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Pathophys II: Exam 2 > NICU > Flashcards

NICU Flashcards

1
Q

what is occuring during GDM?

A

placenta produces insulin antagonist

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2
Q

greatest risk of GDM?

A

fetal macrosomia – 8lb, 13 oz

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3
Q

preeclampsia causes what to be in urine?

A

protein

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4
Q

a second trimester occurrence of oligohydramnios is associated with what?

A

UTI and PROM

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5
Q

a third trimester occurrence of oligohydramnios is associated with what?

A

ROM, IUGR, postdate prego

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6
Q

what is polyhydramnios most often ass. with?

A

fetal swallowing

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7
Q

increases prematurity, IUGR, placental abruption, fetal distress, perinatal asphyxia, and withdrawal are due to what?

A

substance exposure

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8
Q

heavy exposure of alcohol causes what? (8-10 drinks per day)

A

fetal alcohol syndrome

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9
Q

what is the most common cause of preterm labor?

A

choriamnionitis

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10
Q

what can lead to preeclampsia, ecclampsia, and pregnancy induced HTN?

A

Gestational DM

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11
Q

what does HELLP stand for? what is it a variant for?

A

hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets; pre-eclampsia

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12
Q

what does a pt with HELLP require?

A

blood transfusions

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13
Q

what is amniotic fluid impt for?

A

lung and GI tract development

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14
Q

what is the normal level of amniotic fluid?

A

600mL

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15
Q

are there two occurrences for oligohydramnios?

A

2nd and 3rd trimester occurrence

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16
Q

what can prolonged oligohydramnios cause?

A

cranial, facial, or skeletall abnormalities

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17
Q

for polyhydramnios, how much amniotic fluid is there?

A

> 2000mL

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18
Q

infants undergoing withdrawal from _____

need to be monitored in the NICU.

A

narcotics

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19
Q

what is alcohol considered? why is it bad for the fetus?

A

fetal teratogen; crosses the placenta freely

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20
Q

what is prematurity considered?

A

less than 37 weeks

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21
Q

what weeks are late prematurity considered?

A

34-36 weeks

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22
Q

what weeks are moderate prematurity?

A

32-34 weeks

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23
Q

what weeks are considered very premature?

A

26-32

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24
Q

what is considered extremely premature?

A

<26 weeks

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25
what is extremely low bw considered?
2.2lb
26
what is very low birth weight considered?
2.2-3.3lb
27
what is low birth weight considered?
3.3-5.5lb
28
what does intrauterine growth retardation mean?
inhibited fetal growth q[op]
29
define resp distress syndrome. (3)
decreased surfactant and lung compliance, increased surface tension
30
what is one disease that patent ductus arteriosus results in?
CHF
31
what is the treatment for patent ductus arteriosus?
fluid restriction, diuretics
32
what type of disease is bronchopulmonary dysplasia?
chronic
33
how old is chronological age vs gestational age used until?
2 years
34
diagnosis of BPD?
<32 weeks GA and still uses O2 at 36 weeks | >32 weeks GA and still uses O2 at 28 days CA
35
etiology of BPD is..
multifactorial
36
what are some main challenges of BPD in terms of ventilatory management?
variable compliance, high expiratory resistance
37
what is necrootizing enterocolitis (NEC)? what are the stages? when is surgery provided?
acute inflamm disease of intestine suspected, documented, surgical stage III
38
what is the greatest risk associated with hyperbilirubinemia? where is bilirubin produced?
Kernicterus | red blood cells
39
what does kernicterus indicate?
bilirubin encephalopathy(uncojugated bilrubin in basal ganglia)
40
treatment for hyperbilirubinemia?
phototherapy
41
if you have GIRD, how should you be positioned?
at 30 degrees head of bed
42
what type of disorder is retinopathy of prematurity? when does it start?
vascular proliferative disorder | 34-36 weeks
43
name the site of neuronal proliferation during fetal development.
germinal matrix
44
name the most common brain lesion in preterm infants.
intraventricular hemorrhage
45
describe periventricular leukomalacia.
necrosis of white matter to external angles of lateral ventricles
46
what are the two types of PVL?
focal, diffuse
47
what is a focal PVL characterized by? what diagnosis can this lead to?
necrosis of white matter followed by cyst formation | spastic diplegia
48
name the more common PVL. what is it characterized by? what can this later cause?
diffuse injury to the oligodendroglial precursors cognitive/behavioral deficits
49
Clinical appearance of a scaphoid abdomen, shifted heart sounds, diminished/absent breath sounds, bowel sounds in hemithorax, rep distress, cyanosis
congenital diaphragmatic hernia
50
what region is a CDH more common in?
posterolateral diaphragm
51
what diagnosis causes a hypoplastic lung with increased resistance?
CDH
52
define omphalocele. is the sac covered by membrane?
failure of intestines to return from umbilical cord to the abdominal cavity (large or small) yes
53
where is the abdominal defect of a gastroschesis located? is umbilical cord intact? is it covered by sac?
to the right and left of umbilical cord. yes no
54
what are the susceptible organs for perinatal asphyxia?
kidneys, heart, lungs, brain
55
what is the most important consequence of perinatal asphyxia?
hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy
56
define persistent pulmonary HTN of the newborn.
increased pulmonary vascular resistance leads to R and L shunting
57
what is persistent pulmonary HTN of the newborn associated with in utero?
hypoxia
58
what is PPHTN diagnosed with?
ECHO
59
what results from meconium aspiration syndrome?
decreased exhalation and overinflation
60
what can meconium aspiration syndrome be treated with?
ECMO, ventilation, humidificaiton
61
what will provide continuous positive airway pressure in order to maintain lung volume?
highflow nasal cannula
62
what type of ventilation is mechanical ventilation?
synchronized
63
what will allow for continuous distending pressure to maintain elevated lung volume while superimposing small tidal volumes at a rapid rate?
high frequency ventilation (HFJ)
64
what does inhaling NO cause?
vasodilation w.o changed systemic vascular resistance
65
what improves ventilation perfusion match?
NO
66
what does ECMO provide?
lung rest for pts with terminal lung failure by providing gas exchange
67
what is HIE treated with? how long is the duration of treatment? what will this treatment allow for
therapeutic hypothermia 72 hours decreased morbidity

Pathophys II: Exam 2 (5 decks)

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