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A320 Recurrent AK2020 > NK AH A320 Oral Guide rev 5 - Sheet1 > Flashcards

NK AH A320 Oral Guide rev 5 - Sheet1 Flashcards

1
Q

Calls Panel How should a pilot call a mechanic?

A

Press and hold the MECH button. It illuminates a blue light on the EXT PWR PANEL and sounds an external horn.

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2
Q

Calls Panel How should a pilot call the forward flight attendant?

A

Press the FWD button

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3
Q

Calls Panel What happens when a flight attendant initiates an emergency call?

A
  • The white EMER ON light and amber CALL lights flash. -The amber ATT lights flash on the ACPs.- 3 long buzzers sound in the cockpit.- System resets when the attendant hangs up the relevant systems.
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4
Q

Calls Panel What happens when a pilot presses the EMER push button?

A

-Pink light flashes at all area call panel.-EMERGENCY CALL appears on all flight attendant indication panels.-High low chime (3X) in passenger cabin

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5
Q

Oxygen Panel What does the illumination of the SYS ON light mean?

A

The signal has been sent to release the oxygen mask doors. Some may need manual deployment.

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6
Q

Oxygen Panel What causes automatic deployment of the masks?

A

Cabin altitude reaching approximately 14,000’.

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7
Q

Oxygen Panel How does the passenger oxygen system work?

A

Chemical oxygen generators for approximately 13 to 15 minutes.

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8
Q

Oxygen Panel What happens when a pilot pushes the CREW SUPPLY pb?

A

Valve opens to supply low pressure oxygen to the pilots.

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9
Q

What indication would a pilot have of a crew oxygen cylinder thermal discharge?

A

The green disk on the lower left side of the forward fuselage would be missing.

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10
Q

Will the crew oxygen mask microphone automatically be deactivated when the mask is stowed?

A

No, you must press the RESET control slide.

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11
Q

Recorder panel Why is the GND CTL pb selected to ON during preflight?

A

To record preflight activities in the cockpit

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12
Q

If the GND CTL PB was not selected ON, how would the system work in automatic mode?

A
  • ON for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied to the aircraft.- At least one engine is operating, stops 5 min after last engine shut dow
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13
Q

What allows the cabin PAs to be recorded?

A

ACP 3 PA Volume knob out and in the 12 to 3 o’clock position.

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14
Q

What does pressing the SYS pb on the GPWS Panel do?

A

All Basic GPWS alerts (Modes 1 to 5) are inhibited.

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15
Q

What does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pb indicate on the GPWS panel?

A

Any failure of GPWS mode 1 through 5.

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16
Q

What effect if any does an amber fault light in the SYS pb on the GPWS panel have on the terrain mode?

A

No effect.

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17
Q

Describe a situation when a pilot might press LDG FLAP 3?

A
  • To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing in CONF 3.-Landing memo shows
    flaps. ..conf 3
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18
Q

Describe a situation when a pilot might press the FLAP MODE pb?

A
  • To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing with flaps setting reduced.-Flap Sys 1(2) FAULT would require selection of flap mode off.
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19
Q

What effect if any does the TERR mode failed have on basic GPWS?

A

No effect.

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20
Q

EMER ELEC PWR What is the significance of the red FAULT illuminating on the RAT & EMER GEN light?

A
  • AC BUS1 and AC BUS 2 are lost and the RAT is not supplying electrical power.
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21
Q

EMER ELEC PWR When would the red FAULT illuminating on the RAT & EMER GEN light normally illuminate?

A
  • The fault light will illuminate once the RAT is deployed and electrical power is not being supplied (approximately 8 seconds).
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22
Q

EMER ELEC PWR How can the RAT be deployed?

A
  • Manually by pushing MAN ON or RAT MAN ON,- Automatically by the loss of both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2.
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23
Q

EMER ELEC PWR What does the RAT supply?

A

Hydraulic power to the Blue system and the emergency electrical generator.

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24
Q

What buses are powered by the emergency electrical generator?

A
  • AC ESS and AC ESS Shed.- DC ESS and DC ESS Shed.
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25
Q

What is the difference between the Automatic RAT deployment and RAT deployed by pressing the RAT MAN ON on the HYD panel?

A

RAT MAN ON supplies Blue Hydraulic PSI only, no electrical generation.

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26
Q

After pressing the RAT MAN ON pushbutton on the HYD panel and it becomes necessary to also extract electrical power, how can it be accomplished?

A

By pressing the MAN ON pushbutton on the EMER ELEC PWR.

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27
Q

What would cause the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light to illuminate?

A

Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting.

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28
Q

If the ECAM directs a pilot to select GEN 1 LINE PB to OFF, what will be accomplished?

A
  • GEN 1 line contactor opens (white OFF light illuminates).- AC BUS 1 powered by GEN 2 through the Bus Tie Contactor.- GEN 1 powers one fuel pump directly in each wing tank.
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29
Q

What is checked on the EVAC panel during the Preliminary cockpit preparation?

A

CAPT & PURS switch in CAPT position.

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30
Q

How should the pilot command an evacuation?

A
  • Make a PA announcement.- Press the EVAC COMMAND pb.
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31
Q

Flight Controls What type of flight control system does the A320 family aircraft utilize?

A

Fly-By-Wire System.

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32
Q

Flight Controls How are they controlled and activated?

A

Electrically Controlled and Hydraulically Activated

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33
Q

How is NORMAL LAW indicated on the PFD?

A

Green equal signs. Amber/black airspeed tape

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34
Q

How is ALTERNATE LAW indicated on the PFD?

A

Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections).

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35
Q

How is DIRECT LAW indicated on the PFD?

A
  • AMBER “USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM”.- Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections).
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36
Q

How is MECHANICAL BACKUP indicated on the PFD?

A
  • RED “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”.- Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections
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37
Q

When operating in NORMAL LAW in FLIGHT mode, what does the side stick command for pitch and roll?

A
  • Pitch - G load.- Bank - Roll Rate.
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38
Q

What is the significance of the Side Stick Priority (Red Arrow) Light?

A
  • The other pilot has gained side stick authority.
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39
Q

NAME the Flight Control Computers.

A
  • ELAC - Elevator Aileron Computer (2).- SEC - Spoiler Elevator Computer (3).- FAC - Flight Augmentation Comp. (2).
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40
Q

What are the some of the ELAC functions? QRM should be referenced.

A
  • Normal elevator. - Normal aileron.- Normal pitch and roll.- Alternate pitch. - Direct pitch and roll. - Abnormal attitude. - Aileron droop.- Autopilot orders
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41
Q

What are some of the SEC functions? QRM should be referenced.

A
  • Normal roll.- Speed brakes.- Alternate pitch.- Direct pitch.- Direct roll.- Abnormal attitude
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42
Q

What does the SEC 3 control?

A
  • Spoiler Control - one flight spoiler and one ground spoiler on each wing.
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43
Q

What are some of the FAC functions?

A
  • Rudder Trim.- Rudder travel limit.- Yaw control.- Flight Envelope Protection - vertical.- Windshear Protection.- Low Energy Warning Protection.- Alpha Floor Protection.- PFD speed scale.
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44
Q

What should happen to the THS after landing?

A

Reset to zero.

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45
Q

Describe some of protections a pilot will have in Normal Law?

A
  • High Speed.- High Angle of Attack (AOA/alpha).- Load Factor Limitation (+2.5g / -1.0g).- Pitch Attitude (30° up/15° down).- Bank Angle (67°).
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46
Q

Describe High Speed Protection.

A

If VMO/MMO plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch-up input to limit aircraft speed.

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47
Q

What would a pilot have to do to override the high speed protection pitch-up?

A

Turn 2 ADRs off to force the aircraft into Alternate law.

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48
Q

What is alpha max?

A

The maximum angle of attack allowed in Normal Law, indicated by the top of the red strip on the airspeed scale.

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49
Q

How does High Angle of Attack Protection operate?

A

When the angle of attack exceeds alpha prot, pitch trim ceases and angle of attack is now proportional to side stick deflection, not to exceed alpha max even with full aft side stick deflection.

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50
Q

What protections does a pilot have in Alternate Law?

A
  • Load Factor.- High speed stability.- Low speed stability.
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51
Q

What protections does a pilot have in Direct Law?

A

None.

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52
Q

When does flare mode activate in ALTERNATE LAW? Describe the whole process.

A

There is no flare mode if operating in ALTERNATE LAW. The aircraft proceeds directly from ALTERNATE LAW to DIRECT LAW when the gear is selected down, and flare mode will not be available.

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53
Q

If in Alternate Law, when will the aircraft revert to Direct Law? What might be a wise thing to do?

A

If the controls degrade to alternate law for any reason other than recovery from abnormal attitude, Direct Law automatically becomes active with gear extension with autopilots not engaged. In other words, let the autopilots work for you until you must disconnect them.

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54
Q

When is there a direct relationship between side stick and flight control surface deflection?

A
  • When in Direct Law.- When below 100
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55
Q

It’s common Airbus philosophy that the Airbus cannot stall in NORMAL LAW. However, there are conditions in which it can. Describe how this can happen.

A

• Faulty Radio Altimeter
• A good pilot will operate under the philosophy that anything can happen.
Preventative systems such as (ALPHA PROT, ALPHA MAX, etc.) could
interpret bad data as valid data and subsequently fail to recognize the actual
angle of attack or flight path of the airplane. Therefore, it is hard to point to
exact scenarios when the Airbus can stall in NORMAL LAW. We need to
understand anything is possible and we should recognize stall indications
and recover regardless of the active control law.

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56
Q

After recovery from an unusual attitude, what control law would the aircraft likely be in?

A

• ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW

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57
Q

What is the purpose of Abnormal Attitude Law?

A

Allows the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude.

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58
Q

How would you get into Abnormal Attitude Law?

A

By exceeding approximately double the Normal Law limits.

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59
Q

What PFD indications indicate Normal Law?

A
  • Green = for pitch, bank, and overspeed limits.- Amber/black (alpha prot) airspeed tape.
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60
Q

What is the ADIRS?

A

Air Data and Inertial Reference System.

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61
Q

What are some of the parameters that the Air Data Reference System provides?

A

Barometric altitude, Airspeed, Over Speed Warnings, Temperature, AOA, MACH.

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62
Q

What are some of the parameters the IR provides?

A

Attitude, FPV, Track, Heading, Acceleration, Angular Rates, GS and Aircraft Position.

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63
Q

If there was an IR1/ADR1 FAULT, what should be done with the switching panel to display backup data appropriately?

A

• ATT/HDG to Capt 3

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64
Q

If the AIR DATA portion of the #1 ADIRU failed, what should be done with the switching panel to display backup data appropriately?

A

• Air Data to Capt 3

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65
Q

Explain the ADIRS Power-up and Initialization.

A
  • Switch OFF to NAV.- ON BAT light illuminates and then extinguishes.- White ALIGN light illuminates for the duration of alignment (only on an A-319/ A-321).- In a 320 the E/WD memo section displays IRS IN ALIGN during alignment and replaces ALIGN lights on the overhead panel.
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66
Q

What is the importance of observing the ADIRS ON BAT light?

A
  • It confirms the ADIRS ability to revert to aircraft battery power.
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67
Q

What are some indications of an ADIRU having reverted to battery power on the ground?

A
  • An external horn sounds.- An ADIRU and AVNCS blue light illuminates on the External Power Panel.
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68
Q

What is the significance of a steady FAULT light on the IR?

A
  • IR has failed and cannot be recovered.
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69
Q

What is the significance of a flashing FAULT light on the IR?

A

Navigation function is lost. Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT mode.

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70
Q

What could cause the flashing white ALIGN light to illuminate on the ground?

A
  • Position - PPOS not entered within 10 min. of alignment or within 3 minutes of fast-alignment.- Place - Large difference in LAT/LONG between shutdown position and entered position -1°.- Push - Aircraft movement during alignment.- No align light on A320 -The E/WD memo section displays IRS IN ALIGN during alignment and replaces ALIGN lights on the overhead panel. This memo flashes in green for the same reasons as the ALIGN lights flash on the other aircraft.
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71
Q

Describe what will happen if an ADR is selected OFF?

A
  • The pilots would lose barometric altitude, airspeed, mach, angle of attack, temperature and over speed warnings from that one ADR.- The ECAM would instruct the pilot to select the AIR DATA SWTG to CAPT 3 or F/O 3 as appropriate.- At that point the pilot’s affected side would return to normal.
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72
Q

What functions are lost when an IR is turned OFF?

A
  • The pilot would lose the IR part (Inertial Reference) which supplies attitude, flight path vector, track, heading, accelerations, angular rates, ground speed, and aircraft position.- Along with all the ADR information.- The ECAM would instruct the pilot to select the ATT HDG SWTG to CAPT 3 or F/O 3 as appropriate.- At that point the pilot’s affected side would return to normal.
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73
Q

EXT LTS Panel If the RWY TURN OFF, LAND, and NOSE switches are all in the ON position, which lights automatically extinguish after takeoff?

A

The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish when the landing gear is retracted.

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74
Q

EXT LTS Panel What is the difference between position 1 and 2 on the NAV & LOGO Toggle Switch?

A

Separate bulbs.

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75
Q

EXT LTS Panel What position should the STROBE switch be in during preflight?

A

AUTO

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76
Q

EXT LTS Panel When do the strobes flash in AUTO?

A

When the computer logic considers the aircraft airborne.

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77
Q

APU Panel What does the illumination APU MASTER SW FAULT indicate?

A

Automatic APU shutdown has occurred.

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78
Q

APU Panel What is the significance of the APU AVAIL light illumination?

A

APU is running above 99.5 % or 2 seconds after N speed reaching 95% (in practical terms it is ready to accept and support ELEC and/or AIR load).

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79
Q

APU Panel What condition in the APU system would cause an external horn to sound?

A

APU fire.

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80
Q

APU Panel With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR green AVAIL light on, which system is powering the aircraft?

A

2 Green Avails = APU Powering the Aircraft.( Green Green you are on the machine)

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81
Q

During the cool down cycle can you recover use the APU?

A

Yes, press the APU MASTER SW pb.

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82
Q

SIGNS Panel When will the EXIT signs automatically illuminate?

A
  • With the EMER EXIT LT switch in ARM, and Normal AC power is lost.- DC SHED ESS BUS not powered.- Cabin altitude is excessive (above 11,300’), NO SMOKING, FASTEN SEAT BELT and EXIT signs illuminated.
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83
Q

SIGNS Panel What cabin lights illuminate when normal aircraft electrical power fails?

A
  • Floor proximity emergency escape path-marking system.- Overhead emergency lighting.
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84
Q

SIGNS Panel What lights illuminate when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to ON?

A
  • Overhead emergency lighting.- Floor proximity emergency escape path marking system.- EXIT lights
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85
Q

SIGNS Panel What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to OFF?

A
  • All emergency lights OFF.- Amber EMER EXIT LT OFF light illuminates
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86
Q

SIGNS Panel Why do we place the NO SMOKING SIGN to AUTO instead of ON?

A

It allows the EMER EXT LT to charge their batteries

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87
Q

What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?

A
  • Captain’s Instrument Panel.- Right Dome Light (provided DOME switch set in DIM or BRT).- Standby Compass
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88
Q

CABIN PRESS Panel How is the landing field elevation entered into the pressurization system in automatic, semi-automatic and manual modes?

A
  • Automatic = FMGC (LDG ELEV must be in AUTO).- Semi-automatic = by LDG ELEV selector button.- Manual = By selecting the MODE SEL to MAN and then using the MAN V/S CTL toggle switch.
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89
Q

CABIN PRESS Panel What does selecting the DITCHING push button to ON accomplish?

A
  • Closes the outflow valve.- Closes the emergency RAM AIR inlet.- Closes the Avionics Ventilation Inlet and Extract valves.- Closes pack flow control valves.- Forward cargo isolation outlet valve “if installed”.- Cargo recirculation fans stop automatically “if installed”.- “Closes all valves below the waterline”.
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90
Q

CABIN PRESS Panel How many controllers are in the pressurization system?

A

2, only one is used at a time and they swap roles after each landing.

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91
Q

CABIN PRESS Panel How can a pilot manually switch controllers?

A

Switch MODE SEL to MAN for 10 seconds, then back to AUTO

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92
Q

CABIN PRESS Panel What does an amber FAULT light in the MODE SEL pb indicate?

A

Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty.

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93
Q

CABIN PRESS Panel What protects the airframe from excessive cabin differential pressure?

A

2 pressure relief valves.

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94
Q

ANTI ICE Panel What is accomplished if the Wing Anti Ice push button is selected ON while the aircraft is on the ground?

A

The system will self-test for 30 seconds, then the valves will close until the aircraft is airborne

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95
Q

ANTI ICE Panel What does the WING FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel indicate?

A
  • Valve disagreement (also comes on momentarily when valve in transit).- Low pressure
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96
Q

ANTI ICE Panel What does the ENG 1(2) FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel indicate?

A

Valve disagreement (also comes on momentarily when valve in transit

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97
Q

ANTI ICE Panel Describe the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT Logic.

A

Probes and Window Heat come on automatically (Probes LOW on ground/HIGH airborne) with at least one engine running or aircraft airborne

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98
Q

ANTI ICE Panel What part of the wing is heated?

A

Outboard 3 slats.

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99
Q

ANTI ICE Panel In what position do the Wing and Engine Anti-Ice valves fail if electrical power is lost?

A
  • Wing - valves CLOSE.- Engine - valves OPEN.
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100
Q

ANTI ICE Panel When is engine anti-ice required?

A

When icing conditions exist or are expected EXCEPT during climb or cruise when the SAT is below -40°C.

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101
Q

What is TAT?

A

Total Air Temperature is the static air temperature plus the added energy due to the compression and friction of the air moving across the aircraft.

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102
Q

What is SAT?

A

Static Air Temperature. also called OAT outside air temperature

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103
Q

Can the WING anti ice be used on the approach and landing?

A

Yes but remember second segment climb performance could be affected if a go-around is performed.

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104
Q

AIR COND Panel If the HOT AIR valve faults, what will happen to the temperature control system?

A
  • All trim air valves close and PACK 1 controls the cockpit temperature to the last selected value- PACK 2 controls the cabin to the averages selected by the FWD and AFT CABIN temperature selector knobs
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105
Q

AIR COND Panel If PACK FLOW is selected to LO, NORM or HIGH and only the APU is providing BLEED AIR or one pack is selected OFF, what will the packs
provide?

A

• HIGH flow rate, since the flow rate function is automatic

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106
Q

AIR COND Panel How are the PACKS controlled and operated?

A
  • Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated.
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107
Q

AIR COND Panel What are some potential causes for a PACK FAULT light?

A
  • Low air pressure.- Compressor outlet overheat.- Pack outlet overheat.
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108
Q

AIR COND Panel What are SOME potential causes for ENG BLEED FAULT light?

A
  • Bleed overpressure.- Bleed overheat.- Wing or engine leak on the related side.- Bleed valve NOT closed during engine start.- Bleed valve NOT closed with the APU BLEED on
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109
Q

AIR COND Panel What is the logic for the XBLEED Valve switch?

A
  • SHUT = the valve is closed.- AUTO = open if the APU bleed valve is open - closed if APU bleed valve is closed or there is a wing, pylon or APU leak (except during an engine start).- OPEN = the valve is open
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110
Q

AIR COND Panel What does APU BLEED FAULT illumination indicate?

A

APU bleed leak.

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111
Q

AIR COND Panel What does selecting the RAM AIR push button accomplish?

A

Ram Air inlet opens if the differential pressure is less than 1 PSI.

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112
Q

AIR COND Panel What is the RAM AIR pb used for?

A
  • Smoke removal in cabin.- Ventilation of cabin with a dual pack failure
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113
Q

ELEC Panel What is the minimum battery voltage?

A

25.6.

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114
Q

ELEC Panel What would a pilot do if BAT voltage is 25.5 or below on originating preflight?

A

Charge the Batteries for a minimum of 20 minutes with external power by selecting BAT pbs to AUTO.

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115
Q

ELEC Panel Explain how to conduct the BAT check?

A
  • Select ELEC on ECAM.- BAT 1 & 2 OFF then on.- Check BAT charge current is <60 amps and decreasing within 10 seconds.What if it fails the test? Call MX.
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116
Q

ELEC Panel Describe the electrical power system of the aircraft.

A
  • three-phase 115/200-volt 400-hertz AC system and a 28-volt DC system.-4 generators: 1 on each engine, 1 on APU and 1 on RAT- 90 KVA on engines and APU 5 KVA RAT
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117
Q

ELEC Panel If all AC is lost, what happens?

A

DC power from the batteries is converted into AC.

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118
Q

ELEC Panel The engine GEN FAULT light is illuminated before engine start. Is this normal?

A

Yes.

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119
Q

ELEC Panel What is an IDG and describe how it works

A
  • Integrated Drive Generator.- Takes variable engine output and gives a constant output.
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120
Q

ELEC Panel How would a pilot disconnect the IDG.

A

Lift the red guard and push the IDG pb sw. Don’t hold for longer than 3 seconds

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121
Q

ELEC Panel Can the IDG be reconnected in flight?

A

No. MX function.

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122
Q

ELEC Panel Describe the function of the BUS TIE in AUTO

A
  • Allows single source of power to run entire electrical system.- Allows connection of the APU GEN or EXT power to system.- Inhibits multiple sources connected simultaneously
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123
Q

ELEC Panel If GEN 1 fails to supply AC BUS 1, what happens?

A

AC BUS 2 powers the system through the bus tie.

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124
Q

ELEC Panel How is the AC ESS bus normally powered?

A

From AC BUS 1.

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125
Q

ELEC Panel If AC BUS 1 fails, how is the AC ESS bus powered?

A

AC BUS 2 automatically feeds the AC ESS BUS.

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126
Q

ELEC Panel What indication will you get on the ELEC panel that AC BUS 2 is feeding the AC ESS bus?

A

AC ESS FEED ALTN light on.

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127
Q

ELEC Panel What does a GALLEY fault light indicate?

A

At least one generator load is above 100% rated output.

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128
Q

ELEC Panel Explain the Auto function of the GALLEY pushbutton.

A
  • Sheds main galley if only 1 gen is available
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129
Q

ELEC Panel How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered?

A

DC BUS 1 through the DC tie contactor.

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130
Q

ELEC Panel What Buses are powered by the EMER Generator?

A
  • AC Essential bus.- DC Essential bus by the Essential TR.
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131
Q

ELEC Panel What does a BAT fault light indicate?

A
  • Battery charging current outside limits.- BAT contactor opens.
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132
Q

ELEC Panel When are the batteries connected to the BATTERY BUS?

A
  • APU start.- Battery charging.- AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered and airspeed below 100 knots
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133
Q

FUEL Panel Describe the layout of the fuel tanks in the A320.

A
  • Center tank, and wing tanks made up of inner, outer and vent tanks.
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134
Q

FUEL Panel Generally, what is the total fuel capacity?

A

42,000 lb (41, 285).

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135
Q

FUEL Panel How come sometimes the fuel totalizer reads 42,200 on ECAM when fueled to MAX capacity?

A

The fuel can expand by 2% without venting overboard.

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136
Q

How many fuel pumps are there and where are the fuel pumps located?

A

• There are seven total fuel pumps: two center tank pumps, four wing tank• The APU pump is used when fuel feed pressure is low (due to loss of tank
pumps or loss of normal AC electrical supply).

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137
Q

Explain the flow of fuel from before engine start to taxi out. (Assume full tanks) No jet pumps

A

-Engine start = wing tanks-After start = 2 minute center tank test -Take off = Wing tanks-At slats zero = center tanks run until empty (+5 minutes)-if slats extend again with fuel in center, center pumps go off.-Outer tanks open when main = 1650#

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138
Q

FUEL Panel What does a fault light in one of the ENG fuel pumps indicate?

A

Low pressure.

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139
Q

FUEL Panel What does a fault light in the MODE selector indicate?

A
  • Failure of the AUTO mode.- Center tank has more than 550 lb and either wing tank has less than 1100 lb.
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140
Q

How would a pilot know that fueling is in progress?

A

REFUELG message appears on the ECAM

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141
Q

Does this mean that fuel is entering the tanks?

A

NO. It means the refueling fuel door is open

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142
Q

What if this IDG cooling return fuel fills the wing tanks with the center tanks feeding?

A

The center tank pumps will cut off until the wing tank quantity is reduced by 1100 lb.

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143
Q

What is the approximate fuel capacity of each outer fuel tank (A319/320)?

A

Approx. 1,500 lb.

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144
Q

When do the main tank outer cells drain into the inner tanks (A319/320)?

A

When the inner tank quantity reaches 1,650 lb.

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145
Q

If only one inner tank reaches 1,650 lb, what happens to the other transfer valve (A319/320)?

A

All 4 transfer valves open.

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146
Q

HYD Panel How are the three HYD systems identified?

A

Green, Blue and Yellow Systems

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147
Q

HYD Panel How is each system powered?

A
  • Green - Engine Driven.- Blue - Electrical.- Yellow - Engine Driven and Electrical.
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148
Q

HYD Panel When does the BLUE pump normally operate?

A

After the first engine is started.

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149
Q

HYD Panel The RAT supplies the BLUE hydraulic system. Does the RAT deploy automatically with loss of BLUE pressure?

A

No. It must be deployed manually

150
Q

HYD Panel What can be done to correct low ACUM PRESS indication?

A

On the ground, coordinate with personnel and turn on the Beacon and Yellow ELEC pump.

151
Q

HYD Panel With no HYD system power, how can the forward CARGO door be opened?

A

By using a hand pump.

152
Q

HYD Panel What causes the PTU to operate in AUTO?

A
  • Differential pressure of 500 psi between Green and Yellow systems.
  • After first engine start until second engine starts unless inhibited.
153
Q

HYD Panel When is the PTU inhibited?

A
  • On the ground with master switches split and either the nose wheel steering disconnected or the parking brake ON
  • For 40 seconds after cargo door is operated
154
Q

HYD Panel What are some users of the Green system? QRM can be referenced.

A
  • Landing Gear.- Normal Brakes.
  • Slats and Flaps.
  • # 1 Thrust reverser.
155
Q

HYD Panel What are some users on the Blue system?

A
  • Emergency generator.

- Slats.

156
Q

HYD Panel What are some users of the Yellow system?

A
  • Flaps.
  • NWS.
  • Alternate brakes.
157
Q

HYD Panel What do the priority valves do in the HYD systems?

A

Removes hydraulic power from the heavy users and protects the flight controls.

158
Q

HYD Panel What would cause a fault light in the ENG 1 pump?

A
  • Pump low pressure.
  • Over temp in reservoir.
  • Low air pressure in reservoir.
  • Low quantity.
159
Q

FIRE Panel

Where are the engine fire loops installed?

A
  • Pylon nacelle.
  • Engine core.
  • Fan section.
160
Q

FIRE Panel

What happens if both fire loops fail simultaneously?

A

FIRE warning will be issued (If the failure occurs within 5 seconds).

161
Q

FIRE Panel

What does amber DISCH light mean?

A

Bottle has lost its pressure either by a fault or pilot selection

162
Q

FIRE Panel

How many fire bottles are provided for each engine?

A

2

163
Q

FIRE Panel

What is accomplished when the engine fire PB is pushed?

A
  • Silences the aural fire warning.
  • Arms the squibs.
  • Closes the hydraulic fire valve.
  • Closes the LP fuel valve.
  • Closes the engine fuel return valve after the IDG.
  • Deactivates the generator.
  • Closes the pack flow control.
  • Closes the engine bleed valves.
  • Deactivates FADEC
164
Q

FIRE Panel

What is accomplished when the ENG FIRE test button is pressed?

A
  • Continuous Repetitive Chime sounds.
  • Master warning lights flash.
  • ENG FIRE PB illuminates red .
  • SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate.
  • ECAM fire warning.
  • Fire light on ENG panel
165
Q

FIRE Panel

What should occur if the APU is operating and an APU fire is detected?

A
  • On the ground - APU EMER shut down and bottle discharge.

- In the air - no automatic functions

166
Q

ENG Panel
What is the primary consideration we need to be aware of when doing a Manual Start on the ground or an Auto Start in the Air?

A

You will be the one that must stop the start if something goes wrong.

167
Q

ENG Panel

What are the primary differences between a manual and a normal automatic start?

A
  • The FADEC provides full monitoring during a manual start and will provide appropriate ECAM cautions and procedures to follow in the event of a start fault.
  • Automatic start interruption and auto-crank are not available.
168
Q

ENG Panel

With the ENG MODE selector in IGN/START what occurs when you press the ENG MAN START pb?

A
  • The start valve opens.

- Both pack flow control valves close

169
Q

ENG Panel Will the start valve automatically close? CEO

A

Yes, at 43% N2.

170
Q

ENG Panel

When would it be appropriate to do a manual start?

A
  • Degraded bleed performance (hot or high altitude airfield).
  • Marginal performance of external air or APU air.
  • Tailwind greater than 10 Knots.
  • After a start fault
171
Q

VENTILATION Panel

What are some potential causes for the illumination of the BLOWER FAULT light?

A
  • Low blower pressure.
  • Duct overheat.
  • Computer power supply failure.
  • Smoke warning activated
172
Q

VENTILATION Panel

What are some potential causes for the illumination of the EXTRACT FAULT light?

A
  • Low extract pressure.
  • Computer power supply failure.
  • Smoke warning activated.
173
Q

VENTILATION Panel

What condition in the avionics ventilation system would cause an external horn to sound?

A

BLOWER FAULT or EXTRACT FAULT illumination on the ground with both engines stopped

174
Q

VENTILATION Panel

Describe the avionics ventilation system.

A

It is a fully automated system that considers the skin temperature and adjusts inlet and outlet flaps to optimize cooling and airflow.

175
Q

AUDIO MGMT Panel

When would the AUDIO SWITCHING be used?

A

Enables Captain or FO to utilize the overhead Audio Control Panel in case of individual ACP failure

176
Q

MAINTENANCE Panel

Do the pilots use the Maintenance panel?

A

Only if a MEL required you to pressurize the blue system on the ground with the engines off.

177
Q

MAINTENANCE Panel

On the Maintenance panel, Which button would you push to pressurize the blue system on the ground?

A

The BLUE PUMP OVRD.

178
Q

MAINTENANCE Panel

If a mechanic pressed the APU AUTO EXTING TEST pb what will occur?

A

The APU will shut down

179
Q

What is the significance of black and green CBs?

A
  • Green monitored by ECAM.

- Black not monitored by ECAM

180
Q

What is the significance of a red collar CB?

A

They limit the ability of the Pilot to pull the CBs.

181
Q

What are the 3 modes of FMGC operation?

A
  • Independent.
  • Single
  • Dual
182
Q

What are the 2 modes of flight guidance?

A
  • Managed Guidance.

- Selected Guidance

183
Q

What is the Selected mode of flight guidance used for?

A

Temporary lateral, vertical, and speed commands as selected with the FCU.

184
Q

Does Selected or Managed Guidance have priority?

A

Selected Guidance

185
Q

What does ACTIVATE/CONFIRM APPR Phase do for the pilot?

A 
Allows thrust to follow a predetermined schedule:
Clean = o (green dot)
F1= S
F2=F
F3=F/VAPP
F4=VAPP
186
Q

What type of database is periodically updated in the FMGS?

A

Navigation database.

187
Q

Can the pilot modify data in the navigation database?

A

The pilot has limited ability to create pilot stored navigational data.

188
Q

How would a pilot determine the validity of the navigation database?

A

On the Aircraft Status page on MCDU.

189
Q

What input does each FMGC use for position determination?

A

A hybrid IRS/GPS position

190
Q

What is the normal operational mode of the FMGS?

A

Dual mode, with one FMGC as master and the other FMGC as slave.

191
Q

How does autopilot selection influence master FMGS logic?

A
  • If one autopilot is engaged, the respective FMGC is master.
  • If both autopilots are engaged, FMGC 1 will be the master.
  • If no autopilot is engaged FMGC 1 is the master.
192
Q

If an amber OFF SIDE FM CONTROL message is displayed on the ND what action should the pilots take?

A
  • An FMGC has failed and both NDs must be set to the same mode and range, then see COM procedures
193
Q

Can both autopilots be engaged during any phase of flight?

A

No, only during an ILS approach.

194
Q

What is the difference between the large and small fonts utilized in the MCDU?

A
  • Large - Pilot entries and modifiable data.

- Small - Default/computed non-modifiable data.

195
Q

When would a Takeoff Shift be entered on the PERF TO page?

A

When takeoff begins at a runway intersection and NO GPS PRIMARY

196
Q

If the FLEX TEMP is not entered on the TAKEOFF page of the MCDU, and the thrust levers are positioned in the FLEX detent, what will occur?

A
  • A warning will be generated.

- Continue to move the thrust levers to the TOGA detent and execute a max thrust takeoff

197
Q

Where would a pilot enter the Zero Fuel Weight?

A

INIT B page

198
Q

What do amber box prompts on the MCDU indicate?

A

An entry is mandatory

199
Q

What occurs when managed NAV mode is engaged and the aircraft flies into a flight plan discontinuity?

A

NAV mode will be lost and the HDG/TRK mode engages.

200
Q

What are some causes for AUTOLAND light?

A
  • Excessive LOC or GS deviation or signal failure.
  • Radio Altimeter difference of greater than 15’.
  • Both autopilots fail.
201
Q

What should the pilot action be in case the AUTOLAND warning light illuminates below 200 RA?

A
  • Immediate Go-around
202
Q

Explain the side stick operation and the associated glare shield SIDE STICK PRIORITY light.

A
  • Normally only one side stick should be operated at any given time.
  • Should there be dual input, an aural “DUAL INPUT” will be annunciated over the speaker and the SIDE STICK PRIORITY green CAPT and F/O lights will flash - side stick inputs are algebraically summed.
  • Any time a pilot monitoring has to assume control, it MUST be verbally annunciated (“I HAVE CONTROL”) the pilot taking over MUST press and hold the takeover push button.
  • If the pilot previously flying does not relinquish control or there is a malfunction present, the side stick can be rendered inoperative by holding the takeover push button for 40 seconds. An aural alert “PRIORITY LEFT (RIGHT”) will be annunciated over the speaker and the SIDE STICK PRIORITY red arrow light will illuminate in front of the pilot losing authority.
  • The pilot having lost side stick authority can regain it by momentarily pressing the takeover push button.
203
Q

If MANAGED LATERAL DOT is displayed next to the FCU HDG window prior to takeoff, what lateral mode will be active after liftoff?

A

NAV

204
Q

How is the pilot made aware of mode changes on the FMA?

A

A white box is temporarily displayed around the new indication

205
Q

How are armed modes displayed on the FMA?

A
  • Blue - armed.
  • Magenta - armed constraint.
  • Green - engaged.
206
Q

When is the side stick position indication icon (white cross) displayed?

A

Displayed when the first engine is started disappears at liftoff.

207
Q

What would the large red arrowheads indicate?

A

Pitch attitude of +30.

208
Q

After loading an ILS approach into the MCDU and selecting the (I)LS pushbutton, what indications should be present on the PFD?

A
  • ILS frequency and course
  • ILS identifier (once in range and identified)
  • LOC and GS scales
209
Q

When would the sideslip index change from yellow to blue?

A

In case of an engine failure during takeoff/go-around, it is now a blue beta target.

210
Q

What does the yellow speed trend line on the airspeed display indicate?

A

The speed the aircraft will reach in 10 seconds if acceleration/deceleration remains constant

211
Q

What is the difference between the magenta and blue target airspeeds?

A
  • Magenta - Managed speed computed by the FMGC.

- Blue - Selected speed on the FCU.

212
Q

What is VLS and how is it displayed?

A
  • Represents lowest selectable speed providing an appropriate margin to the stall speed.
  • Defined by the top of the amber strip along the airspeed scale.
  • In approach mode is equivalent to VREF.
213
Q

What speed does VMAX represent and how is it displayed?

A
  • It is the lowest of VMO/MMO, VLE or VFE.

- Defined by the bottom of a red and black strip along the speed scale.

214
Q

What is Green Dot speed?

A
  • Engine out operating speed in clean configuration

* Appears when the aircraft is in the clean configuration

215
Q

What is Ground Speed Mini (GSMINI)?

A

• Based on a calculated groundspeed at the runway
• Protects against actual groundspeed dropping below this calculated
groundspeed

216
Q

What does it mean if the magenta target airspeed triangle is above VAPP
on the approach?

A

• GSMINI has increased speed due to a higher headwind component at the
present location.

217
Q

What are the 3 key factors in the GSMINI Calculations?

A 
• TWR wind = the MAG WIND entered in the PERF approach page (no gusts)
• TWR headwind component = the component of the MAG WIND projected
on the runway axis (landing runway entered in the flight plan).
• Current Headwind Component = the actual wind measured by ADIRS is
projected on the aircraft axis to define the current headwind component. The
current headwind component is used to compute the variable speed target
during final (IAS target).
218
Q

What is the significance of the altitude window changing from yellow to amber?

A

• The aircraft has deviated from the FCU selected altitude or flight level.

219
Q

When is altitude alerting automatically inhibited in flight?

A
  • When slats are extended with the landing gear down

* On approach after glide slope capture

220
Q

What does it mean when the altitude digits change from green to amber?

A

• The aircraft has descended below the MDA/DH entered into the FMGC.

221
Q

When is radio height displayed on the PFD?

A

• Below 2,500 feet

222
Q

Information from ILS receiver 1 is displayed where?

A
  • Captain’s PFD

* First Officer’s ND

223
Q

What would a flashing amber ILS indicate on the bottom of the PFD?

A

• Flashes amber when APPR mode is armed and the ILS PUSHBUTTON is
not selected.

224
Q

What displays or modes are available on the ND?

A
  • Rose ILS
  • Rose VOR
  • Rose NAV
  • ARC
  • PLAN
225
Q 
Navigation Display (ND)
What colors are used to represent the various displayed flight plans?
A
  • Active - continuous green line
  • Secondary - continuous white line
  • Temporary - dashed yellow line
  • Alternate - dashed blue line
  • Missed approach - continuous blue line
226
Q

Navigation Display (ND)
“Top of Descent” and “Continue Descent” arrows are displayed in blue or
white. What is the difference?

A
  • Top of Descent - Always white (never armed)

* Continue Descent - Blue indicates armed, white indicates NOT armed

227
Q 
Navigation Display (ND)
What color does each altitude constraint circle represent?
A
  • White - constraint is not taken into account
  • Magenta - constraint is predicted to be satisfied
  • Amber - constraint is predicted to be missed
228
Q 
Navigation Display (ND)
If the FCU fails what mode(s) and range should would be expected on the
ND?
A

ROSE NAV and 80 nm range.

229
Q 
Navigation Display (ND)
Where is VOR data displayed?
A

• Both NDs and the DDRMI if installed

230
Q

What are the 3 levels of ECAM Malfunction Notifications?

A

• Level 3: WARNINGS - Associated with the red MASTER WARN light,
CRC, and require immediate action
• Level 2: CAUTIONS - Associated with the amber MASTER CAUTION light,
single chime, and require crew awareness
• Level 1: ALERTS - Associated with amber E/WD message, no aural signal,

231
Q

If simultaneous failures occur, how will they be presented to the crew?

A

• A Level 3 WARNING has priority over a Level 2 CAUTION, which has
priority over a Level 1 ALERT.

232
Q

What types of failures are presented to the crew?

A

• Independent - Failure affecting an isolated system/item without degrading
other systems/items
• Primary - Failure of a system/item that affects the use of other
systems/items
• Secondary - Loss of a system/item resulting from a primary failure

233
Q

Where on the E/WD would the crew find primary failures?

A

• On the lower left portion of the screen.

234
Q

What indication does the E/WD provide for secondary failures?

A

• Secondary failures are displayed on the lower right portion of the E/WD and
are preceded by an asterisk ( * ).

235
Q

What does the appearance of a green arrow indicate at the bottom of the
E/WD screen?

A

• Information has overflowed off the screen and the pilot must scroll down
using the CLR pushbutton on the ECAM panel.

236
Q

What does the display of T.O. INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT indicate?

A

• Most warnings and cautions are inhibited to avoid unnecessary distractions
during critical phases of flight.

237
Q

What types of warnings are NOT inhibited with T.O INHIBIT displayed?

A
  • ENGINE FIRE
  • APU FIRE
  • ENG FAIL (ENG SHUT DOWN)
  • ENG OIL LO PR
  • L+R ELEV FAULT
  • A/P OFF
  • CONFIG
  • FWC 1+2 FAULT
238
Q

What are the Takeoff Configuration Warnings/Cautions?

A
  • SLATS/FLAPS NOT IN T.O. RANGE
  • PITCH TRIM NOT IN T.O. RANGE, RUDDER TRIM (more than 3.5)
  • SPEED BRAKES NOT RETRACTED
  • SIDE STICK FAULT
  • HOT BRAKES
  • DOOR NOT CLOSED
  • PARK BRAKE ON
  • FLEX TEMP NOT SET (unless thrust levers in TOGA detent)
239
Q

When does the Takeoff Memo appear and disappear?

A

• Two minutes after the 2nd engine is started or when the T.O. CONFIG
TEST pushbutton is pressed with one engine running
• Memo is removed when takeoff power is applied

240
Q

When does the Landing Memo appear and disappear?

A
  • Below 2,000 feet RA with gear down; or 800 feet RA with gear up.
  • Below 2,000 feet RA regardless of gear position (aircraft with new FWC)
  • Memo disappears after touchdown (80 knots)
241
Q

What does the boxed STS indicate when displayed on the E/WD?

A

• The STATUS page holds messages other than CANCELLED CAUTIONS
• Flashes after engine shutdown to alert maintenance of any other applicable
messages

242
Q

In general, when are the system pages automatically displayed on the SD?

A
  • Relative to the current phase of flight, or

* When a system malfunction is detected

243
Q

When is a STATUS page displayed?

A
  • After a failure is displayed on the SD and all failure items have been cleared
  • Display will reappear when the slats are extended
244
Q

What is the function of the two Landing Gear Control and Interface Units
(LGCIUs)?

A

• Provide sequencing, operation, monitoring, and indications for the landing
gear.
• Provide aircraft “In Flight” or “On the Ground” signals to other aircraft
systems

245
Q

What hydraulic system powers the landing gear and doors?

A

• Green

246
Q

If performing a gravity gear extension, what is one consideration concerning
hydraulic power?

A

• Hydraulic power is no longer available to the landing gear system (it is
bypassed).

247
Q

When does the red arrow in the LND panel illuminate?

A

• Below 750 feet RA, when the aircraft is in the landing configuration and the
landing gear is not locked down.

248
Q

What happens if airspeed is 280 knots and the Landing Gear lever is
selected DOWN?

A

• Nothing. A safety valve shuts off hydraulic power to the landing gear system
when airspeed is above 260 knots.

249
Q

What do the red UNLK lights indicate?

A

• The landing gear is not locked in the selected position

250
Q

What controls the LDG GEAR lights?

A

• LGCIU 1

251
Q

If LGCIU 1 fails will the lights still work?

A

• Yes, as long as it is still powered.

252
Q

What controls and manages all braking functions?

A

• The Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU)

253
Q

What happens when the A/SKID & N/W STRG is switched OFF?

A
  • Loss of nose wheel steering
  • Braking is powered by the YELLOW system
  • Anti-skid is deactivated
254
Q

Which hydraulic systems provide pressure to the brakes?

A
  • Normal brakes - GREEN

* Alternate brakes - YELLOW backed up by a hydraulic accumulator

255
Q

When do the Auto Brakes activate on landing if armed?

A

• LOW - progressive pressure applied to brakes 4 seconds after ground
spoilers deploy in order to decelerate the aircraft at a rate of 5.6 ft/s2
• MED - progressive pressure applied to brakes 2 seconds after ground
spoilers deploy in order to decelerate the aircraft at a rate of 9.8 ft/s2

256
Q

What does the AUTO BRK green DECEL light indicate?

A

• Actual rate of deceleration is within 80% of the selected rate.

257
Q

What is the Takeoff setting for Auto Brakes?

A

• MAX

258
Q

What will cause the MAX AUTO BRK to activate on a rejected takeoff?

A
  • Airspeed above 72 knots, and
  • Thrust levers at IDLE, and
  • Ground spoiler extension
259
Q

What is the impact of the loss of GREEN hydraulic pressure on the Auto
Brakes?

A

• The Auto Brake function is lost, because the aircraft is now relying on the
alternate brake system.

260
Q

If on the alternate brake system, what is required in order to maintain Antiskid
function, if anything?

A

• At least 1 channel of the BSCU

261
Q

What would happen to the spoilers if they were not armed, but at least one engine was selected into reverse thrust?

A

• They would still deploy, even if they were not armed

262
Q

How many brake applications are available with accumulator pressure?

A

• Approximately 7 full applications

263
Q

What is the maximum brake temperature for takeoff?

A

• 300°C and BRK FANS OFF

264
Q

What does the BRAKES & ACCU PRESS triple indicator indicate?

A
  • YELLOW hydraulic pressure delivered to the left and right brakes
  • YELLOW system brake accumulator pressure
265
Q

Describe the procedure for the brake check prior to taxi. What is the
significance of the callouts?

A

Press the brake pedals to ensure the aircraft slows, and check the brake
pressure on the triple indicator is zero.
• Calling out “pressure zero” indicates the GREEN hydraulic system has
taken over, and the normal braking system is operational.

266
Q

SWITCHING Panel

What computers feed data to the six display units?

A

• Three Display Management Computers (DMC)

267
Q

SWITCHING Panel

What do each of the DMCs normally supply?

A

• DMC 1 - Captain PFD, Captain ND, “Upper” ECAM DU (E/WD), and
“Lower” ECAM DU (SD)
• DMC 2 - First Officer PFD, First Officer ND
• DMC 3 - Backup

268
Q

SWITCHING Panel
If there are any automatic functions of the DMCs in the event of a failure,
explain the automatic logic.

A

• If DMC 1 fails (or DMC3 if “CAPT 3” was selected), DMC 2 automatically
drives the ECAM.

269
Q

SWITCHING Panel

What are the indications on the DUs if a DMC has failed?

A

• “INVALID DATA” will be displayed in the respective EFIS/ECAM display
unit.

270
Q

SWITCHING Panel

What happens when the upper ECAM display fails?

A

• The E/WD automatically replaces the SD on the lower ECAM display

271
Q

SWITCHING Panel
If both the E/WD and SD display units fail, how can the E/WD
Information be displayed?

A

• By selecting the ECAM/ND XFR switch to CAPT or F/O

272
Q

ECAM Control Panel

If the UPPER DISPLAY knob is switched to OFF what will occur?

A

• The E/WD display would automatically transfer to the “lower” display.

273
Q

ECAM Control Panel
With the E/WD displayed on the “lower” screen, what steps should be taken
to view SD information?

A

• Press and hold the appropriate system button on the ECAM CONTROL
panel. The information selected will be available for 30 seconds.

274
Q

ECAM Control Panel

What does the ALL pushbutton do?

A

• Displays ALL the system pages successively in 1-second intervals when
held down
• Release the pushbutton to maintain display of the selected page

275
Q

ECAM Control Panel

What does pressing the RCL pushbutton do?

A

• Allows the flight crew to review any warning or caution messages that the
CLR pushbutton or flight phase inhibition may have suppressed
• If held longer than 3 seconds, the E/WD will show any caution messages
suppressed by the EMER CANC pushbutton

276
Q

ECAM Control Panel
If the STS pushbutton is pressed and the system has no STATUS messages,
what will be displayed?

A

• “NORMAL” for 5 seconds

277
Q

ECAM Control Panel
What occurs during the Before Takeoff Flow when the T.O. CONFIG
pushbutton is pressed?

A

• The system simulates the application of takeoff power and checks certain
systems for proper configuration
• A warning is displayed if a system is not configured properly
• “TO CONFIG NORMAL” is displayed in the TO MEMO section if the
configuration is correct

278
Q

ECAM Control Panel
Describe the FO Preliminary Cockpit Preparation actions on the ECAM
control panel.

A
  • Recall - check old warnings
  • DOORS - check oxygen quantity
  • HYD - check quantity
  • ENG - check oil quantity
279
Q

ECAM Control Panel
Should the ECAM control panel fail, what functions are available as hardwired
buttons?

A

• CLR, RCL, STS, EMER CANC and ALL

280
Q

ECAM Control Panel

What does the EMER CANC accomplish?

A

• Cancels the audio for warning messages (without removing any ECAM
message)
• Cancels the present caution for the rest of the flight
• Calls up the STATUS page, which displays “CANCELLED CAUTION” and
the TITLE of the failure
• Inhibited message can be recalled by holding RCL for more than three
seconds

281
Q

ECAM Control Panel

What is the purpose of having the EMER CANC pushbutton?

A

• Used to cancel spurious MASTER CAUTIONS

282
Q

How is the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) normally operated in flight?

A

• The flight control computers control trim functions automatically.

283
Q

If no hydraulic power is available, what is the impact on the THS?

A

• The THS requires hydraulic power from the GREEN or YELLOW systems in
order to function.

284
Q

If possible, how can the THS be positioned after a complete flight control
computer failure occurs?

A

• Mechanical trimming is possible by manually positioning the pitch trim
wheel.

285
Q

Explain what would happen if a pilot were to reach down and move the pitch
trim wheel when all systems are working normally.

A

• The trim will can be turned manually. However, manual inputs have priority
over computer inputs, so the autopilot would disconnect (if engaged).

286
Q

What happens to the THS after landing?

A

• The trim automatically resets to zero.

287
Q

What controls the engines in all operating regimes?

A

• FADECs (Full Authority Digital Engine Controls)

288
Q

What functions does the FADEC control?

A
  • Fuel metering
  • Engine limits based on thrust lever angle
  • Start sequencing
  • Provides engine indications and thrust limit displays on the E/WD
289
Q

What redundancy does the FADEC have?

A

• Dual channel redundancy - one channel is active while the other is standby.

290
Q

What is the power source for the FADEC?

A

• The system has its own alternator making it independent of the aircraft
electrical system when N2 is above10%
• If this alternator fails the FADEC automatically switches to aircraft electrical
power

291
Q

When will the FADEC abort an automatic start?

A
  • Hot start
  • Stalled start
  • No ignition
292
Q

The FADEC detects a fault during automatic start. What crew intervention is
required?

A

• There is no crew intervention necessary. The FADEC will discontinue the
start, clear the engine, and attempt a restart (if warranted) automatically.

293
Q

When does the FADEC command a higher engine idle speed?

A
  • Bleed demands
  • Approach configuration
  • High engine or IDG temperatures
294
Q

How many igniters fire during a normal automatic ground start sequence?

A
  • One igniter with the other serving as a backup

* The FADEC automatically alternates the igniters (A and B) at each star

295
Q

How many igniters fire on manual or in-flight starts?

A

• Two, both A and B

296
Q

When does continuous ignition automatically operate?

A
  • Engine anti ice ON
  • Approach idle
  • Engine flameout detection
  • MAX/FLEX power selected
  • Failure of the EIU
  • In-flight unscheduled sub idle or surge
  • Master switch cycled from ON to OFF then back to ON position
297
Q

What are the 5 detent positions of the thrust levers?

A
  • TOGA - Take Off/Go Around
  • FLX / MCT - Flex/ Maximum Continuous Thrust
  • CL - Climb
  • IDLE - Idle
  • MAX REV - Maximum Reverse Thrust
298
Q

On the ground, how can the A/THR be armed?

A

• By setting the thrust levers in the TOGA or FLEX gate (with a FLEX
temperature inserted in the MCDU)
• At least one FD must be ON for A/THR to arm during takeoff

299
Q

What is the active range of the A/THR?

A
  • Just above IDLE to the CL detent (2 engines)

* Just above IDLE to the MCT detent (1 engine)

300
Q

What is the normal operational position of the thrust levers when A/THR is
active?

A

• The CL detent

301
Q

What determines the maximum thrust the A/THR system will be able to
command?

A

• The thrust lever angle

302
Q

What are three ways to disconnect the A/THR?

A
  • A/THR pushbutton
  • Instinctive disconnect pushbuttons
  • Thrust levers to IDLE
303
Q

What is the preferred method of disconnecting A/THR?

A

• Set the thrust lever angle to the existing EPR and push the instinctive
disconnect pushbuttons

304
Q

How would the A/THR be disconnected for the remainder of the flight?

A

• Press and hold the instinctive disconnect pushbutton for 15 seconds. The
A/THR cannot be re-engaged once this is done. ALPHA FLOOR is also lost
if this is done.

305
Q

What happens to thrust and what annunciates on the FMA during ALPHA
FLOOR?

A
  • Thrust - TOGA

* FMA - “A.FLOOR”

306
Q

When does the aircraft leave ALPHA FLOOR and what does the FMA change
to?

A

• Upon reaching a lower angle of attack. The FMA changes to “TOGA LK”

307
Q

Following ALPHA FLOOR, how would the crew return normal A/THR
function?

A

Press the instinctive disconnect pushbutton
• Return thrust levers to CL detent
• Push the A/THR pushbutton to engage A/THR

308
Q

When is ALPHA FLOOR protection active?

A

• From lift-off through 100 feet RA on approach

309
Q

When would Thrust Lock occur?

A
  • Thrust levers in CL detent and A/THR pushbutton on the FCU is pushed, or
  • A/THR disconnects due to a failure
310
Q

How is A/THR normally armed?

A

• By advancing the thrust levers to TOGA or FLX

311
Q

What would be the normal FMA indications during a takeoff roll using FLEX
thrust on a RWY with a localizer?

A

• MAN FLX, SRS, RWY, A/THR (blue)

312
Q

What would the FMA indications be during takeoff roll if the A/THR didn’t
arm on a runway with a localizer? Should the takeoff be aborted?

A

• SRS, RWY
• Continuing the takeoff is a safe option, but the thrust levers must be moved
to the climb detent at thrust reduction altitude and the crew must manually
engage A/THR.

313
Q

How should A/THR be turned off?

A

• Match the blue thrust lever angle indicators to the present thrust setting and
push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons or move THRUST LEVERS to
IDLE

314
Q

What should the pilot do to get out of TOGA LOCK?

A

• Push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons and move the THRUST
LEVERS to the CL detent

315
Q

What should the pilot do to get out of THRUST LOCK?

A

• Match the thrust lever angle with ENG output

316
Q

What is the A/THR active zone for two-engine operations?

A

• From slightly above IDLE to CL

317
Q

What is the A/THR active zone for single-engine operations?

A

• From slightly above IDLE to MCT

318
Q

What controls the engine LP fuel valves?

A
  • Engine MASTER switch

* ENGINE FIRE pushbutton

319
Q

What does a FAULT light on the ENG panel indicate?

A
  • Automatic start abort

* Switch disagreement between HP valve and its commanded position

320
Q

What is the rated thrust of each engine?

A
  • A319 - V2524-A5 = 23,500 lbs
  • A320 - V2527-A5 = 27,000 IbsN 27,000
  • A321 - V2533-A5 = 32,500 lbs
321
Q

How many transponders are installed?

A

• Two

322
Q

What does illumination of the ATC FAIL light indicate?

A

• Only the selected transponder has failed.

323
Q

When selecting the flap lever to 1 after the flaps have been at CONF 2 or
higher, what setting will the flaps and slats go to?

A

• CONF 1 + F
• This configuration has a maximum speed 215 knots, with automatic
retraction of flaps occurring at 210 knots.

324
Q

What is the normal flap setting for a go-around?

A

Retract one step

325
Q

How are the flaps and slats affected if only GREEN hydraulic system
pressure available?

A

• The flaps and slats will still operate, but at half speed

326
Q

What system prevents flap or slat asymmetry?

A

• Wing Tip Brakes (WTB)

327
Q

What causes the WTBs to activate?

A
  • Runaway
  • Over speed (flaps)
  • Asymmetry
  • Movement (un-commanded)
328
Q

If the WTBs activate due to a flap asymmetry, how are the slats affected?

A

• The slats can still operate normally - only flap operation is inhibited.

329
Q

How may Slat/Flap Control Computers (SFCC) are installed?

A

• Two

330
Q

What would occur if one SFCC failed?

A

• The slats and flaps would continue to operate, but at half speed.

331
Q

What flap/slat configurations correspond to position 1 on the FLAPS lever
and how do they differ?

A
  • CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides both slats (position 1) + flaps
  • CONF 1 is used in-flight and is slats only
332
Q

When will the Automatic Retraction System (ARS) operate?

A

• During acceleration in CONF 1+F, the flaps (not slats) will automatically
retract to 0 at 210 knots.

333
Q

What is ALPHA LOCK?

A

• This function inhibits retracting flaps/slats from 1 to 0 at a high angle of
attack and low airspeed.

334
Q

When the FLAP legend appears in cyan on the E/WD, what is indicated?

A

Flaps/slats in transit

335
Q

What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extended?

A

• The ailerons droop

336
Q

Is there any landing configuration when speed brake extension is inhibited?

A
  • A319/A320 - Flaps FULL

* A321 - Flaps 3 and FULL

337
Q

Discuss the ground spoiler logic on a rejected takeoff

A

• If the ground spoilers are armed and the speed exceeds 72 knots, the
ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as both thrust levers are
set to idle.
• If the ground spoilers are not armed and the speed exceeds 72 knots, the
ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected on
one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle).
• Therefore, selecting at least idle reverse will always provide ground spoiler deployment.

338
Q

When will the ground spoilers automatically retract?

A
  • Thrust levers at IDLE and speed brake lever is down

* When at least one thrust lever is advanced above IDLE

339
Q

When is speed brake extension inhibited?

A
  • SEC 1 and 3 failed
  • L or R elevator failed
  • Angle of Attack protection is active
  • Flaps in CONF FULL (A319/A320)
  • Flaps in CONF 3 or FULL (A321)
  • Thrust levers above the MCT position
  • ALPHA FLOOR is active
340
Q

In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is detected or electrical power is
lost?

A

• The spoilers automatically retract.

341
Q

What capabilities does the RADAR system have?

A
  • Weather avoidance
  • Turbulence detection
  • Terrain mapping
  • Predictive windshear detection
342
Q

What would prevent the weather display on the ND?

A
  • Mode selector in PLAN

* TERR selected ON

343
Q

When is WX/TURB mode available?

A

• At ranges of 40 nm or less

344
Q

How would a flight crew analyze windshear with the RADAR system off?

A

• If the PWS switch is in AUTO, windshear detection is still available, even
though the RADAR system is off.

345
Q

What is the scanned area of the predictive windshear detection feature?

A

• Up to 5 nm ahead of the aircraft when the aircraft is below 1,500 feet AGL.

346
Q

When are predictive windshear alerts inhibited?

A
  • When on the ground above 100 knots until reaching 50 feet AGL
  • When landing below 50 feet AGL
347
Q

How many RADAR systems are installed?

A

• One

348
Q

How are the communications radios controlled?

A

• From any one of the three Radio Management Panels (RMPs)

349
Q

Which RMP is powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?

A

• RMP 1

350
Q

Which communication radios are powered in the Emergency Electrical
Configuration?

A

• VHF COM 1, HF 1

351
Q

Radio Management Panel (RMP)

What would cause the SEL indicator to illuminate on both RMPs?

A

• When a communication radio normally associated with one RMP is tuned by
another RMP.

352
Q

Radio Management Panel (RMP)

What is the significance of selecting the NAV key on an RMP?

A
  • The FMGS cannot auto-tune navaids
  • The RMP now controls the VOR/ILS receivers
  • NAV key on RMP 3 has no effect
  • Normal radio communication is still available
353
Q

If RMP 1 fails, how can VHF 1 still be used?

A

• By using RMP 2 or 3

354
Q

With the INT/RAD switch on the ACP in the INT position, and the side stick
transmit switch keyed, what radio will the crewmember transmit on?

A

• The radio selected by the transmission key on the ACP.

355
Q

What methods would the crew utilize to make a PA announcement?

A

• The flight deck handset dedicated to the PA system only
• Pressing the PA switch on the ACP and using the boom, hand, or mask
microphone (louder)

356
Q

What effect does setting the parking brake have on other braking modes?

A

• All other braking modes and anti-skid are deactivated.

357
Q

When brake accumulator pressure is low, how is it recharged?

A

• With the YELLOW ELEC PUMP.

358
Q

How is the parking brake activated when turning the parking brake switch
ON?

A

• Electrically

359
Q

How can the crew verify the parking brake is set?

A
  • ECAM PARKING BRK memo

* Triple indicator brake pressure

360
Q

If during an engine start with the parking brake ON, the aircraft starts to
move due to a parking brake failure, what are the appropriate actions?

A

• Release the PARKING BRAKE handle to restore normal braking with the
pedals.

361
Q

What is the thrust limitation with the parking brake ON?

A

• EPR 1.15 should not be exceeded

362
Q

When hand flying the aircraft how can the rudder be trimmed, if at all
possible?

A

• Using the RUDDER TRIM rotary switch

363
Q

What happens if the rudder trim is manipulated with the autopilot engaged?

A

• Nothing

364
Q

Aft Pedestal

What is the RESET button used for?

A

• To quickly reset the rudder trim to 0. This will not operate with the autopilot
engaged.

365
Q

What would be felt in the rudder pedals from the yaw damping or turn
coordination functions?

A

• Nothing. There is no feedback from these systems on the rudder pedals.

366
Q

What three things occur when the manual gear extension handle is turned?

A
  • GREEN hydraulic pressure is removed
  • Gear doors are opened
  • Uplocks are unlocked
367
Q

How many turns does it take to lower the gear manually?

A

• Three

368
Q

What hydraulic system supplies nose wheel steering?

A

• YELLOW

369
Q

The steering hand wheels can steer the nose wheel up to how much in each
direction?

A

• +/- 75° from center

370
Q

When using the rudder pedals for steering, when does the steering angle
begin to reduce?

A

• Starts reduction at 40 knots and progressively reduces to 0° at 130 knots

371
Q

What does the rudder PEDAL DISC button on the steering hand wheel do?

A

• Pressing the button removes control of nose wheel steering from the rudder
pedals until released.

372
Q

What would occur if the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch were selected to OFF?

A
  • Nose wheel steering is lost
  • Anti-skid is deactivated
  • YELLOW hydraulic system would supply the brakes

A320 Recurrent AK2020 (4 decks)

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