumen
d) perforated tymp membrane
a) a gradual nerve degeneration
if maternal rubella infection occurs during the 1st trimester which damages:
a) semicircular canals
b) organ of Corti
c) vestibulocochlear
d) eardrum
b) organ of Corti
prior to examination of the ear what should be palpated for tenderness:
a) helix, external auditory meatus and lobule
b) mastoid process, tympanic membrane and malleus
c) pinna, pars flaccida and antitragus
d) pinna, tragus and mastoid process
d) pinna, tragus and mastoid process
when viewing the otoscope and nurse instructs to hold nose and swallow. the eardrum should:
a) flutter
b) retract
c) bulge
d) remain immobile
a) flutter
to differenciate between air conduction and bone conduction hearing loss, the nurse would perform:
a) Weber test
b) Romberg test
c) Rinne test
d) whisper test
c) Rinne test
Darwin’s tubercle is:
a) an overgrowth of scar tissue
b) a blocked sebaceous gland
c) a sign of gout
d) a congenital, painless nodule at the helix
d) a congenital, painless nodule at the helix
when the ear is being examined within an otoscope the pts head should be:
a) tilited towards the nurse
b) tilted away from the nurse
c) as verticle as possible
d) tilted down
b) tilted away from the nurse
the hearing receptors are located in the:
a) vestibule
b) semicircular canal
c) middle ear
d) cochlear
d) cochlear
the sensation of vertigo is the result of:
a) otitis media
b) pathology in the semicircular canals
c) pathology in the cochlear
d) 4th cranial nerve damage
b) pathology in the semicircular canals
a common cause of a conductive hearing loss is:
a) impacted cerumen
b) acute rheumatic fever
c) a stroke
d) otitis externa
a) impacted cerumen
in the Rinne test, the 2:1 refers to:
a) the loudness of the tone heard by 2 ears
b_ the length of time until the pt stops hearing the tone by air conduction and by bone conduction
c) the length of time unitl the pt no longer hears the tone and the nurse no longer hears the tone
b_ the length of time until the pt stops hearing the tone by air conduction and by bone conduction
which of the following indicate an infection of acute purulent otitis media:
a) absent light reflex, bluish drum, oval dark areas
b) absent light reflex, reddend drum, bulging drum
c) oval dark areas on drum
d) absent light reflex, air fluid level or bubbles behind drum
b) absent light reflex, reddend drum, bulging drum
c) oval dark areas on drum
you observe a women with yellow in colour tymp membrane and suspect:
a) serum in the middle ear
b) blood in the middle ear
c) infection of the drumhead
d) jaundice
a) serum in the middle ear
risk reduction strategies for acute otitis media includes:
a) use of pacifiers
b) increasing group day care
c) avoid breastfeeding
d) eliminating smoking in the house and care
d) eliminating smoking in the house and care
