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NHA Phlebotomy Exam > NHA Study Guide > Flashcards

NHA Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

you must have the _______ _______ before even approaching the patient

A

requisition form

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2
Q

all information is on the __________ form

A

requisition form

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3
Q

when you introduce yourself and confirm the patient, you must use ____ identifiers

A

2

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4
Q

inpatient patients must have their _________ and _______ identify themselves

A

wristband
verbally

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5
Q

outpatient patients must have a ______ ID and _______ identify themselves

A

physical
verbally

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6
Q

after introducing and confirming the PT, you must ________ them about the procedure

A

educate

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7
Q

you have to evaluate the PT w/ their _______ & ________ to determine the best site/method collection

A

age & condition

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8
Q

you evaluate the PT w/ their age & condition to determine what is the best ______ & ________ collection

A

best site & method collection

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9
Q

before blood collection, you have to make sure the PT has met all ________ & ________ necessary for blood collection

E.X: if they fasted

A

requirements & preparations

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10
Q

with complications you need to know what _____ them & how to ______ them

A

causes
help

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11
Q

excessive bleeding happens when a PT is on ______ _________

you help by applying ________

A

blood thinners
pressure

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12
Q

examples anticoagulation medications are . . .

1.) __________
2.) __________
3.) __________

A

1.) heparin
2.) warfarin
3.) aspirin

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13
Q

severe pain should not last more than a few _________

A

minutes

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14
Q

to help with severe pain, you can apply ________

but if that doesn’t help they should get checked out

A

ice

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15
Q

lack of ________ should only last a few hours

A

sensation

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16
Q

lack of sensation could be from the ________ or that you hit a ________

A

tourniquet
nerve

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17
Q

if the PT feels lack of sensation during a draw, you should _______ the draw & apply ________

A

STOP
pressure

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18
Q

excessive bruising is considered when it’s bigger than the size of a _______ _____

A

gauze pad

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19
Q

to help with excessive bruising, you should _______ _______

A

apply pressure

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20
Q

signs of an infection are . . .

1.) _______
2.) _______
3.) _______

A

1.) red
2.) swollen
3.) pussy

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21
Q

STAT means you _____ everything and do it right there

A

drop

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22
Q

ASAP means . . .

A

as soon as possible

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23
Q

_______ consent is when it’s verbal or in writing

A

expressed

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24
Q

_______ consent is when the PT is provided with all the information

A

informed

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25
Q

_________ consent is when their actions imply they are giving consent

A

implied

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26
Q

when a PT refuses consent, you have to _______ the person ordering test of refusal

A

inform

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27
Q

if inpatient, the PT must always have a _________

A

wristband

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28
Q

the PT wristbands must always MATCH the ________ _______

A

requisition form

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29
Q

what are the 3 main veins in the antecubital fossa?

1.) __________
2.) __________
3.) __________

A

1.) median cubital
2.) basilic
3.) cephalic

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30
Q

what fingers are used during a capillary puncture?

1.) ______
2.) ______

A

1.) the ring finger
2.) the middle finger

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31
Q

when doing a capillary puncture, you should always _______ away the 1st drop

A

wipe

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32
Q

when selecting a site to draw, the ______ _______ is the 1st choice

A

antecubital fossa

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33
Q

when selecting a site to draw, the ______ is the 2nd choice

A

dorsal

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34
Q

when performing a dorsal hand draw, you should always use a _________ needle

A

butterfly

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35
Q

when selecting a site, the ____/_____ is always LAST and needs Dr. approval

A

ankle/foot

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36
Q

you would never draw from the _____/_____ with a diabetic PT

A

ankle/foot

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37
Q

you never perform a venipuncture _________ an IV line, only ________ it

A

above
under

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38
Q

when performing a venipuncture on a arm w/ a IV line, you need to ________ the IV for a few minutes before proceeding

A

STOP

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39
Q

in a arm w/ a dialysis shunt, you should _________ perform a venipuncture

A

NEVER

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40
Q

you should never perform a venipuncture on the _________ side as a mastectomy

A

same

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41
Q

edema means ______

A

swollen, swelling

comes from fluid

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42
Q

T or F?

you should perform a venipuncture on a edema.

A

FALSE

edema = bruise

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43
Q

T or F?

you should perform a venipuncture on scarred skin.

A

FALSE

very painful

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44
Q

hematoma means _______

A

bruised

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45
Q

drawing blood on a hematoma will cause ___________

A

hemolysis

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46
Q

_______ means when RBC burst, and can alter test results because of the hemoglobin released

A

hemolysis

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47
Q

T or F?

you should draw on someone who is incohere/confused.

A

FALSE

that’s battery

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48
Q

________ veins are hard, inflexible and narrow and should not be drawn from

A

schlerotic

schlerotic = grown rigid or unresponsive especially with age

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49
Q

sclerotic veins are _____, _____, and narrow and should not be drawn from

A

hard, inflexible

THINK: pen tube

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50
Q

________ veins are twisted

A

tortuous

THINK: twisted = torture

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51
Q

tortuous veins are ________ and should not be drawn from

A

twisted

THINK: twisted = torture

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52
Q

_________ veins are inflexible and tender to touch and should not be drawn from

A

thromobotic

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53
Q

thrombotic veins are ________ & _______ to touch and should not be drawn from

A

inflexible & tender

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54
Q

________ veins are very thin and should not be drawn from

A

fragile

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55
Q

fragile veins are quite __________ and should not be drawn from

A

thin

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56
Q

_________ veins are tender, warm, and can appear red, they should not be drawn from

A

phlebitic

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57
Q

phlebitic veins are _______, _____, and appear ______ and should not be drawn from

A

tender, warm, and appear red

REMEMBER: phleb - itis = inflamattion of vein

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58
Q

even though you feel the vein, it does not mean you should ______ from them

A

draw

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59
Q

________ _______ is our 1st antiseptic of choice

A

isopropyl alcohol

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60
Q

________ is our 2nd antiseptic of choice

A

chlorhexidine

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61
Q

when collecting a blood culture, you must clean ________ and ______ with an antiseptic

A

twice, scrub

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62
Q

how long should a PT fast for?

A

8-12 hours

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63
Q

what is basal state?

A

the combination of . . .

  • resting
  • fasting
  • and NO exercise
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64
Q

with children, what types of tubes do we use?

A

smaller tubes w/ less vaccum

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65
Q

with children, what type of needle is used?

A

butterfly needle to help veins not collaspe

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66
Q

what changes w/ capillary draws?

A

the order of draw

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67
Q

what is the order of draw w/ capillary sticks?

A

Lavender
Green
Red

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68
Q

what angle is the needle always held at?

A

15-30 degree angle

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69
Q

POC stands for . . .

A

point of care testing

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70
Q

what is POC?

A

bedside care, immediate results

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71
Q

examples of POC is . . .

A

glucometer blood sugar
pregnancy test

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72
Q

what is important to help ensure safety throughout the collection process?

A

communication

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73
Q

if the patient loses consciousness we must . . .

A

STOP the procedure
call for help
assess breathing

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74
Q

we use syringes on what type of veins?

A

fragile & collasping veins

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75
Q

we use butterfly needles on what type of vein?

A

small & rolling veins

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76
Q

who do we use a heel stick on?

A

infants ONLY
12 month or younger

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77
Q

we do a _______ stick on an infant that is NOT ___________

A

heel
walking

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78
Q

doing a heel stick on infant would only be _______ months or younger

(before they can walk)

A

12

can impede how they walk

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79
Q

what size lancet do you use on a infant heel stick?

A

2mm lancet

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80
Q

how long do you use a heel warmer on and infant heel stick?

A

3-5 mins

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81
Q

with ANY capillary punctures, you must . . .

A

wipe away 1st drop

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82
Q

what is a hematoma?

A

a bruise/bleeding under the skin

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83
Q

how to prevent a hematoma?

A

PRESSURE!

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84
Q

to prevent a hematoma during a venipuncture, how long should you apply pressure?

A

2 mins

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85
Q

to prevent a hematoma during a arterial puncture, how long should you apply pressure?

A

5 mins

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86
Q

what is phlebitis?

A

inflammation of the vein

phleb = vein
itis = inflamattion

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87
Q

how does phlebitis occur?

A

scrapping vein causing it to swell

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88
Q

how to treat phlebitis?

A

applying ice & pressure

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89
Q

what is a thrombus?

A

a clot!

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90
Q

what should you do w/ thrombus?

A

DO NOT DRAW

thrombus = blood clot

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91
Q

what is diaphoresis?

A

excessive sweating

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92
Q

what is petechiae?

A

red dots around tourniquet (not our fault)

caused by platelet malfunction

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93
Q

what should you do if pt has petechiae?

A

complete draw
add EXTRA PRESSURE

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94
Q

what is hemoconcentration?

A

when we leave the tourniquet on too long

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95
Q

how to prevent hemoconcentration?

A

don’t leave tourniquet on for over a minute

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96
Q

what is syncope?

A

fainting
lack of blood supply to brain

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97
Q

what to do with pt if syncope happens?

A

stop draw
call for help
never leave PT

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98
Q

what to do during seizure?

A

stop draw
do nothing
move furniture

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99
Q

what is shock in pt?

A

cold, clammy skin, rapid pulse

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100
Q

what to do if pt is in shock?

A

add blanket, raise legs

101
Q

what is the order of draw?

A

Be Ready Your Getting Poked

blood culture tubes
blue
red
yellow/SST/tiger tube topes
green
lavender (pink)
& gray

102
Q

what is the capillary order?

A

lavender
green
red

103
Q

what is in the blue tube?

A

sodium citrate

104
Q

what does the blue tube do?

A

everything coagulation!
sodium citrate helps clot

105
Q

how many times should you invert the blue tube?

A

3-4 times

106
Q

what does the lavender tube has?

A

EDTA

107
Q

what does the lavender tube do?

A

it’s a hematology test that preserves the shape of cells

reduces platelet clumping

108
Q

how many times should you invert a lavender tube?

A

8-10 times

109
Q

what does the green tube have?

A

heparin

110
Q

what does the green tube do?

A

it’s a chemistry test that PREVENTS clots

111
Q

how many times should you invert a green tube?

A

8-10 times

112
Q

what does the grey tube have?

A

potassium oxlate

113
Q

what does the grey tube do?

A

it tests sugar to preserve glucose

114
Q

how many times should you invert the grey tube?

A

8-10 times

115
Q

how many times should you invert a yellow sps tube?

A

8-10 times

116
Q

how many times should you invert a serum tube?

A

5 times

s looks like a 5

117
Q

quality checks on equipment are performed __________

A

daily

118
Q

why do we create blood smears?

A

for white blood cell differentials

we make it 1 cell thick to see infection

119
Q

what tube do we use for a blood smear?

A

EDTA (lavender) tube

120
Q

a blood smear has to be prepared within _______ hour of collection

A

1

121
Q

what angle do you go into when collecting a blood smear?

A

30 degree angle

122
Q

new borns are screened for ______

A

PKU (phenylketonuria)

123
Q

new borns go through screening _____-______ hours after birth

A

24-72 hours

124
Q

when collecting blood for newborns, you do a . . .

A

heel stick
wipe away 1st drop

125
Q

you have to let the absorbing circle card dry for _______ hours

A

4

126
Q

what is therapeutic phlebtotomy?

A

a fancy word for blood letting

127
Q

what type of pt do we perform therapeutic phlebotomy on?

A

on pt who suffer from polycythemia vera

128
Q

what is polycythemia vera?

A

overproducing of blood cells

129
Q

how far apart can someone donate blood?

A

8 weeks apart

130
Q

how old do you have to be to donate blood?

A

18+

131
Q

how many lbs do you have to weigh to donate blood?

A

over 110 lbs

132
Q

what is the age cap on donating blood?

A

there isn’t any

133
Q

what do you have to do before collecting a pt’s blood for donation?

A

collect a complete medical history

134
Q

what is ampheresis?

A

removing a blood element during blood collection by a special equipment

E.X: plasmapheresis (separating plasma)

135
Q

what is autologous?

A

Donation of blood for their own future use

E.X: upcoming surgery

136
Q

what is Iatrogenic anemia?

A

Blood loss due to repeated venipunctures

137
Q

you always ________ specimen in front of pt before they leave the room to reduce the chance of errors

A

label

138
Q

what is CLIA?

A

about test quality
Establishes guidelines for certain tests performed @ home or in facility
Required minimal judgement & interpretation

139
Q

what are examples of CLIA?

A

E.X: reading dipstick, glucometer

140
Q

what are the tests that go immediality on ice after drawing?

A

ammonia
lactic acid
ABG
ACTH
gastrin (stomach)
pyruvate

141
Q

cold aggulutiins must be kept @ what temp?

A

warm

THINK: opposite

142
Q

what is the special requirement for billirum?

A

has to be protected from light

143
Q

what does billirum test for?

A

liver function

E.X: jaundice

144
Q

how do you protect billirum from light?

A

using tin foil or amber colored tube

145
Q

what does postprandial mean?

A

2 hours after eating

146
Q

what is the rule when collecting stool?

A

you cannot mix urine w/ it

147
Q

what is the most common non-blood sample?

A

urine

148
Q

the perservatives when collecting urine keep the specimen good for _______ hours

A

72

149
Q

what should a menustrating women do when collecting a urine?

A

wait for cycle to be completed instead

150
Q

random urine test is used for . . .

A

drug test

151
Q

clean catch midstreams are best for . . . .

A

cultures
prevents cross contaminations

152
Q

w/ timed urine specimen you must . . .

A

refridge until delivered to physician’s office

153
Q

a 24 hour urine specimen requirements are . . .

A

kept on ice
do not collect 1st void of the day

154
Q

a 1st void urine specimen is used to test for. . . .

A

pregnancy

155
Q

what are the requirements for semen collection? (3)

A

Do not expose to light or extreme temp
Keep close as body temp as possible
Must reach lab within 2 hours of collection

156
Q

what is sputum?

A

Mucus or phlegm
For microbiology specimen

157
Q

what is the requirement for testing for BAC?

A

using chlorhexidine instead of alcohol wipe

158
Q

what is required from each person that had possession of specimen for any amount of time during chain of custody?

A

signature & date

159
Q

what type of bags are used to send specimens?

A

biohazard bags

160
Q

what are in biohazard bags w/ the sample?

A

copy of requisition form & absorbent material

161
Q

what is POC testing?

A

done at bedside w/ immediate results

162
Q

what do you do when a critical value is detected during POC testing?

A

report results immediately to ordering provider

163
Q

what is OSHA?

A

for us, ensuring workers are safe
reduces incident expores

164
Q

what is MSDS?

A

Material Safety Data Sheets

anything chemical related
chemical spills/incidents

165
Q

what is NIOSH?

A

anything sharps related

166
Q

what is JCAHO?

A

joint commission
Focuses on continual improvement of pt safety & quality care

167
Q

what is CLSI?

A

Clinical & Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI)

Guidelines for standards & operations
Order of draw

168
Q

what is PHI?

A

protected health information

169
Q

what are erythrocytes?

A

RBC

170
Q

what are leukocytes?

A

WBC

171
Q

what are thrombocytes?

A

platelets

172
Q

what is hemostasis?

A

when blood vessels are repaired after injury

173
Q

what is the purpose of timed specimens?

A

used to measure blood levels of substances (cortisol, medication)

also measures pt condition

174
Q

what are 2 hour postprandial test for?

A

used to evaluate diabetes

fasting glucose level compared w/ 2 hours after eating

175
Q

what does OGTT stand for?

A

oral glucose tolerance test

176
Q

what is OGTT used for?

A

diagnose diabetes
evaluates low blood

177
Q

what is therapeutric drug monitoring?

A

montioring blood level of medication

blood drawn to coincide w/ trough (lowest blood level) or peak level (highest blood level)

178
Q

what is trough?

A

lowest blood level

179
Q

what is peak?

A

highest blood level

180
Q

what are blood cultures used for?

A

used to detect microorganisms in blood

E.X: pt w/ unknown fever

181
Q

what technique is used for blood cultures?

A

aseptic technique

182
Q

what color tubes are cold agglutinins collected in?

A

red topped tubes

183
Q

what is ABG?

A

arterial blood gas

measures levels of gas

184
Q

what is ACTH?

A

adrenocorticotropic hormone

diagnose disorders of the pituitary or adrenal glands

185
Q

what do you do with a ABG collection?

A

you must chill it (ice)

186
Q

what do you do w/ a bilirubin collection?

A

it’s light sensitive

amber colored tube or wrapped in tin foil, protect from light

187
Q

what do you do w/ lactid acid specimen?

A

you chill it (ice)

THINK: milk goes into fridge

188
Q

what do you do beta-carotene?

A

it’s light sensitive

amber colored tube or wrapped in tin foil, protect from light

THINK: carotene = pigment = UV

189
Q

what do you do w/ a pyruvate specimen?

A

you chill it (ice)

190
Q

what do you with a ACTH collection?

A

you chill it (ice)

191
Q

what do you do w/ Vitamin A & B6?

A

Vitamin A & B6

THINK: vitamins light sensitive (vitamin c in skincare)

192
Q

what do you do w/ gastrin collection?

A

you chill it (ice)

193
Q

what do you do w/ porphyrin collection?

A

it’s light sensitive

amber colored tube or wrapped in tin foil, protect from light

THINK: porphyrin helps hemoglobin function

194
Q

what do you do w/ parathryroid hormone test?

A

you chill it (ice)

THINK: hormones have to chill

195
Q

what size lancet is used for a dermal puncture on infants?

A

no more than 2mm

196
Q

where do you do a dermal puncture on infants?

A

medial & lateral areas of plantar surface of foot

197
Q

where do you NOT do a dermal puncture on infants?

A

do not use back of heel or arch of foot

198
Q

what does the lavender tube contain?

A

EDTA

199
Q

what is EDTA?
what color tube?

A

a anticoagulant
lavender tube

200
Q

how many times should lavender tube be inverted?

A

8-10 times

201
Q

what tube would you use for a RBC count?

A

lavender

202
Q

what tube would you use for a platelet count?

A

lavender

203
Q

what tube would you use for a WBC differential?

A

lavender

204
Q

what tube would you use for a hemocrit?

A

lavender

205
Q

what tube would you use for a ESR?

A

lavender

erythrocyte sedimentation rate = blood test that can reveal inflammatory activity in your body

hematology test = lavender

206
Q

what tube would you use for a sickle cell screening?

A

lavender

207
Q

what is ESR?

A

erythrocyte sedimentation rate

208
Q

what is in the light blue tube?

A

contains sodium citrate (anticoagulant)

209
Q

what is the light blue tube used for?

A

coagulation studies b/c it preserves coagulation factors

210
Q

how many times should the light blue tube be inverted?

A

3-4 times

211
Q

what does aPTT stand for?

A

activated partial thromboplastin time

212
Q

what does PTT stand for?

A

partial thromboplastin time

213
Q

what does FDP stand for?

A

fibrinogen degradation products

(FDPs) are the substances left behind when clots dissolve in the blood

214
Q

what does TT stand for?

A

thrombin time

215
Q

what does BT stand for?

A

bleeding time

216
Q

what does PT stand for?

A

prothrombin time (PT)

217
Q

what color tube should be used for a PT?

A

light blue

PT = prothrombin time

218
Q

what color tube should be used for a aPTT?

A

light blue

219
Q

what color tube should be used for a PTT?

A

light blue

220
Q

what color tube should be used for a FDP?

A

light blue

(FDPs) are the substances left behind when clots dissolve in the blood

221
Q

what color tube should be used for a TT?

A

light blue

222
Q

what color tube should be used for a BT?

A

light blue

BT = bleeding time

223
Q

what is inside the green tube?

A

contains Heparin (anticoagulant)

224
Q

green tubes are not used for __________ b/c it messes w/ blood smears

A

hematology

225
Q

green tubes are inverted how many times?

A

8-10 times

226
Q

green tubes are used for ______ tests

A

chemistry

227
Q

ammonia test should use what colored tube?

A

green

228
Q

carboxyhemoglobin test should use what colored tube?

A

green

carboxyhemoglobin test is used to diagnose carbon monoxide poisoning

229
Q

STAT electrolytes test should use what colored tube?

A

green

230
Q

what do gray tubes contain?

A
  • additives & anticoagulants (glucose preservative)
  • potassium oxalate
231
Q

how many times are gray tubes inverted?

A

8-10 times

232
Q

what does FBS mean?

A

fasting blood sugar

233
Q

what does GTT mean?

A

glucose tolerance test

234
Q

when collecting a FBS, what tube should be used?

A

gray

fasting blood sugar test (FBS

235
Q

when collecting a GTT, what tube should be used?

A

gray

236
Q

when collecting a blood alcohol level, what tube should be used?

A

gray

237
Q

when collecting lactic acid measurement, what tube should be used?

A

gray

238
Q

what are red & grey speckled top tubes also called?

A

tiger top tubes/serum separator tubes (SST)

239
Q

what do red & grey speckled top tubes have?

A

clot activators to speed up clotting

240
Q

what makes up clot activators in tiger topped tubes?

A

silicia & celite

241
Q

how many times should red/gray speckled top tube should be inverted?

A

5 times

242
Q

red/gray/tiger top/SST tubes are used for most ___________ tests

A

chemistry

THINK: chemistry, green comes after

243
Q

what do red tubes have?

A

nothing?

244
Q

how many times do you invert a red tube?

A

0 times, no need to invert

245
Q

what do yellow tubes contain?

A

SPS sodium polyanethol sulfonate (anticogulatant)

THINK: used for blood cultures

246
Q

yellow tubes are ___________

A

sterile

247
Q

what are yellow tubes used for?

A

cultures to check for microorganisms

248
Q

what tubes are used for thyroid studies?

A

speckled/tiger top tubes

NHA Phlebotomy Exam (7 decks)

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