Normal Feeding and Swallowing Development Embryological Flashcards

1
Q

neuroembryology: crucial development of…

A

communication, cognition, and swallowing functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

neuroembryology: errors in development can lead to…

A

PFD, dysphagia, and multiple etiologies that result in developmental and/or feeding problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

prenatal development, embryonic period

A
  • by 3rd week, 3 germ layers develop, CNS and cardiovascular system begin to form
  • all major organ systems are formed during the 4th to 8th week of development
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

prenatal development, fetal period: by 24 weeks

A
  • lungs produce surfactant 24-26 weeks: surface active lipid that maintains the opening of the developing alveoli in the lungs
  • respiratory system is still very immature (usually cannot sustain life independently): surfactant therapy has helped extreme preterm infants survive in addition to other medical interventions
  • period of “variability” typically discussed in preterm infants is discussed in this period of development
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

prenatal development, fetal period: 26-29 weeks

A
  • lungs are capable of air exchange, but they have difficulty
  • CNS is maturing
  • rhythmic breathing movements are possible but not present in all infants
  • beginnings of temperature control of the body
  • eyes are open at the beginning of this period
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

prenatal development, fetal period: 30-34 weeks

A
  • pupil response to light reflex can be elicited
  • by 34 weeks white fat (nutritional reserves) make up 8% of the fetus’s body weight
  • body temperature regulation is more stable by 34-35 weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

prenatal development, fetal period: 35-40 weeks

A
  • by 36 weeks, head circumference and abdomen are about equal (after 36 weeks abdomen circumference may be > head
  • 16% of body weight is white body fat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

neural tube development

A
  • dorsal induction then occurs when the neural tube is formed and then closes (also known as primary neurulation)
  • the neural plate bends upwards by the end of the 3rd week of development
  • neural crest begins formation of neural tube
  • complete closure of the neural tube happens by the end of the 4th week
  • neural tube eventually develops the entire CNS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

while it closes, it leaves neural crest cells

A
  • are the precursors to dorsal root (sensory) ganglia for spinal and sensory cranial nerves
  • precursors for Schwann cells that create myelin and the automatic nervous system
  • eventually develop into the PNS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

CNS development

A

all neurons in the spinal cord and brain are present by the 25th week of gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

cortex develops after birth

A
  • more dendrites more neural connections grow after birth
  • results in developmental norm acquisition in the first year of life
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

if the neural tube doesn’t develop or close completely during these first 4 weeks of gestation the following may occur

A

defects of the brain, spinal vertebrae, and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

types of neural tube defects

A
  1. anencephaly
  2. spina bifida
  3. closed neural tube defects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

anencephaly

A
  • lack of development of cerebral hemispheres
  • absent frontal, parietal, and occipital bones
  • has anomalies in the cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

anencephaly happens if the upper part of the neural tube does not close entirely

A
  • stunts the development of the upper portion of the brain including the forebrain
  • survival is typically only a few weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

spina bifida

A
  • can be mild to severe
  • occurs in about 3 to 4 babies per 10,000 live births
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

mildest form of spina bifida

A

spina bifida occulta –> usually does not cause health problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

more severe types of spina bifida include…

A
  • myelomeningoceles
  • meningoceles
  • lipomyelomeningoceles
  • and other less common lesions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

meningoceles

A

occurs when the spinal cord and nerve tissue do not protrude into the sac. lesion is usually covered by skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

myelocmeningcele

A
  • type of “open spina bifida”
  • most series form
  • a portion of spinal cord and surrounding nerves protrude through an opening in the spine into an exposed, flat disc or sac that is visible on the back
  • exposes the baby’s spinal cord to the amniotic fluid
  • can be harmful to the baby’s fetal development
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

myelocmeningcele: can experience serious health problems

A
  • hydrocephalus
  • paralysis: severity of paralysis depends on where the opening occurs in the spine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

hydrocephalus

A

an excessive accumulation of fluid in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

closed neural tube defects

A
  • can be located at brain or spinal levels, but usually just the spine
  • abnormality along the spine: tuft of hair growing out of a dimple of the spine
  • pigmented mole
  • or a lumbosacral vascular anomaly (hemangioma, port wine stain)
  • lipoma
  • dimple in lumbosacral region
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

lipoma

A

dome of skin with a mass of fatty tissue under it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

pharyngeal arches/branchial arches

A
  • human embryos have 5 pairs (numbered in craniocaudal sequence): give rise to face, jaw, ears, and neck
  • numbered 1-6, without 5
  • errors here result in craniofacial development errors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

pharyngeal arches/branchial arches: numbered 1-6, without 5

A

5 is a short-lived, rudimentary form or may not develop at all in human embryological development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

pharyngeal arches

A

series of externally visible anterior tissue bands that give rise to the early structures of the head and neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

pharyngeal arch 1: artery

A

maxillary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

pharyngeal arch 1: nerve

A

trigeminal (CN V)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

pharyngeal arch 1: muscles

A

muscles of mastication: anterior belly of the digastric muscle, tensor tympani, tensor veli palatini

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

pharyngeal arch 1: skeletal structures

A

mandible, maxilla, malleus, incus, zygomatic and temporal bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

pharyngeal arch 2: artery

A

stapedial corticotympanic

33
Q

pharyngeal arch 2: nerve

A

facial (CN VII)

34
Q

pharyngeal arch 2: muscles

A

muscles of facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid, posterior belly of the digastric muscle

35
Q

pharyngeal arch 2: skeletal structures

A

stapes, styloid process, lesser cornu of the hyoid, upper part of the body of the hyoid bone

36
Q

pharyngeal arch 3: artery

A

common carotid, internal carotid arteries

37
Q

pharyngeal arch 3: nerve

A

glossopharyngeal (CN IX), hypoglossal (CN XII)

38
Q

pharyngeal arch 3: muscles

A

stylopharyngeus

39
Q

pharyngeal arch 4: artery

A

aortic arch (left), right subclavian artery

40
Q

pharyngeal arch 4: nerve

A

vagus (CN X), superior laryngeal nerve

41
Q

pharyngeal arch 4: muscles

A

cricothyroid, pharyngeal plexus

42
Q

pharyngeal arch 4: skeletal structures

A

laryngeal cartilages: thyroid, cricoid, arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages

43
Q

pharyngeal arch 6: artery

A

pulmonary artery (partial left and right)

44
Q

pharyngeal arch 6: nerve

A

vagus (CN X), recurrent laryngeal nerve

45
Q

pharyngeal arch 6: muscles

A

intrinsic muscles of the larynx, striated muscle of the esophagus: pharyngeal plexus

46
Q

pharyngeal arch 6: skeletal structure

A

laryngeal cartilages: epiglottis, thyroid, cricoid, arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages

47
Q

development of the face

A

major development between the 4th and 10th week of embryological development

48
Q

development of the face: achieved by the development and joining of 5 prominences

A
  • frontonasal prominence
  • 2 maxillary prominences
  • 2 mandibular prominences
  • mesenchyme in the facial prominences
49
Q

frontonasal prominence

A
  • forehead and the dorsum apex of the nose
  • lateral nasal prominences and medial nasal prominences
50
Q

lateral nasal prominences

A

sides (alae) of the nose

51
Q

medial nasal prominences

A

nasal septum

52
Q

2 maxillary prominences

A

upper cheek region, majority of upper lip

53
Q

2 mandibular prominences

A

chin, lower lip, lower cheek regions

54
Q

mesenchyme in the facial prominences

A

fleshy derivatives and bones

55
Q

errors in facial development: Treacher Collins

A

disruptions of pharyngeal arches 1 and 2 results in the interruption of the development of the lower face and mandible

56
Q

palate development

A
  • forms during 5th-7th week
  • primary palate is formed by maxillary portions of 1st pharyngeal arch and frontonasal prominence
57
Q

primary palate is formed by maxillary portions of 1st pharyngeal arch and frontonasal prominence

A
  • includes medial portion of the upper lip and premaxilla
  • premaxilla is wedge-shaped mass of tissue that contains incisors and extends posteriorly to the incisive foramen includes the anterior palate and alveolar ridge
  • fusion of palate begins at incisive forament and moves forward to the lip
58
Q

palate development: weeks 7 and 8

A
  • maxillary process produces palatal processes
  • palatal processes grow vertically down and parallel to the lateral surfaces of the tongue
59
Q

palate development: week 8

A
  • 2 vertical shelves of bone that are the palatal processes lift and fuse at midline
  • incisive foramen is where primary and secondary palate meet
60
Q

2 vertical shelves of bone that are the palatal processes lift and fuse at midline

A
  • fusion is called: medial palatine suture or intermaxillary suture
  • the fusion of the palatal processes from the secondary palate
  • in order for the shelves to elevate and close off the mandible must grow down and forward to lower the tongue or the palate will not fuse (cleft)
61
Q

prenatal and neonatal reflexes

A
  • pharyngeal swallow (10-12 weeks)
  • suckling (18-24 weeks)
  • gag (26-27 weeks)
  • lingual cupping (27-29 weeks)
  • rooting (28 weeks)
  • phasic bite (40 weeks)
  • suck-swallow-breath (34-35 weeks)
62
Q

swallowing and sucking in utero

A
  • pharyngeal swallow is 1 of first motor responses in the developing pharynx
  • non-nutritive sucking and swallowing is seen via US by most fetuses by 15 weeks GA
  • true suckling (in and out A-P tongue movement) begins around 18th-24th week
  • consistent swallowing of amniotic fluid seen by 22-24 weeks
  • 34th week
  • sucking frequency increased in the later months of fetal development (impacted by taste)
  • taste buds develop at 7 weeks, mature receptors by 12 weeks
  • decreased rates of fetal suckling are associated with obstruction (aerodigestive tract), neurological damage, and may manifest of IUGR
  • estimates that 450 mL of total 850 mL of amniotic fluid produced daily is swallowed in utero
63
Q

pharyngeal swallow is 1 of first motor responses in the developing pharynx

A
  • between 10-14 weeks GA
  • pharyngeal swallows seen in fetuses 12/5 weeks gestation
64
Q

swallowing and sucking in utero: 34th week

A

most have a mostly mature suckle and swallow to sustain PO (if health, but not all)

65
Q

anatomical differences infants vs. adults

A
  • no teeth
  • large tongue
  • fat pads
  • flat hard palate
  • velum fills gap
  • hyoid and thyroid are besties!
  • larynx positioned higher
  • obligatory nose breathers
66
Q

oral cavity: infant

A
  • tongue fills mouth
  • edentulous
  • tongue rests between lips and sits against palate
  • cheeks have sucking pads (fatty tissue within buccinators)
  • relatively small mandible
  • sulci important in sucking
67
Q

oral cavity: older child

A
  • mouth is larger
  • dentulous
  • tongue rests on floor of mouth
  • tongue rests behind the teeth and is not against palate
  • buccinators are muscles for chewing
  • mandibular-maxillary relationship relatively normal
  • sulci have little functional benefit
68
Q

pharynx: infant

A
  • no definite/distinct oropharynx
  • obtuse angle at skull base in nasopharynx
69
Q

pharynx: older child

A
  • elongated pharynx, so distinct oropharynx exists
  • 90 degree angle at skull base
70
Q

larynx: infant

A
  • one-third adult size
  • half true vocal fold of cartilage
  • narrow, vertical epiglottis
  • high in the neck, re: cervical vertebrae
71
Q

larynx: older child

A
  • less than one-third true vocal fold of cartilage
  • flat, wide epiglottis
  • by 2 years of age, approximates adult position re: cervical vertebrae
72
Q

sensory system and swallowing

A
  • gustatory
  • olfactory
  • tactile
73
Q

medical factors and feeding/swallowing

A
  • developmental
  • neurological
  • GI
  • cardiopulmonary
  • upper airway
  • genetics
74
Q

medical co-morbidities: neurologic

A
  • enceophalopathies (cerebral palsy, perinatal asphyxia)
  • traumatic brain injury
  • neoplasms
  • intellectual disability
  • developmental delay
75
Q

medical co-morbidities: anatomic and structural

A
  • congenital: tracheoesophageal fistula and esophageal atresia, cleft palate
  • acquired: tracheostomy, vocal fold paralysis or paresis
76
Q

medical co-morbidities: genetic

A
  • chromosomal: Down syndrome
  • syndromic: Pierre Robin sequence, Treacher Collins syndrome, CHARGE syndrome
  • inborn errors of metabolism
77
Q

medical co-morbidities: secondary to systematic illness

A
  • respiratory: bronchopulmonary dysphagia, chronic lung disease of prematurity, bronchopulmonary dysplasia
  • gastrointestinal: inflammatory conditions, GI dysmotility, constipation
  • congenital cardiac anomalies
78
Q

medical co-morbidities: psychosocial and behavioral

A
  • oral deprivation
  • secondary to unresolved or resolved medical condition latrogenic