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Small Animal GI > GI Final--Cattley & Boothe > Flashcards

GI Final--Cattley & Boothe Flashcards

1
Q

3 components of the portal triad

A

portal venule
bile duct
hepatic artery

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2
Q

What is the idea of metabolic zonation of hepatocytes?

A

hepatocytes will vary in their functions and enzymes depending on their location along the gradient

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3
Q

4 functions of Kupffer cells

A

plasma protein turnover
clearance of endotoxin
erythrophagocytosis
phagocytosis of particulates (bacteria)

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4
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms by which jaundice can occur?

A

1) Overproduction (increased extravascular hemolysis)
2) decreased uptake, conjugation, and secretion (impaired liver function)
3) reduced outflow of bile (obstructed bile ducts)

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5
Q

Two major mechanisms of liver-associated ascites formation

A

portal hypertension (increased hydrostatic pressure)

decreased albumin production (decreased plasma oncotic pressure)

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6
Q

What are the 4 factors that contribute to CNS signs with hepatic encephalopathy

A

Ammonia elevation (increases glutamate and GABA)

endogenous benzodiazepine ligands from gut microbes can interact with GABA

astrocyte injury (ammonia related)

manganese–neurotoxic

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7
Q

Give the cause for each type of photosensitizaiton

1) Type 1
2) Type 2
3) Type 3

A

1) ingestion and deposition of preformed photoreactive pigments
2) congenital
3) liver failure

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8
Q

Which photodynamic pigment is involved in liver failure-associated photosensitization (type 3)

A

Phylloerythrin (PE)–produced from chlorophyll by GI bacteria and usually excreted in bile

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9
Q

Why are central lobular cells most susceptible to toxic drugs and chemicals?

A

they have the highest amount of CYP450 which activates toxins

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10
Q

What patterns of hepatocellular injury do we expect with infectious agents?

A

Random

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11
Q

4 patterns of hepatic fibrosis and what they are secondary to

A

diffuse (secondary to chronic parenchymal process)

biliary (portal inflammation)

postnecrotic (focally extensive necrosis)

centrilobular (congestive heart failure)

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12
Q

Prolonged/sustained increases in glucocorticoids are associated with?

A

glycogen accumulation

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13
Q

Concerning hepatic lipidosis, what are the 2 main categories of how it’s caused

A

1) physiological (dietary or adipose mobilization)

2) pathological (injury impairs utilization)

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14
Q

What type of shunt primarily impacts small breed dogs? what veins are usually anatomosed?

A

Extrahepatic congenital shunt;

portal vein and caudal vena cava OR azygous vein

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15
Q

Which type of shunt is seen in large breed dogs? what’s the cause?

A

Intrahepatic congenital shunt;

persistence of fetal ductus venosus

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16
Q

Thought they present similarly, how will congenital shunts and portal vein hypoplasia differ on clinical presentation?

A

Hepatic microvascular dysplasia WILL have portal hypertension and therefore, ascites

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17
Q

What type of hepatic necrosis presents with infectious canine hepatits

A

Centrilobular

different than most infectious agent which cause a random pattern

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18
Q

How does CAV-1 (infectious hepatitis) lead to DIC?

A

it likes to replicate in endothelial cells, and that damage leads to consumption of coag factors

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19
Q

Mutation of what gene in Bedlington Terriers predisposes them to copper storage hepatitis

A

Mutated COMMD1 gene

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20
Q

What is the function of the COMMD1 gene?

A

helps diret the ATP7B-Cu complex to the lysosome

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21
Q

The toxin associated with aflatoxicosis

A

Aflatoxin B1 (binds proteins, DNA, and RNA leading to cell injury and necrosis)

22
Q

4 histopathic changes seen in horses with pyrrolizidine alkaloid (PA) toxicity

A

hepatocyte loss
fibrosis
bile duct proliferation
megalocytosis

23
Q

These flukes reside in the bile ducts of sheep and cattle and lead to chronic cholangitis, liver atrophy, and poor body condition

A

Fasciola hepatica

24
Q

These flukes of sheep and cattle migrate through the parenchyma and cause extensive damage; they occasionally become encased in fibrotic cysts

A

Fascioloides magna

25
Q

Another name for:
1) Infection with Clostrium haemolyticum

2) infection with Clostridium novyi

A

1) bacillary hemoglobinuria

2) black disease

26
Q

Both baciallary hemoglobinuria and black disease have spores that can be activated by?

A

tissue injury

27
Q

2 causes of copper toxicosis in sheep

A

dietary excess
grazing Mb-deficient pastures

Mb usually binds copper in the gut to decrease it absorption

28
Q

Most common cause of EPI in

1) dogs
2) cats

A

1) juvenile acinar atrophy

2) chronic pancreatitis

29
Q

3 mechanisms of acute pancreatitis

A

1) obstruction of pancreatic ducts
2) direct injury to acinar cells
3) disturbed intracellular trafficking within acinar cells

30
Q

No matter the mechanism of acute pancreatitis, what is the key event?

A

activation on trypsin

31
Q

Which is associated with clinical signs:

1) gallbaldder mucocele
2) cystic mucinous hyperplasia

A

2) cystic mucinous hyperplasia

32
Q

Which radiographic view do you start with if GDV is suspected?

A

Right lateral (do a left if right only show dilation)

33
Q

During a gastropexy what layers s are being sutured together?

A

transversus abdominus

seromuscular layer of stomach

34
Q

3 things to evaluate to determine gastric viability

A

visible arterial pulsations
color of serosa
thickness of gastric wall

35
Q

With small intestinal surgery, you want to avoid which border?

A

mesenteric border—contains blood supply

36
Q

When there is luminal disparity do you:
1) make the larger segment smaller to match the small one
OR
2) make the smaller segment larger to match the big one

A

2) Make SMALLER LARGER

37
Q

Holding layer for intestines?

A

Submucosa

38
Q

What type of suture material is best for intestinal anastomosis

A

small, synthetic absorbable (i.e. 4-0 PDS)

39
Q

You should, if possible, incise _____ to the foreign body

A

proximal (orad)…closer to the mouth

40
Q

Which suture pattern should never be used for an anastomosis

A

360* simple continuous pattern (can have purse string effect)

41
Q

Primary complication with intestinal surgery?

A

Leakage

42
Q

How to definitively diagnose a PSS?

A

Ultrasound

43
Q

Biggest draw back for using suture material to attenuate a shunt?

A

doesn’t allow for gradual closure over time, which can cause acute portal hypertension

44
Q

how long should supportive therapy be continued after PSS surgery?

A

at least 2 months

*includes low protein diet, lactulose therpay, and antimicrobial therapy

45
Q

Which shunt type

1) extrahepatic OR
2) intrahepatic

offers a better prognosis?

A

Extrahepatic (easier to reach during surgery and more options for closure)

46
Q

Two important muscles of pelvic diaphragm

A 
levator ani (medial)
coccygeus muscle (lateral)
47
Q

Damage to this nerve can lead to fecal incontinence

A

caudal rectal nerve (supplies anal sphincter)

48
Q

Colopexy is used to treat ______

A

deviation of the colon

49
Q

Principle complication associated with perineal hernias?

A

Recurrence

50
Q

The preferred approach for rectal/anal neoplasia?

A

rectal eversion

51
Q

Rectal eversion is only for what type of neoplasms?

A

mucosal-based

Small Animal GI (5 decks)

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