CCDA Flashcards
Click and drag the QoS feature type on the left to the category of QoS mechanism on the right.
+ classification and marking: ACLs
+ congestion avoidance: WRED
+ traffic conditioners: CAR
+ congestion management: LLQ
+ link efficiency: LFI
Explanation
Classification is the process of partitioning traffic into multiple priority levels or classes of service. Information in the frame or packet header is inspected, and the frame’s priority is determined.Marking is the process of changing the priority or class of service (CoS) setting within a frame or packet to indicate its classification. Classification is usually performed with access control lists (ACL), QoS class maps, or route maps, using various match criteria.
Congestion-avoidance techniques monitor network traffic loads so that congestion can be anticipated and avoided before it becomes problematic. Congestion-avoidance techniques allow packets from streams identified as being eligible for early discard (those with lower priority) to be dropped when the queue is getting full. Congestion avoidance techniques provide preferential treatment for high priority traffic under congestion situations while maximizing network throughput and capacity utilization and minimizing packet loss and delay.
Weighted random early detection (WRED) is the Cisco implementation of the random early detection (RED) mechanism. WRED extends RED by using the IP Precedence bits in the IP packet header to determine which traffic should be dropped; the drop-selection process is weighted by the IP precedence.
Traffic conditioner consists of policing and shaping. Policing either discards the packet or modifies some aspect of it, such as its IP Precedence or CoS bits, when the policing agent determines that the packet meets a given criterion. In comparison, traffic shaping attempts to adjust the transmission rate of packets that match a certain criterion. Shaper typically delays excess traffic by using a buffer or queuing mechanism to hold packets and shape the flow when the source’s data rate is higher than expected. For example, generic traffic shaping uses a weighted fair queue to delay packets to shape the flow. Traffic conditioner is also referred to asCommitted Access Rate (CAR).
Congestion management includes two separate processes: queuing, which separates traffic into various queues or buffers, and scheduling, which decides from which queue traffic is to be sent next. There are two types of queues: the hardware queue (also called the transmit queue or TxQ) and software queues. Software queues schedule packets into the hardware queue based on the QoS requirements and include the following types: weighted fair queuing (WFQ), priority queuing (PQ), custom queuing (CQ), class-based WFQ (CBWFQ), and low latency queuing (LLQ).
LLQ is also known as Priority Queuing–Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (PQ-CBWFQ). LLQ provides a single priority but it’s preferred for VoIP networks because it can also configure guaranteed bandwidth for different classes of traffic queue. For example, all voice call traffic would be assigned to the priority queue, VoIP signaling and video would be assigned to a traffic class, FTP traffic would be assigned to a low-priority traffic class, and all other traffic would
be assigned to a regular class.
Link efficiency techniques, including link fragmentation and interleaving (LFI) and compression. LFI prevents small voice packets from being queued behind large data packets, which could lead to unacceptable delays on low-speed links. With LFI, the voice gateway fragments large packets into smaller equal-sized frames and interleaves them with small voice packets so that a voice packet does not have to wait until the entire large data packet is sent. LFI reduces and ensures a more predictable voice delay.
Match the Cisco security solution on the left to its function on the right.
+ protects the endpoints (desktops, laptops and servers): Cisco Security Agent
+ provides multiple functions as a high performance security appliance: ASA
+ prevents DDoS attacks: Anomaly Guard and Detector
+ provides Web-Based VPN services: SSL Service Module
+ prevents attacks inline: IPS Appliance
+ limits the number of frames transmitted before an acknowledgement is received: window size
+ reduces data size to save transmission time, optimizing the use of WAN bandwidth: data compression
+ allows network administrators to manage the varying demands generated by applications: queuing
+ discards packets or modifies some aspect of them (such as IP precedence): traffic policing
Place the PPDIOO Methodology in the correct order
Optimize Step 1
Design Step 2
Prepare Step 3
Implement Step 4
Operate Step 5
Plan Step 6
Step 1: Prepare
Step 2: Plan
Step 3: Design
Step 4: Implement
Step 5: Operate
Step 6: Optimize
Which of these is the equation used to derive a 64 Kbps bit rate?
A. 2×8 kHz x 4-bit code words
B. 8 kHz x 8-bit code words
C. 2 x 4-bit code words x 8 kHz
D. 2×4 kHz x 8-bit code words
Answer: D
Explanation
While the human ear can sense sounds from 20 to 20,000 Hz, and speech encompasses sounds from about 200 to 9000 Hz, the telephone channel was designed to operate at about 300 to 3400 Hz. This economical range carries enough fidelity to allow callers to identify the party at the far end and sense their mood. Nyquist decided to extend the digitization to 4000 Hz, to capture higher-frequency sounds that the telephone channel may deliver. Therefore, the highest frequency for voice is 4000 Hz. According to Nyquist theory, we must double the highest frequency, so 2x4kHz = 8kHz.
Each sample will be encoded into a 8-bit code. Therefore 8kHz x 8-bit code = 64 Kbps (notice about the unit Kbps: 8kHz = 8000 samples per second so 8000 x 8-bit = 64000 bit per second = 64 Kilobit per second = 64 Kbps)
Note:
Nyquist theory:
“When sampling a signal (e.g., converting from an analog signal to digital), the sampling frequency must be greater than twice the bandwidth of the input signal in order to be able to reconstruct the original perfectly from the sampled version.”
Which three of these are components of the North American Numbering Plan? (Choose three)
A. Numbering Plan Area
B. country code
C. prefix
D. zone
E. line number
F. trunk channel
Answer: A C E
Explanation
NANP has the address format of NXX-NXX-XXXX, where N is any number from 2 to 9 and X is any number from 0 to 9. The first three digits identify the numbering plan area and are commonly called the area code. The address is further divided into the office code (also known as prefix) and line number. The prefix is three digits, and the line number is four digits. The line number identifies the phone.
A customer has the following Enterprise Campus design requirements:
at least 10 Gbps of bandwidth
network runs of up to 40km
no concern for transmission medium cost
Which transmission medium should you recommend to this customer?
A. shielded twisted pair
B. unshielded twisted pair
C. multimode fiber
D. single-mode fiber
E. wireless
Answer: D
Explanation
Below is the comparison of transmission media
Twisted Pair: Up to 1Gbps Distance: 100m
Multimode: Up to 1Gbps Distance: 2 km (FE) 550 m (GE)
Single-mode fiber: 10 Gbps Distance: 90 km (FE) 40 km (GE)
Wireless: 54 Mbps (27Mbps effective) Distance: 500 m at 1 Mbps
(Reference from CCDA Official Exam Certification Guide. Some other books have different figures but we should answer it according to the “Official” book)
In the Cisco branch office design, what categorizes an office as large?
A. between 50 and 100 users and a three-tier design
B. between 50 and 100 users and a single-tier design
C. between 100 and 200 users and a two-tier design
D. between 100 and 200 users and a three-tier design
E. over 200 users and a two-tier design
Answer: D
Which layer is the distribution layer?
A. Layer A
B. Layer B
C. Layer C
D. Layers A and B form a consolidated core and distribution layer
Answer: B
Which two implementation plan principles best describe how to deal with potential failures?(Choose two)
A. A good implementation plan.
B. A successful test network test.
C. A test should be included at every step.
D. A detailed rollback procedure for each implementation step.
E. A table of failure points, rollback steps, and estimated rollback times.
Answer: C D
Refer to the exhibit.
A standard, Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. Which numbered box represents the distribution layer?
A. #1
B. #2
C. #3
D. #4
Answer: B
Which three pieces of information should be documented for each step of each phase in a design implementation plan? (Choose three)
A. step description
B. design document references
C. easy guidelines in case of failure
D. estimated implementation time
E. simple implementation guidelines
F. estimated rollback time in case of failure
Answer: A B D
Which three terms describe the primary functions of the distribution layer of the campus network design hierarchy? (Choose three)
A. provides end-user connectivity
B. provides high speed transport
C. provides QoS services
D. enforces security policies
E. provides WAN connections
F. connects access devices to the core backbone
Answer: C D F
Refer to the exhibit
Which two statements correctly identify the layers of the Enterprise Campus module? (Choose two)
A. A is the Server Farm layer and C is the Campus Core layer.
B. A is the Server Farm layer and D is the Building Access layer.
C. B is the Campus Core layer and C is the Building Distribution layer.
D. B is the Building Distribution layer and C is the Campus Core layer.
E. A is the Internet Connectivity layer and B is the Campus Core layer.
F. B is the Building Distribution layer and D is the Building Access layer.
Answer: B C
Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement accurately represents the characteristics of the core layer in this design?
A. QoS should be performed only in the core.
B. Load balancing should never be implemented or used in the core.
C. Access lists should be used in the core to perform packet manipulation.
D. It is acceptable to use a partial mesh in the core if it is connected to each device by multiple paths.
Answer: D
Refer to the exhibit
Which element or elements of the existing network infrastructure does this network map emphasize?
A. network services
B. network protocols
C. the OSI data link layer
D. network applications
Answer: D
Which two of the following are benefits of using a modular approach to network design? (Choose two)
A. improves flexibility
B. facilitates implementation
C. lowers implementation costs
D. improves customer participation in the design process
Answer: A B
What are the modules of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture?
+ Enterprise Campus module
+ Enterprise Edge module
+ Enterprise WAN module
+ Enterprise Data Center module
+ Enterprise Branch module
+ Enterprise Teleworker module
What is the purpose of the access layer, distribution layer, and core layers?
The purpose of the access layer is to grant end-user access to network resources.
The distribution layer provides aggregation for the access layer devices and uplinks to the core layer. It is also used to enforce policy within the network.
The core layer provides a high-speed, highly available backbone designed to switch packets as fast as possible.
Data link switching is typically used in which Enterprise Campus Module layer?
A. Server Farm
B. Campus Core
C. Building Access
D. Building Distribution
E. Internet Connectivity
Answer: C
Explanation
In the most general model, the Building Access layer uses Layer 2 switching (or Data link switching), and the Building Distribution layer uses multilayer switching.
Which two statements about designing the Enterprise Data Center Access submodule are correct? (Choose two)
A. Multiport NIC servers should each have their own IP address.
B. Layer 3 connectivity should never be used in the access layer.
C. Layer 2 connectivity is primarily implemented in the access layer.
D. Multiport NIC servers should never be used in the access layer.
E. Layer 2 clustering implementation requires servers to be Layer 2 adjacent.
Answer: C E
Explanation
Data link layer switches are often used to connect end devices in the access layer (while distribution and core layer typically use multilayer switches -> C is correct.
The use of Layer 2 clustering requires the servers to be Layer 2–adjacent -> E is correct.
Which two statements about the Enterprise Data Center Aggregation submodule are correct? (Choose two)
A. it provides Layer 4 7 services
B. it should never support STP
C. it is the critical point for control and application services
D. it typically provides Layer 2 connectivity from the data center to the core
Answer: A C
Explanation
This submodule provides Layer 4 through Layer 7 services through security and application service devices such as load-balancing devices, SSL offloading devices, firewalls, and IDS devices.
The Data Center Aggregation (distribution) layer aggregates the uplinks from the access layer to the Data Center Core layer and is the critical point for control and application services.
Which of the following is a modular component within the Cisco Enterprise Campus module in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture framework?
A. Teleworker
B. E-Commerce
C. Internet Connectivity
D. Building Distribution
E. WAN/MAN Site-to-Site VPN
Answer: D
DataQuirk is a web-based medical transcription company for exotic-animal veterinarians. The company recently added a third ISP for international business. They are organizing the enterprise network into a fully operational Enterprise Edge. To which two modules will the three ISPs be directly related? (Choose two)
A. PSTN
B. E-Commerce
C. WAN/MAN
D. Edge Distribution
E. Internet Connectivity
F. Remote Access VPN
Answer: B E
Explanation
The Enterprise Edge Module consists of the following modules:
+ E-commerce module: includes the devices and services necessary for an organization to provide e-commerce applications.
+ Internet connectivity module: provides enterprise users with Internet access.
+ VPN and remote access module: terminates VPN traffic and dial-in connections from external users.
+ WAN/ MAN and site-to-site module: provides connectivity between remote sites and the central site over various WAN technologies.
In these modules, only E-Commerce and Internet Connectivity modules will be directly related to the three ISPs.
Which statement decribes the recommended deployment of DNS and DHCP servers in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Model?
A. Place the DHCP and DNS servers in the Enterprise Campus Access layer and Enterprise branch.
B. Place the DHCP and DNS servers in the Enterprise Campus Server Farm layer and Enterprise branch.
C. Place the DHCP server in the Enterprise Campus Core layer and Remote Access/VPN module with the DNS server in the Internet Connectivity module.
D. Place the DHCP server in the Enterprise Campus Distribution layer with the DNS server in the Internet Connectivity module.
Answer: B
Explanation
For the Enterprise Campus, DHCP and internal DNS servers should be located in the Server Farm and they should be redundant. External DNS servers can be placed redundantly at the service provider facility and at the Enterprise branch.
Which two modules are found in the Enterprise Edge functional area of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture? (Choose two)
A. Teleworker
B. WAN/MAN
C. Server Farm
D. E-Commerce
E. Internet Connectivity
F. Remote Access/VPN
Answer: D E
Explanation
I am not sure about the answers! The Enterprise Edge functional area consists of four main modules: E-commerce module, Internet Connectivity module, Remote Access and VPN module, WAN and MAN and Site-to-Site VPN module. So B and F are correct too. Hope someone will describe this question clearly after taking the exam!
The Cisco Data Center Network Architecture comprises which two Cisco SONA layers? (Choose two)
A. Interactive Services
B. Business Applications
C. Network Infrastructure
D. Collaboration Applications
E. WAN/Internet
Answer: A C
Explanation
The SONA framework defines the following three layers:
+ Networked Infrastructure layer: Where all the IT resources interconnect across a converged network foundation. The objective of this layer is to provide connectivity, anywhere and anytime.
+ Interactive Services layer: Includes both application networking services and infrastructure services. This layer enables efficient allocation of resources to applications and business processes delivered through the networked infrastructure.
+ Application layer: Includes business applications and collaboration applications. The objective of this layer is to meet business requirements and achieve efficiencies by leveraging the Interactive Services layer.
Which three of these are layers in the Cisco SONA Architecture? (Choose three)
A. Application
B. Physical
C. Presentation
D. Integrated Transport
E. Interactive Services
F. Networked Infrastructure
Answer: A E F
A Cisco SONA architecture layer is described as follows:
The layer’s IT resources are interconnected across a converged network foundation.
The layer’s IT resources include servers, storage, and clients.
The layer represents how resources exist across the network.
The customer objective for the layer is to have anywhere/anytime connectivity.
Which Cisco SONA architecture layer is being described?
A. Application
B. Physical
C. Integrated Transport
D. Interactive Services
E. Networked Infrastructure
Answer: E
WHat does PPDIOO stand for?
Cisco has formalized a network’s life cycle into six phases: Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, and
Optimize.
At which stage in the PPDIOO process would you analyze a customer’s network in order to discover opportunities for network improvement?
A. Plan
B. Prepare
C. Design
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Design Assessment
Answer: C
Explanation
Design phase: Developing a detailed design is essential to reducing risk, delays, and the total cost of network deployments. A design aligned with business goals and technical requirements can improve network performance while supporting high availability, reliability, security, and scalability.
(Reference: http://www.ciscozine.com/2009/01/29/the-ppdioo-network-lifecycle/)
Which of these is the next step after the design phase in the PPDIOO process?
A. Order the equipment.
B. Develop a high-level migration plan.
C. Create a pilot or a prototype network.
D. Develop the implementation plan in as much detail as possible.
E. Identify which network management protocol will be used for which function.
Answer: D
Explanation
The Implement phase begins after the design phase has been finished. In this phase, new devices are installed, configured and tested according to the design specifications.
According to Cisco, which four improvements are the main benefits of the PPDIOO lifecycle approach to network design? (Choose four)
A. faster ROI
B. improved business agility
C. increased network availability
D. faster access to applications and services
E. lower total cost of network ownership
F. better implementation team engagement
Answer: B C D E
Explanation
The PPDIOO life cycle provides four main benefits:
+ It improves business agility by establishing business requirements and technology strategies.
+ It increases network availability by producing a sound network design and validating the network
operation.
+ It speeds access to applications and services by improving availability, reliability, security, scalability, and
performance.
+ It lowers the total cost of ownership by validating technology requirements and planning for infrastructure
changes and resource requirements.
(Reference: Cisco CCDA Official Exam Certification Guide, 3rd Edition)
Refer to the exhibit
During which stage of the PPDIOO process are implementation procedures prepared?
A. Prepare
B. Plan
C. Design
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Answer: C
Explanation
The Design phase includes network diagrams and an equipment list. The project plan is updated with more granular
information for implementation. This is the so-called “prepare implementation procedures”.
Which two design methodology steps relate, at least in part, to the implement phase of the PPDIOO process? (Choose two)
A. verifying the network
B. testing design
C. determining customer requirements
D. characterizing the existing network
E. establishing the organizational requirements
Answer: A B
Explanation
The Implement phase relates to implement new devices, including verifying and testing so A and B are the most suitable options.
“Determining customer requirements” occurs in the Prepare phase, which identifies requirements and builds a conceptual architecture.
“Characterizing the existing network” belongs to the Plan phase; this step is performed to determine the infrastructure necessary to meet the requirements.
In the “establishing the organizational requirements” step, the network topology is designed to meet the requirements and close the network gaps identified in the previous steps. This step is related to the Design Phase of the PPDIOO process.
Which two statements represent advantages that the top-down network design process has over the bottom-up network design process? (Choose two)
A. is able to provide the big picture
B. utilizes previous experience
C. takes less time to design a network
D. identifies appropriate technologies first
E. provides a design for current and future development
Answer: A E
Explanation
By incorporating the organization’s requirements, the top-down network design process provide the big picture that meets current and future requirements.
Which statement identifies a benefit obtained when using a top-down network design plan?
A. allows quick responses to design requests
B. facilitates design based on previous experience
C. incorporates customer organizational requirements
D. is less time-consuming than using a bottom-up approach
E. provides a more detailed picture of the desired network
Answer: C
Explanation
The top-down approach begins with the organization’s requirements before looking at technologies. Network designs are tested using a pilot or prototype network before moving into the Implement phase.
What are three valid methods of gathering information about an existing data network? (Choose three)
A. Use organizational input.
B. Perform a traffic analysis.
C. Analyze the user-mapping of a running application.
D. Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service guarantees.
E. Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the network.
F. Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer’s existing network.
Answer: A B E
Which of the following Cisco router services performs network traffic analysis to assist in documenting a customer’s existing network?
A. MRTG
B. NetMon
C. NetFlow
D. SNMP MIB compiler
Answer: C
You are performing an audit of a customer’s existing network and need to obtain the following router information:
interfaces
running processes
IOS image being executed
Which command should you use?
A. show version
B. show tech-support
C. show startup-config
D. show running-config
E. show processes memory
Answer: B
Which Cisco device management feature is most suited to metering network traffic and providing data for billing network usage?
A. BGP
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol
C. QoS
D. RMON
E. NetFlow
Answer: E
Which network management protocol allows a network device to have vendor-specific objects for management?
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMP v2
C. SNMP v3
D. MIB
E. RMON1
F. RMON2
Answer: D
Which three sources does a network designer use to collect information for characterizing an existing network? (Choose three)
A. staff input
B. visual inventory
C. network audit
D. traffic analysis
E. server statistics
Answer: A C D
Which two of these are functions of an access point in a Split MAC Network Architecture? (Choose two)
A. EAP Authentication
B. MAC layer encryption or decryption
C. 802.1Q encapsulation
D. Process probe response
Answer: B D
Lightweight access points are being deployed in remote locations where others are already operational.
The new access points are in a separate IP subnet from the wireless controller. OTAP has not been enabled at any locations.
Which two methods can the AP use to locate a wireless controller? (Choose two)
A. local subnet broadcast
B. NV-RAM IP address
C. DHCP
D. primary, secondary, tertiary
E. DNS
F. master
Answer: C E
Which two of the following statements represent a preferred wireless LWAPP implementation? (Choose two)
A. verify open ports for:
Layer 2 LWAPP on ethertype OxABAB
Layer 3 LWAPP on TCP 12222 and TCP 12223
B. verify open ports for:
Layer 2 LWAPP on ethertype OxBBBB
Layer 3 LWAPP on UDP 12222 and UDP 12223
C. verify open ports for:
Layer 2 LWAPP on ethertype OxBABA
Layer 3 LWAPP on UDP 12222 and TCP 12223
D. use of Layer 3 LWAPP is preferred over Layer 2 LWAPP
E. use of Layer 2 LWAPP is preferred over Layer 3 LWAPP
Answer: B D
A lightweight access point is added to a working network. Which sequence will it use to associate itself with a wireless LAN controller?
A. master, primary, secondary, tertiary, greatest AP capacity
B. greatest AP capacity, primary, secondary, tertiary, master
C. primary, secondary, tertiary, master, greatest AP capacity
D. primary, secondary, tertiary, greatest AP capacity, master
Answer: C
Which three of these describe the best practice for Cisco wireless outdoor Mesh network deployment? (Choose three)
A. RAP implemented with 20 to 32 MAP nodes
B. RAP implemented with 20 or fewer MAP nodes
C. mesh hop counts of 8 to 4
D. mesh hop counts of 4 or fewer
E. client access via 802.11 b/g and backhaul with 802.11 a
F. client access via 802.11 a and backhaul with 802.11 b/g
Answer: B D E
Which two of these represent a best practice implementation of a Split MAC LWAPP deployment in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two)
A. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a shared SSID which in turn maps to a common shared VLAN.
B. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID which in turn maps to a unique VLAN.
C. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID which in turn maps to a common shared VLAN.
D. 802.1 Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to the access point for translation into SSID(s).
E. 802.1 Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a wireless LAN controller for translation into SSID(s).
F. 802.1 Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a wireless LAN controller.
Then the 802.1 Q packet is encapsulated in LWAPP and sent to the access point for transmission over the SSID(s).
Answer: B E
Which two of these are required for wireless client mobility deployment when using a Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two)
A. assigned master controller
B. matching mobility group name
C. matching RF group name
D. matching RF power
E. matching security
F. matching RF channel
Answer: B E
Which two wireless attributes should be considered during a wireless site survey procedure? (Choose two)
A. encryption
B. channel
C. authentication
D. power
E. SSID
Answer: B D
Which two statements best describe Cisco Wireless LAN Guest Access in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network? (Choose two)
A. Dedicated guest VLANs are extended throughout the network to the access points for path isolation.
B. Dedicated guest VLANs are only extended to the wireless controllers in the network to ensure path isolation.
C. Dedicated guest access in the DMZ extends from the origination to the termination controllers without dedicated guest VLANs.
D. Guest tunnels can originate and terminate on any wireless controller platform.
E. Guest tunnels have limitations on which wireless controllers can originate the tunnel.
F. Guest tunnels have limitations on which wireless controllers can terminate the tunnel.
Answer: C F
Which type of trunk is required in order to connect a fax machine to a PBX?
A. inter-office
B. Foreign Exchange Office
C. central office
D. Foreign Exchange Station
E. intra-office
Answer: D
When monitoring voice traffic on a converged network, which are the three most important QoS characteristics to pay attention to? (Choose three)
A. delay
B. jitter
C. packet loss
D. bit error rate
E. CRTP hop configuration
Answer: A B C
Which H.323 protocol is responsible for the exchanging of capabilities and the opening and closing of logical channels?
A. H.225
B. H.245
C. RAS
D. RTCP
Answer: B
Which statement best describes Call Admission Control?
A. It extends QoS capabilities to protect voice from excessive data traffic.
B. It provides endpoint registration control.
C. It protects voice from voice.
D. It provides endpoint bandwidth control.
Answer: C
Which H.323 protocol monitors calls for factors such as packet counts, packet loss, and arrival jitter?
A. H.225
B. H.245
C. RAS
D. RTCP
Answer: D
Given a VoIP network with these attributes:
Codec: G.728
Bit rate: 16 Kbps
WAN Bandwidth: 256 Kbps
Packet Header: 6 bytes
Payload: 40 bytes
CRTP: Yes
How many calls can be made?
A. 7 calls
B. 8 calls
C. 13 calls
D. 14 calls
Answer: C
Which H.323 protocol controls call setup between endpoints?
A. H.225
B. H.245
C. RAS
D. RTCP
Answer: A
Refer to the exhibit.
Which module is the Enterprise WAN module?
A. Enterprise A
B. Enterprise B
C. Enterprise C
D. Enterprise D
E. Enterprise E
F. Enterprise F
Answer: C
Refer to the exhibit.
All primary links are T1 s. The customer wants to have a backup to each remote office from the Headquarters office. Which two types of backup links would be viable solutions? (Choose two)
A. VPDN
B. shadow SVC
C. dial backup routing
D. permanent secondary WAN link
Answer: C D
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements describe why Model A is the recommended design for routing between Building Distribution switches and Campus Core switches? (Choose two)
A. It uses timer-based non-deterministic convergence.
B. It is software-based, providing fast convergence to the remaining path.
C. Routes are not summarized from distribution to the core.
D. The Layer 3 redundant equal cost links support fast convergence.
E. A link or box failure does not require routing protocol convergence.
Answer: D E
Refer to the exhibit.
A standard Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. Which numbered box represents the core layer?
A. #1
B. #2
C. #3
D. #4
E. #5
Answer: C
Drag the data center property on the left to the design aspect on the right it is most apt to affect
Answer:
Space: amount of racks, equipment, cabling, people
Weight load: rack servers vs blade servers
Power: variability of computing load, computing power and memory requirements
Cooling: arranging equipment racks face-to-face or back-to-back
Cabling: abundant, variable, well organized and easy to maintain
Security: disasters, fire suppression and alarm systems
Explanation
The data center space includes number of racks for equipment that will be installed. Other factor needs to be considered is the number of employees who will work in that data center.
Rack servers are low cost and provide high performance, unfortunately they take up space and consume a lot of energy to operate. Blade servers provide similar computing power when compared to rack mount servers, but require less space, power, and cabling. The chassis in most blade servers allows for shared power, Ethernet LAN, and Fibre Channel SAN connections, which reduce the number of cables needed.
The power in the data center facility is used to power cooling devices, servers, storage equipment, the network, and some lighting equipment. In server environments, the power usage depends on the computing load place on the server. For example, if the server needs to work harder by processing more data, it has to draw more AC power from the power supply, which in turn creates more heat that needs to be cooled down.
Cooling is used to control the temperature and humidity of the devices. The cabinets and racks should be arranged in the data center with an alternating pattern of “cold” and “hot” aisles. The cold aisle should have equipment arranged face to face, and the hot aisle should have equipment arranged back to back. In the cold aisle, there should be perforated floor tiles drawing cold air from the floor into the face of the equipment. This cold air passes through the equipment and flushes out the back into the hot aisle. The hot aisle does not have any perforated tiles, and this design prevents the hot air from mixing with the cold air.
The cabling in the data center is known as the passive infrastructure. Data center teams rely on a structured and well-organized cabling plant. It is important for cabling to be easy to maintain, abundant and capable of supporting various media types and requirements for proper data center operations.
Fire suppression and alarm systems are considered physical security and should be in place to protect equipment and data from natural disasters and theft.
Drag the WAN characteristic on the left to the branch office model where it would most likely be used on the right
Answer:
Small Office:
+ redundant links
+ internet deployment model
Medium Office:
+ redundant devices
+ private WAN deployment
Large Office:
+ MPLS deployment model
+ redundant links and devices
Explanation
Small Office:
The small office is recommended for offices that have up to 50 users. The Layer 3 WAN services are based on the WAN and Internet deployment model. A T1 is used for the primary link, and an ADSL secondary link is used for backup.
Medium Office:
The medium branch design is recommended for branch offices of 50 to 100 users. Medium Offices often use redundancy gateway services like Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) or Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP).
Private WAN generally consists of Frame Relay, ATM, private lines, and other traditional WAN connections. If security is needed, private WAN connections can be used in conjunction with encryption protocols such as Digital Encryption Standard (DES), Triple DES (3DES), and Advanced Encryption Standard (AES). This technology is best suited for an enterprise with moderate growth outlook where some remote or branch offices will need to be connected in the future.
Dual Frame Relay links in medium office provide the private WAN services, which are used to connect back to the corporate offices via both of the access routers.
Large Office:
The large office supports between 100 and 1000 users. The WAN services use an MPLS deployment model with dual WAN links into the WAN cloud -> MPLS & redundant links.
(Reference: CCDA 640-864 Official Cert Guide)
Drag the security provision on the left to the appropriate network module on the right
Answer:
Access:
+ Protect network services including DHCP, ARP, and IP spoofing protection
+ Protect against inadvertent loops
Distribution:
+ Protect the endpoints using network based intrusion prevention
+ Protect the infrastructure using NFP best practices
Core:
+ Does not perform security functions to mitigate transit threats
+ Filter and rate-limit control plane traffic
Explanation
Rate limiting controls the rate of bandwidth that incoming traffic is using, such as ARPs and DHCP requests.
Access layer:
Some security measures used for securing the campus access layer, including the following:
* Securing the endpoints using endpoint security software
* Securing the access infrastructure and protecting network services including DHCP, ARP, IP spoofing protection and protecting against inadvertent loops using Network Foundation Protection (NFP) best practices and Catalyst Integrated Security Features (CISF).
Distribution layer:
Security measures used for securing the campus distribution layer including the following:
* Protecting the endpoints using network-based intrusion prevention
* Protection the infrastructure using NFP best practices
Core layer:
The primary role of security in the enterprise core module is to protect the core itself, not to apply policy to mitigate transit threats traversing through the core.
The following are the key areas of the Network Foundation Protection (NFP) baseline security best practices applicable to securing the enterprise core:
* Infrastructure device access—Implement dedicated management interfaces to the out-of-band (OOB) management network, limit the accessible ports and restrict the permitted communicators and the permitted methods of access, present legal notification, authenticate and authorize access using AAA, log and account for all access, and protect locally stored sensitive data (such as local passwords) from viewing and copying.
* Routing infrastructure—Authenticate routing neighbors, implement route filtering, use default passive interfaces, and log neighbor changes.
* Device resiliency and survivability—Disable unnecessary services, filter and rate-limit control-plane traffic, and implement redundancy.
* Network telemetry—Implement NTP to synchronize time to the same network clock; maintain device global and interface traffic statistics; maintain system status information (memory, CPU, and process); and log and collect system status, traffic statistics, and device access information.
Drag the Campus Layer Design on the left to the appropriate location on the right
Answer:
Access:
+ routing boundary (dynamic, summarization, static)
+ the most feature-rich parts of the campus network
Distribution:
+ enforces policy within the network
+ provide security, QoS, and IP multicast to network
Core:
+ high level of availability, scalability and fast convergence
+ provides a limited set of services
Explanation
Campus Access Layer Network Design
The access layer is the first tier or edge of the campus, where end devices such as PCs, printers, cameras, Cisco TelePresence, etc. attach to the wired portion of the campus network. The wide variety of possible types of devices that can connect and the various services and dynamic configuration mechanisms that are necessary make the access layer one of the most feature-rich parts of the campus network.
Campus Distribution Layer
The campus distribution layer provides connectivity to the enterprise core for clients in the campus access layer. It aggregates the links from the access switches and serves as an integration point for campus security services such as IPS and network policy enforcement.
Distribution layer switches perform network foundation technologies such as routing, quality of service (QoS), and security.
Core Layer
The core layer provides scalability, high availability, and fast convergence to the network. The core layer is the backbone for campus connectivity, and is the aggregation point for the other layers and modules in the Cisco Enterprise Campus Architecture. The core provides a high level of redundancy and can adapt to changes quickly. Core devices are most reliable when they can accommodate failures by rerouting traffic and can respond quickly to changes in the network topology. The core devices implement scalable protocols and technologies, alternate paths, and load balancing. The core layer helps in scalability during future growth.
The campus core is in some ways the simplest yet most critical part of the campus. It provides a very limited set of services and is designed to be highly available and operate in an “always-on” mode. In the modern business world, the core of the network must operate as a non-stop 7x24x365 service.
Note:
It is a difficult question! Some characteristics are present at more than one layer so it is difficult to classify correctly. For example, a Cisco site says:
“The campus distribution layer acts as a services and control boundary between the campus access layer and the enterprise core. It is an aggregation point for all of the access switches providing policy enforcement, access control, route and link aggregation, and the isolation demarcation point between the campus access layer and the rest of the network.”
It means that the “routing boundary” should belong to the Distribution Layer instead of Access Layer. But the Distribution Layer also “enforces policy within the network” & “provide security, QoS, and IP multicast to network”.
After a lot of research, I decide to put the “routing boundary” to the Access Layer because this feature seems to be at the border of Access & Distribution layers so we can choose either. The “provide security, QoS, and IP multicast to network” features mainly belong to the Distribution layer (the Official 640-864 CCDA mentions about QoS, Security filtering & Broadcast or multicast domain definition in the Distribution layer)
Drag the WAN technology on the left to the most appropriate category on the right
Answer:
Leased:
+ TDM
+ SONET
Shared:
+ Frame-Relay
+ MPLS
Explanation
TDM & SONET are circuit-based so they are leased-line while Frame-Relay & MPLS are shared-circuit or packet-switched WAN
Drag the technology on the left to the type of enterprise virtualization where it is most likely to be found on the right
Answer:
Network Virtualization:
+ VLAN
+ vPC
+ VRF
Device Virtualization:
+ ASA firewall context
+ IPS
+ VDC
Explanation
Network virtualization encompasses logical isolated network segments that share the same physical infrastructure. Each segment operates independently and is logically separate from the other segments. Each network segment appears with its own privacy, security, independent set of policies, QoS levels, and independent routing paths.
Here are some examples of network virtualization technologies:
* VLAN: Virtual local-area network
* VSAN: Virtual storage-area network
* VRF: Virtual routing and forwarding
* VPN: Virtual private network
* vPC: Virtual Port Channel
Device virtualization allows for a single physical device to act like multiple copies of itself. Device virtualization enables many logical devices to run independently of each other on the same physical piece of hardware. The software creates virtual hardware that can function just like the physical network device. Another form of device virtualization entails using multiple physical devices to act as one logical unit.
Here are some examples of device virtualization technologies:
* Server virtualization: Virtual machines (VM)
* Cisco Application Control Engine (ACE) context
* Virtual Switching System (VSS)
* Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance (ASA) firewall context
* Virtual device contexts (VDC)
Drag the network function on the left to the functional area or module where it is most likely to be performed in the enterprise campus infrastructure on the right
Enterprise Campus: enables intelligent route and switch, high availability resilient multilayer design and integrated security
Enterprise Edge: aggregates connectivity to voice, video, and data outside the enterprise with Qos and security
E-Commerce: supports application traffic through the Internet, initiated outside the enterprise network
Internet Connectivity: provides internal users with external HTTP, FTP, SMTP and DNS connectivity
Remote Access and VPN: terminates traffic that is forwarded by the Internet connectivity module
Data Center: enables service-oriented architectures, virtualization and secure computing with load balancing, redundancy
Access:
+ Protect network services including DHCP, ARP, and IP spoofing protection
+ Protect against inadvertent loops
Distribution:
+ Protect the endpoints using network based intrusion prevention
+ Protect the infrastructure using NFP best practices
Core:
+ Does not perform security functions to mitigate transit threats
+ Filter and rate-limit control plane traffic
Drag the network characteristic on the left to the design method on the right which will best ensure redundancy at the building distribution layer
Answer:
Layer 2 between distribution and access layers, with a Layer 3 link between the distribution switches:
FHRP for convergence, no VLANs span between access layer switches across the distribution switches
Layer 3 between distribution and access layers, with a Layer 3 link between the distribution switches:
Support Layer 2 VLANs spanning multiple access layer switches across the distribution switches
VSS: Convergence (FHRP) is not an issue
Click and drag the QoS feature type on the left to the category of QoS mechanism on the right.
Answer:
+ classification and marking: ACLs
+ congestion avoidance: WRED
+ traffic conditioners: CAR
+ congestion management: LLQ
+ link efficiency: LFI
Explanation
Classification is the process of partitioning traffic into multiple priority levels or classes of service. Information in the frame or packet header is inspected, and the frame’s priority is determined.Marking is the process of changing the priority or class of service (CoS) setting within a frame or packet to indicate its classification. Classification is usually performed with access control lists (ACL), QoS class maps, or route maps, using various match criteria.
Congestion-avoidance techniques monitor network traffic loads so that congestion can be anticipated and avoided before it becomes problematic. Congestion-avoidance techniques allow packets from streams identified as being eligible for early discard (those with lower priority) to be dropped when the queue is getting full. Congestion avoidance techniques provide preferential treatment for high priority traffic under congestion situations while maximizing network throughput and capacity utilization and minimizing packet loss and delay.
Weighted random early detection (WRED) is the Cisco implementation of the random early detection (RED) mechanism. WRED extends RED by using the IP Precedence bits in the IP packet header to determine which traffic should be dropped; the drop-selection process is weighted by the IP precedence.
Traffic conditioner consists of policing and shaping. Policing either discards the packet or modifies some aspect of it, such as its IP Precedence or CoS bits, when the policing agent determines that the packet meets a given criterion. In comparison, traffic shaping attempts to adjust the transmission rate of packets that match a certain criterion. Shaper typically delays excess traffic by using a buffer or queuing mechanism to hold packets and shape the ?ow when the source’s data rate is higher than expected. For example, generic traffic shaping uses a weighted fair queue to delay packets to shape the flow. Traffic conditioner is also referred to as Committed Access Rate (CAR).
Congestion management includes two separate processes: queuing, which separates traffic into various queues or buffers, and scheduling, which decides from which queue traffic is to be sent next. There are two types of queues: the hardware queue (also called the transmit queue or TxQ) and software queues. Software queues schedule packets into the hardware queue based on the QoS requirements and include the following types: weighted fair queuing (WFQ), priority queuing (PQ), custom queuing (CQ), class-based WFQ (CBWFQ), and low latency queuing (LLQ).
LLQ is also known as Priority Queuing–Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (PQ-CBWFQ). LLQ provides a single priority but it’s preferred for VoIP networks because it can also configure guaranteed bandwidth for different classes of traffic queue. For example, all voice call traffic would be assigned to the priority queue, VoIP signaling and video would be assigned to a traffic class, FTP traffic would be assigned to a low-priority traffic class, and all other traffic would
be assigned to a regular class.
Link efficiency techniques, including link fragmentation and interleaving (LFI) and compression. LFI prevents small voice packets from being queued behind large data packets, which could lead to unacceptable delays on low-speed links. With LFI, the voice gateway fragments large packets into smaller equal-sized frames and interleaves them with small voice packets so that a voice packet does not have to wait until the entire large data packet is sent. LFI reduces and ensures a more predictable voice delay.
Click and drag the Cisco Self-Defending Network term on the left to the SDN description on the right. Not all terms will be used.
Answer:
+ provides secure network access, isolates and controls infected devices attempting access: Trust and Identity Management
+ uses encryption and authentication to provide secure transport across untrusted networks: Secure Connectivity
+ uses security integrated into routers, switches, and appliances to defend against attacks: Threat Defense
+ integrates security into the network to identify, prevent, and adapt to threats: Cisco Self-Defending Network
Explanation
Trust and identity management solutions provide secure network access and admission at any point in the network and isolate and control infected or unpatched devices that attempt to access the network. If you are trusted, you are granted access.
We can understand “trust” is the security policy applied on two or more network entities and allows them to communicate or not in a specific circumstance. “Identity” is the “who” of a trust relationship.
The main purpose of Secure Connectivity is to protect the integrity and privacy of the information and it is mostly done by encryption and authentication. The purpose of encryption is to guarantee confidentiality; only authorized entities can encrypt and decrypt data. Authentication is used to establish the subject’s identity. For example, the users are required to provide username and password to access a resource…
Match the Cisco security solution on the left to its function on the right.
Answer:
+ protects the endpoints (desktops, laptops and servers): Cisco Security Agent
+ provides multiple functions as a high performance security appliance: ASA
+ prevents DDoS attacks: Anomaly Guard and Detector
+ provides Web-Based VPN services: SSL Service Module
+ prevents attacks inline: IPS Appliance
limits the number of frames transmitted before an acknowledgement is received: window size
reduces data size to save transmission time, optimizing the use of WAN bandwidth: data compression
allows network administrators to manage the varying demands generated by applications: queuing
discards packets or modifies some aspect of them (such as IP precedence): traffic policing
Agent: generate traps of events
MIB: store information about network objects
SNMP: management transport mechanism
Manager: periodically collects object information
Explanation
The SNMP system consists of three parts: SNMP manager, SNMP agent, and MIB.
The agent is the network management software that resides in the managed device. The agent gathers the information and puts it in SNMP format. It responds to the manager’s request for information and also generates traps.
A Management Information Base (MIB) is a collection of information that is stored on the local agent of the managed device. MIBs are databases of objects organized in a tree-like structure, with each branch containing similar objects
