NMBA Reversal Agents Flashcards

1
Q

other name for neostigmine

A

Prostigmin

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2
Q

dose for prostigmin

A

0.04-0.08 mg/kg

*5 mg max (comes in 5 mg vial)

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3
Q

MOA of neostigmine

A

inhibit hydrolysis of ACh by AChE

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4
Q

T or F: the more neostigmine you give, the more it reverses

A

F - has a ceiling effect!

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5
Q

T or F: Prostignmin easily crosses BBB

A

F - it is a quarternary ammonium thus does not cross well (its charged)

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6
Q

what medication (and what dose) is usually given with neostigmine. Why is this given?

A

glycopyrollate

0.2 mg per mg of neostigmine

decrease muscarinic effects of neostigmine

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7
Q

is neostigmine a reversal for depolarizing or non-depolarizing NMBD

A

non-depolarizing

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8
Q

Neostigmine:

onset-

duration-

metabolism-

excretion-

A

onset- 15 min (depend on twitches)

duration- 1-2 hours

metabolism- hepatic

excretion: urinary

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9
Q

other name for edrophonium

A

enlon

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10
Q

dose of enlon

A

0.5-1 mg/kg

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11
Q

what is typically given with edrophonium

A

Atropine
0.014 mg/mg of enlon

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12
Q

dose for enlon plus

A

0.05 - 0.1 mg/kg slowly over 1 minute

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13
Q

MOA of endrophonium

A

inhibit hydrolysis of ACh by AChE

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14
Q

IF you have a profound block, is neostigmine or endrophonium the better reversal agent?

A

neostigmine d/t longer DOA

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15
Q

T or F: Enlon easily crosses BBB

A

F - quarternary amine

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16
Q

Edrophonium

onset -

DOA

A

onset -1-2 min

DOA - very short

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17
Q

other name for pyridostigmine

A

regonol

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18
Q

indications for Regonol

A
  • reversal
  • myasthenia gravis
  • pretreatment for soman nerve gas exposure
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19
Q

typically used in gulf-war as a oral dose prophylactically and if exposed, would take again

A

pyridostigmine

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20
Q

Regonol

onset-

DOA-

A

O- 2-5 min

DOA- 2-3 horus

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21
Q

T or F: Regonol does not easily cross BBB

A

T - its a quatenary amine

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22
Q

other name for physostigmine

A

antilirium

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23
Q

the only anticholinesterase that crosses BBB

A

physostigmine

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24
Q

dose of physostigmine

A

IV - 1-2 mg

*may repeat Q1-2 hour

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25
Q

indications for antilirium

A
  • treatment for central anticholinergic syndrome
  • treat anticholinergic toxicity
  • not generally used as a reversal agent
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26
Q

MOA of physostigmine

A

inhibits cholinesterase

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27
Q

CNS effects of physostigmine

A
  • agitation
  • restless
  • disoriented
  • shivers
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28
Q

Physostigmine

onset-

DOA-

A

o- 5 min

DOA- 1-2 hours

*metabolism is rapid and may require repeat dosing

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29
Q

other name for sugammadex

A

bridion

30
Q

dosage of bridion

A

routine:
2 mg/kg TOF2
4 mg/kg no TOF but 1-2 PTC

emergent reversal of RSI:
16 mg/kg

31
Q

indications for suggamadex

A

reversal of zemuron and vecuronium

32
Q

MOA of suggamadex

A

selective relaxant binding agent that encapsulates roc, vec, or pancuronium preventing their effects/actions

33
Q

side effects of Suggamadex

A

At high dose =

Bradycardia
Hypotxn,
Cardiac arrest,
Headache,
N/V,
Anaphylaxis and
Hypersensitivity
May hinder effects of birth control and some antibiotics up to 7 days (Hormonal contraceptives and Toremifene)

34
Q

contraindications (use caution in) of suggamadex

A

renal impairment

wait 24 hours before re-adminstering Roc/Vec/Panc

35
Q

what meds are bridion incompatible with

A
  • verapamil
  • zofran
  • ranitidine
36
Q

onset of action for Bridion

A

~ 3 min

37
Q

Suggamadex is modified ______________

A

y- cyclodextrin

38
Q

How does Sugammadex alter coagulation?

A

Increases risk of coagulopathy and bleeding –> increases aPTT and PT, especially in those patients who were being treated with heparin or LMW heparin for thromboprophylaxis

39
Q

Which drug increases a patient’s risk for coagulopathy and bleeding by increasing aPTT, and PT (especially in patients being treated with heparin or LMW heparin for thromboprophylaxis)?

A

sugammadex

40
Q

Which drug interacts with hormonal contraceptives?

A

sugammadex

41
Q

Sugammadex metabolism:

A

NOT metabolized; excreted UNCHANGED by kidneys, so take caution in patients with renal failure

42
Q

N/V, hypotension, and headache are common adverse reactions to which NMB reversal agent?

A

Sugammadex

43
Q

How can we prevent Sugammadex-induced bradycardia?

A

Give 100 mg over 1 min, then give the next 100 mg, etc.

44
Q

Sugammadex dose (with TOF of 2):
conc:
time until recovery:

A

2 mg/kg
(100 mg/cc)
2 mins until recovery

45
Q

Sugammadex dose (with 1-2 PTC and no TOF twitches):
conc:
time until recovery:

A

4 mg/kg
(100 mg/cc)
3 mins until recovery

46
Q

Sugammadex dose (just after administering RSI dose of Rocuronium):
conc:
time until recovery:

A

16 mg/kg
(100 mg/cc)
1.5 mins until recovery

47
Q

Physostigmine dose to treat anticholinergic toxicity:

A

give 1-2 mg every 1-2 hrs, as needed

48
Q

What drugs may cause anticholinergic toxicity?

A
  • atropine
  • scopolamine
  • antihistamines
  • antipsychotics
  • cyclic antidepressants
49
Q

Anticholinergic toxicity s/s:

A

flushing, dry skin and mucous membranes, mydriasis with loss of accommodation, altered mental status, fever and urinary retention

CNS: restlessness, shivers, agitation, disoriented

50
Q

Cholinergic Syndrome crisis treatment:

A

Atropine, benzos (versed/valium), oximes (pralidoxime, obidoxime) –> oximes free AChAse from the anticholinesterase that is bound to it

51
Q

Enlon-plus dose:

A

0.05-0.1 mg/kg IV
SLOWLY OVER 1 MIN

52
Q

Edrophonium dose:
conc:
onset:
duration:

A

0.5-1 mg/kg IV
(10 mg/cc)
For every 1 mg of edrophonium, mix with 0.014 mg atropine (to prevent bradycardia)

onset: 1-2 mins

duration: short

53
Q

Edrophonium is used for (light/moderate/deep) block reversal.

A

moderate

54
Q

Edrophonium is a (tertiary amine/quaternary ammonium) and, therefore, (does/does not) cross the BBB.

A

quaternary ammonium; DOES NOT

55
Q

___ is a mixture of Edrophonium and atropine together in the same vial.

A

Enlon-Plus

56
Q

Edrophonium is administered with ___ in order to prevent ___ caused by the rapid ___ of Edrophonium.

A

Atropine
bradycardia
onset

57
Q

Neostigmine dose:
conc:
onset:
duration:

A

0.05 mg/kg IV (max 5 mg)
(1 mg/cc)
for every 1 mg of Neostigmine, administer 0.2 mg Glycopyrrolate (0.2 mg/cc) to decrease muscarinic side effects (and GIVE GLYCO FIRST in case something happens between; we can handle tachycardia better than bradycardia)

onset: starting at 15 mins (twitch dependent)
duration: 1-2 hrs

58
Q

Neostigmine is used for (light/moderate/deep) block reversal. How do we know when to use?

A

deep (use when 4 tactile TOF counts are present at adductor pollicis)

(more effective with moderate blocks)

59
Q

What is our max dose of Neostigmine?

A

5 mg –> d/t ceiling effect

60
Q

Neostigmine is a (tertiary amine/quaternary ammonium) compound and, therefore (does/does not) cross the BBB.

A

quaternary ammonium

does not

61
Q

Neostigmine is used with ___ to decrease the ___ side effects of Neostigmine.

A

glycopyrrolate (anticholinergic)

muscarinic

62
Q

Neostigmine blocks AChAse at ____________, causing (parasympathetic/sympathetic) effects.

A

ALL cholinergic synapses
parasympathetic

63
Q

Physostigmine –> drug class:

A

acetylcholinesterase inhibitor (crosses BBB)

64
Q

Edrophonium –> drug class:

A

acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

65
Q

Neostigmine –> drug class:

A

acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

66
Q

Sugammadex drug class:

A

selective relaxant binding agent

67
Q

Which drugs are our acetylcholinesterase inhibitors?

A

Neostigmine
Edrophonium
Physostigmine (crosses BBB)

68
Q

What side effects are caused by the administration of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors?

A

Think –> TOO MUCH ACh!!
SLUDGE (PNS activation)
Increased bronchial secretions/bronchospasm
Bradycardia caused by slowing conduction velocity of the cardiac impulse through the AV node
CNS excitement (physostigmine only)

69
Q

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are used for what 3 purposes?

A

reversal of NMBs
myasthenia gravis (diagnosis and treatment)
treatment of central anticholinergic syndrome

70
Q

___ is the enzyme responsible for the rapid hydrolysis of released acetylcholine.

A

Acetylcholinesterase

71
Q

What are the two ways to reverse a patient from NMBs?

A

spontaneously
reversal drug

72
Q

What 5 factors affect the reversal of NMBs?

A
  1. intensity of the block
  2. dose and choice of NMB
  3. drug interactions
  4. choice of reversal agent
  5. disease process (liver failure)