New Questions Flashcards
How many virtual routers can GLBP support?
1024
If you need multivendor FHRP what do you use?
VRRP
What gigabit ethernet technology reaches the furthest without a repeater?
1000BASE-LX
What three L2 designs are used for the access layer? looped square loop free square looped U loop free U looped triangle loop-free triangle
Looped square
Looped triangle
Loop free U
What servers from the data center block need direct connection to all other blocks?
network mgmt servers
web server
AD server
dhcp server
network mgmt servers
- Data Center cable management with high server density, the options where:
- Top of Rack (X)
- End of Row (X)
Which module of enterprise contains the following: dns/http/smtp servers, firewall?
Internet connectivity
A campus network needs end-to-end QoS tools to manage traffic and ensure voice quality. Which three types of QoS tools are needed? (A) interface queuing and scheduling (B) congestion management (C) compression and fragmentation (D) bandwidth provisioning (E) traffic classification (F) buffer management
A, D, E
Which layers are usually collapsed in medium sized networks? Access Core Distribution DC Layer
Core
ISR features question
INSERT
VoIP configuration names
single site, centralized multisite, and distributed multisite
What IPT component supports QoS, PoE, VoIP? (A) Client endpoints (B) Call processing (C) Service applications (D) Voice-enabled Infrastructure
Voice-enabled infrastructure
What are the major benefits of using a VPN?
Flexibility, cost, and scalability
VDCS
INSERT
Which mechanisms are required to deploy QoS on an IP WAN? (A) queuing and scheduling (B) Call admission Control (C) traffic shaping (D) link efficiency techniques (E) traffic classification
Answer = B,C,D
What two devices are used in the teleworker solution?
880 router
ISR G2
Which one of these statements should the designer keep in mind when considering the advanced routing features?
A.
one-way router redistribution avoids the requirement for state or default routes.
B.
Redistribution, summarization, and filtering are most often applied between the campus core and enterprise edge.
C.
Filtering only occurs on the routing domain boundary using redistribution.
D.
Summarize routes at the core toward the distribution layer.
E.
The hierarchical flexibility of IPv6 addressing avoids the requirements for routing traffic reduction using aggregation.
Answer A is incorrect as a default route is still required Answer B & D are incorrect as Redistribution, summarization, and filtering are used in the Distribution Layer Cisco Press CCDA 640-864 Official Certification Guide Fourth Edition, Chapter 1, Page 36 37
Answer C is incorrect as route filter can occur at either a routing domain boundary or at a routing redistribution point. Cisco Press CCDA 640-864 Official Certification Guide Fourth Edition, Chapter Answer E is correct as IPv6 allow the aggregation (summarization) of routing prefixes to reduction of the number of routes in the global routing table. Cisco Press CCDA 640-864 Official Certification Guide Fourth Edition, Chapter 9
Note: Core Layer
The core layer is the network’s high-speed switching backbone that is crucial to corporate communications. It is also referred as the backbone. The core layer should have the following characteristics:
Distribution Layer
The network’s distribution layer is the isolation point between the network’s access and core layers. The distribution layer can have many roles, including implementing the following functions:
You can use several Cisco IOS Software features to implement policy at the distribution layer:
Route Filtering
Filtering of routes can occur on either a redistribution point or in the routing domain to prevent some parts of the network from accessing other sections of the network.
Filtering at a redistribution point provides the following:
Global Aggregatable IPv6 Address
Global aggregatable unicast addresses allow the aggregation of routing prefixes. This allows a reduction of the number of routes in the global routing table. These addresses are used in links to aggregate (summarize) routes upwards to the core in large organizations or to ISPs. Global aggregatable addresses are identified by the fixed prefix of 2000:/3. As shown in Figure 9-5, the format of the global aggregatable IPv6 address is a global routing prefix starting with binary 001, followed by the subnet ID and then the 64-bit interface identifier (ID). The device MAC address is normally used as the interface ID.
Which one of these statements is true about addressing redundancy within the WAN environment?
A.
The reliability and speed of DSL allow for cost savings by not including redundant links.
B.
CAMDM and dark fiber offer advanced redundancy features such as automatic backup and repair mechanism to cope system faults.
C.
An SLA is one way to eliminate the need for redundancy.
D.
The failure of a single SONET/SDH link or network element does not lead to failure of the entire network.
D
Which one of these statements is true concerning the enterprise data center?
A.
It can be located either at the enterprise campus or at a remote branch.
B.
Remote data center connectivity requirements align with the small office design.
C.
The data center designs will differ substantially depending on whether the location is on campus or remote.
D.
A remote branch with a data center becomes the enterprise campus.
C
According to Cisco, which four improvements are the main benefits of the PPDIOO lifecycle approach to network design? (Choose four)
A.
faster ROI
B.
improved business availability
C.
increased network availability
D.
faster access to applications and services
E.
lower total cost of network ownership
F.
better implementation team engagement
B C D E
Which two statements best describe an OSPF deployment? (Choose two)
A.
ABR provides automatic classful network boundary summarization.
B.
ABR requires manual configuration for classful network summarization
C.
External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from stub areas via ASBR.
D.
External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from regular areas or NSSA via ASBR.
E.
External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from regular areas or NSSA via ABR.
B D
A large enterprise requires sensitive information be transmitted over a public infrastructure. It requires confidentiality integrity, and authenticity. Which security solution best meets these requirements?
A.
Cisco IOS Firewall
B.
Intrusion Prevention
C.
IPSEC
D.
AAA
E.
Traffic Guard Protector
F.
SECURE CONECTIVITY
C
Which statement describes the recommended deployments of IPv4 addressing in the Cisco Network Architecture for the Enterprise?
A.
private addressing throughout with public addressing n the Internet Connectivity module
B.
private addressing throughout with public addressing n the Internet Connectivity and E- Commerce modules
C.
private addressing throughout with public addressing m the Internet Connectivity, E-Commerce, and Remote Access and VPN modules
D.
private addressing throughout with public addressing in the Internet Connectivity, E-Commerce, and Enterprise Branch modules
C
Which network scenario is static routing most appropriate?
A.
parallel WAN links
B.
IPSec VPN
C.
expanding networks
D.
hierarchical routing
B
Which of these is the equation used to derive a 64 Kbps bit rate?
A.
2 x 8 kHz x 4-bit code words
B.
8 kHz x 8-bit code words
C.
2 x 4-bit code words x 8 kHz
D.
2×4 kHz x 8-bit code words
D
Which three terms describe the primary functions of the distribution layer of the campus network design hierarchy? (Chose three)
A.
provides end-user connectivity
B.
provides high speed transport
C.
provides QoS services
D.
enforces security policies
E.
provides WAN connection
F.
connects access devices to the core backbone
C D F
Which codec does Cisco recommend tor WAN link?
A.
G.711
B.
G 723
C.
G 728
D.
G 729
D
Which two of these best describe the implementation of a WAN Backup design over the Internet? (Choose two.)
A.
a best-effort method
B.
bandwidth guaranteed based on interface configuration
C.
designed as an alternative to a failed WAN connection
D.
implemented with a point-to-point logical link using a Layer 2 tunnel
E.
requires no ISP coordination or involvement
A C`
Which three pieces of information should be documented for each step of each phase in a design implementation plan? (Choose three.)
A.
easy guidelines in case of failure
B.
estimated rollback time in case of failure
C.
simple implementation guidelines
D.
estimated implementation time
E.
design document references
F.
step description
D.
estimated implementation time
E.
design document references
F.
step description
Which three types of WAN topologies can be deployed in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Enterprise Edge WAN module? (Choose three.)
A.
ring
B.
full mesh
C.
partial mesh
D.
collapsed core
E.
star
F.
core
G.
edge
B C E
What are the modes of unicast reverse path forwarding?
A) Strict Mode B) Loose Mode C) VRF Mode D) Global E) Local
A B C
This:
SNMP – Defines how information is exchanged…
RMON – provides complete network visibility from physical to application
CDP – runs over data link layer…
Netflow – processes larger ACLs efficiently…
Other side.
There was a network topology diagram (configured with EIGRP and OSPF) and the question was on which router will the redistribution be performed.
– Router2 (between OSPF and
EIGRP areas).
Advantage of colocating datacenter
(Ans.improved redundancy)
Netflow can do what?
– processes larger ACLs efficiently…
What are three basic design approaches for packet-switched networks? (Choose three.)
Fully meshed, partially meshed, hub and spoke
- Which three parameters can you identify by using a traffic analyzer? (Choose three.)
protocol specification (IP protocol ID, TCP/UDP port number)
average bit rate and packet rate
QoS requirements
importance of the application
devices that use a specific protocol and their addresses
1,b,e
What are the benefits of PPDIOO
Lowers total cost of ownership
Increases network availability
Improves business agility
Speeds up access to applications and services
