Newton's Lectures Exam 1

Question 1

Name of the deformity that occurs when there is incomplete fusion of the upper lip along the midline

Answer 1

Cheiloschisis

Question 2

This occurs when there is incomplete fusion of the palatine shelves

Answer 2

palatoschisis (communication between oral and nasal cavities)

Question 3

What drug/toxin is linked to palatoschisis in:

1) Cats
2) sheep

Answer 3

1) Griseofulvin

2) Veratrum californicum

Question 4

Describe the pathogenesis of ingesting Veratrum californicum

Answer 4

plant contains steroidal alkaloids (jervine & cyclopamine) that inhibit hedgehog signaling pathway during development

Question 5

Name the potential outcome if a sheep eats Veratrum californicum on:

1) Day 14 of gestation
2) Days 17-19 of gestation
3) Days 28-31 of gestation

Answer 5

1) congenital deformities of head
2) tracheal deformations
3) shortened metatarsal and metacarpal bones

Question 6

Describe the difference between brachygnathia superior and inferior

Answer 6

Superior–short maxilla with normal mandible (bulldog)

Inferior–short mandible with normal maxilla (parrot mouth)

Question 7

What term is use to describe:

1) elongated mandibles
2) absence of a lower jaw

Answer 7

1) prognathia

2) agnathia

Question 8

Name the term that describes inflammation in the following areas:

1) lips
2) oral mucosa
3) tongue
4) gums
5) pharynx
6) tonsils

Answer 8

1) chelitis
2) stomatitis
3) glossitis
4) gingivitis
5) pharyngitis
6) tonsillitis

Question 9

A parapox viral disease of cattle that causes papule formation in the oral cavity, nares, and muzzle; ZOONOTIC!

Answer 9

Bovine papular stomatitis

Question 10

This is a zoonotic disease of sheep and goats where lesions appear on the corners of the mouth, udders, and around coronary bands

Answer 10

Contagious ecthyma (orf)

Question 11

A vesicular disease not caused by a virus?

Answer 11

Pemphigus vulgaris

Question 12

This is an oral disease of cats where proliferative lesions form on the glossopalatine arches

Answer 12

Feline plasma cell gingivitis (Feling lymphoplasmacytic stomatitis)

Question 13

This disease, though more common in cats, can affect siberian huskies and cause ulcerative lesions to form at the mucocutaneous junctions

Answer 13

Oral eosinophilic granuloma complex

Question 14

A dog with severe dental plaque may be at risk for this disease?

Answer 14

Chronic ulcerative paradental stomatitis

Question 15

The causative agent of oral necrobacillosis (calf diphtheria)?

Answer 15

Fusobacterium necrophorum

also causes foot rot in ruminants

Question 16

This bacteria can invade oral wounds and cause granulomatous inflammation and fibrosis in the deep tissues of the tongue

Answer 16

Actinobacillus lignieresii

wooden tongue

Question 17

Name disease and causative agent:

chronic granulomatous inflammation of the mandible; can have draining tracts with “sulfur granules”

Answer 17

Lumpy Jaw

Actinomyces bovis

Question 18

T/F: the causative agent of thrush is a common oral inhabitant

Answer 18

True (Candida albicans)

Question 19

Name two drugs which are known to induce gingival hyperplasia. Tx?

Answer 19

Amlodipine & cyclosporine

No need to treat; will resolve when drugs are stopped

Question 20

T/F: Thrush is NOT a primary disease

Answer 20

True! (secondary to debility or long-term antibiotic therapy)

Question 21

Describe the differences in squamous cell carcinoma behavior in dogs vs. cats

Answer 21

Dogs–commonly affects the tonsils and metastasizes

Cats–usually on the tongue and metastasis is more rare

Question 22

Which oral neoplasm appears aggressive from a histological standpoint but doesn’t behave aggressive and does not metastasize

Answer 22

Oral (extramedullary) plasmacytoma

Question 23

Name the two subclassifications of epulides; Which is more locally invasive and can lead to bone destruction?

Answer 23

1) Fibromatous epulis

2) Acanthomatous epuli (locally invasive)

Question 24

Define sialodenitis;

Name 4 things that can cause it

Answer 24

inflammation of salivary glands;

1) Rabies
2) distemper (dogs)
3) Strangles (horses)
4) Vitamin A deficiency

Question 25

Define: Ranula

Answer 25

dilation of the duct of the sublingual salivary gland

Question 26

How does a salivary mucocele (sialocele) form?

Answer 26

When a salivary duct is torn or ruptured, the salivary secretions drain into the subcutaneous tissues

Question 27

Which esophageal sphincter is affected in cricopharyngeal achalasia?

Answer 27

Upper esophageal sphincter (doesn’t relax properly)

Question 28

Name the 3 vascular structures that trap the esophagus in persistant right aortic arch

Answer 28

1) aorta
2) pulmonary artery
3) ductus arteriosus

Question 29

Name 2 important parasites of the esophagus

Answer 29

Gongylonema spp.

Spirocerca lupi

Question 30

Two neoplasms that can develop in dogs infected with spirocerca lupi

Answer 30

Fibrosarcoma

Osteosarcoma

Question 31

Name two mechanisms by which hypersecretion of acid could occur in the stomach

Answer 31

1) gastrinoma

2) mast cell tumors

Question 32

Name the 2 primary ways gastric ulcers form

Answer 32

1) hypersecretion of acid

2) injury to protective layer (epithelium) allowing back-diffusion of acid

Question 33

Describe 3 ways a pig’s diet can predispose to ulcer formation

Answer 33

1) diet contains too much corn (wheat and oats are better)
2) Food is fine & dry (moist and coarse is better)
3) diet contains too many unsaturated FAs

Question 34

Contrast primary and secondary gastric dilation in horses

Answer 34

Primary–>due to overeating (lush pastures, grain, excess water)

Secondary–>caused by gastric ulcers, neoplasia, pyloric stenosis, cribbing

Question 35

Describe the pathophysiology behind congeital aganglionic megacolon in foals

Answer 35

These foals have a mutation in the endothelin B receptor gene; a myenteric and submucosal plexus don’t develop, causing the affected bowel segments to not have any peristalsis

Question 36

Name 2 common locations that enteroliths get stuck in horses

Answer 36

1) pelvic flexure

2) transverse colon

Question 37

Differentiate:

Trichobezoars & phytobezoars

Answer 37

Tricho–hair ball

Phyto–plant fibers

Question 38

Concerning intussusception, what is the term given to the the piece of gut that is trapped; the part that’s doing the trapping?

Answer 38

Intussusceptum–trapped part

Intussuscipiens–enveloping part

Question 39

How can you differentiate true intussusception from post-mortem intussusception?

Answer 39

True–>enlarged, severely congested, and impossible to undo

Post-mortems aren’t discolored and can easily be pulled apart

Question 40

Causative agent of verminous arteritits

Answer 40

Strongylus vulgaris

Question 41

Differentiate volvulus and torsion

Answer 41

Volvulus–twisting on its mesenteric axis

Torsion–rotation along the long axis

Question 42

A common cause of PLE in dogs

Answer 42

Lymphangiectasis

Question 43

Name the 4 basic mechanisms of diarrhea

Answer 43

1) hypermotility
2) increased permeability
3) Hypersecretion
4) Malabsorption

Question 44

What 3 things influence the permeability of the gut wall?

Answer 44

1) pore size/mucosal integrity
2) osmotic factors
3) impaired lymphatic drainage

Question 45

This organism can cause hypersecretory diarrhea

Answer 45

ETEC (enterotoxigenic E. coli)

non-inflammatory diarrhea

Question 46

Main cause of diarrhea in rotavirus infections?

Answer 46

malabsorption/maldigestion due to enterocyte death and shortening of affected villi

Question 47

How do Clostridial toxins affect the gut?

Answer 47

causes enterocytes to undergo necrosis, they release from the basement membrane and slough into the lumen

Question 48

Causative agent of Johne’s disease?

Answer 48

Mycobacterium paratuberculosis