Book Questions Flashcards
- Which are the three Cisco network architectures for the enterprise?
Hierarchical
Borderless
Integrated
Data center/virtualization
OSI model
Collaboration
B, D, and F. Collaboration, data center/virtualization, and borderless network are the three architectures for the enterprise.
- Which technology forces affect decisions for the enterprise network?
Removal of borders
Virtualization
Growth of applications
10GigEthernet
Regulation
ROI
Competitiveness
A, B, C. Removal of borders, virtualization, and growth of applications are technology forces.
Network resiliency and control occurs in which layer of the borderless network architecture?
Policy and Control
Borderless Network Services
Borderless User Services
Connection Management
B. Network resiliency and control occurs in the Network Services layer.
Presence occurs in which collaboration architecture layer?
Communication and Collaboration
Collaboration Services
Infrastructure
Media Services
B. Presence occurs under Collaboration Services.
Which of the following is the correct order of the six phases of PPDIOO?
Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, Optimize
Plan, Prepare, Design, Implement, Operate, Optimize
Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Optimize, Operate
Plan, Prepare, Design, Implement, Optimize, Operate
A. The correct order is Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, Optimize.
The PPDIOO design methodology includes which steps? (Select all that apply.)
Identify customer requirements.
Design the network topology.
Characterize the network.
Optimize the network.
Operate the network.
Implement the network.
Prepare and plan.
A, B, C. The PPDIOO methodology has three steps.
What are the three primary sources of information in a network audit?
CIO, network manager, network engineer
Network manager, management software, CDP
Network discovery, CDP, SNMP
Existing documentation, management software, new management tools
D. The primary sources of network audits are existing documentation, management software, and new management tools.
Which design solution states that a design must start from the application layer and finish in the physical layer?
OSI model
PPDIOO
Hierarchical architecture
Top-down
D. The top-down design approach starts the design from the application layer.
Budget and personnel limitations are examples of what?
Organization requirements
Organization constraints
Technical goals
Technical constraints
B. The examples are organization constraints.
Improving network response time and reliability are examples of what?
Organization requirements
Organization constraints
Technical goals
Technical constraints
C. The examples are technical goals.
List the PPDIOO phases in order.
Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, Optimize.
Which business forces affect decisions for the enterprise network?
Removal of borders
Virtualization
Growth of applications
10GigEthernet
Regulation
ROI
Competitiveness
E, F, G. Regulation, ROI, and competitiveness are business forces.
Which design methodology step is important for identifying organizational goals?
Identify customer requirements
Characterize the existing network
Design the network topology and solution
Examine the architecture
Validate the design
Obtain the ROI
A. Identify customer requirements.
What needs to be obtained prior to designing the network?
Expected ROI
Organizational and technical goals
Technical constraints
Bill of materials
Existing and new network applications
B, C, and E
Match each PPDIOO phase with its description.
Implement
Optimize
Design
Prepare
Operate
Plan
Establish requirements
Gap analysis
Provides high-availability design
Installation and configuration
Day to day
Proactive management
i = D, ii = F, iii = C, iv = B, v = E, vi = A
Which borderless architecture provides mobility?
Policy
Network services
User services
Connection management
Control services
C. The user services architecture provides mobility, performance, and security.
Which are the three steps in PPDIOO design methodology?
Reviewing the project cost
Designing the network topology and solution
Characterizing the network
Identifying customer requirements.
Validating the design
B, C, and D
Match each infrastructure service with its description.
Identity
Mobility
Storage
Compute
Security
Voice/collaboration
Access from a remote location
Improved computational resources
Unified messaging
AAA, NAC
Storage of critical data
Secure communications
i = D, ii = A, iii = E, iv = B, v = F, vi = C
A company location is used to test a new VoIP solution. What is this type of test called?
Prototype
Pilot
Implementation
New
B. A pilot site is an actual live location for testing.
An isolated network is created to test a new design. What is this type of test called?
Prototype
Pilot
Implementation
New
A. A prototype network is a subset of the design in an isolated environment.
NBAR, NetFlow, and EtherPeek are examples of what?
Network audit tools
Network analysis tools
SNMP tools
Trending tools
B
Monitoring commands, CiscoWorks, and WhatsUP are examples of what?
Network audit tools
Network analysis tools
SNMP tools
Trending tools
A. Monitoring commands are not SNMP tools
Which of the following are technical constraints? (Select all that apply.)
Existing wiring
Existing network circuit bandwidth
Improving the LAN’s scalability
Adding redundancy
A and B
Which of the following are technical goals? (Select all that apply.)
Existing wiring
Existing network circuit bandwidth
Improving the LAN’s scalability
Adding redundancy
C and D. The other answers are technical constraints.
Which of the following are organizational goals? (Select all that apply.)
Improving customer support
Budget has been established
Increasing competitiveness
Completion in three months
Reducing operational costs
Network personnel are busy
A, C, and E
Which of the following are organizational constraints? (Select all that apply.)
Improving customer support
Budget has been established
Increasing competitiveness
Completion in three months
Reducing operational costs
Network personnel are busy
B, D, and F. The other answers are organizational goals.
What components are included in the design document? (Select four.)
IP addressing scheme
Implementation plan
List of Layer 2 devices
Design requirements
Selected routing protocols
List of Layer 1 devices
A, B, D, E. Answers C and F are not usually included in the design document.
Match each design document section with its description.
Introduction
Design requirements
Existing Network Infrastructure
Design
Proof of Concept
Implementation Plan
Appendix
Detailed steps
Current diagram and configuration
Organizational requirements
Goals
Pilot
New logical topology
Supporting information
i = D, ii = C, iii = B, iv = F, v = E, vi = A, vii = G
The network health analysis is based on what information?
The number of users accessing the Internet
The statements made by the CIO
Statistics from the existing network
The IP addressing scheme
C. The network health analysis is based on statistics obtained from the existing network.
While performing a network audit, you encounter a Frame Relay WAN segment running at a sustained rate of 75 percent from 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. What do you recommend?
Nothing. The daily 24-hour average rate is still 45 percent.
Change from Frame Relay to MPLS.
Increase the provisioned WAN bandwidth.
Deny VoIP calls from 9 a.m. to 5 a.m.
C. WAN circuits with sustained utilization of more than 70 percent should have their provisioned bandwidth increased.
What information is included in the network audit report? (Select all that apply.)
Network device list
IOS versions
Router models
Interface speeds
WAN utilization
A, B, C, D, E. All these items are included in a network audit report.
Which three tasks are part of characterizing the existing network?
Speaking with the CIO
Using traffic analysis
Automated auditing of the network using tools
Collect information
Obtaining organizational chart
Defining organizational goals
B, C, and D
Which command provides the average CPU of a Cisco router?
show cpu
show processes cpu
show processes memory
show cpu utilization
show cpu average
B
Which parameters can be obtained by the use of a traffic analyzer?
Application importance
QoS requirements
Devices using a specific protocol
IP addresses of devices and TCP/UDP port number
Average bit rate and packet rate
C, D, and E
Which commands provide information about individual applications, protocols, or flows? (Choose three.)
show process cpu
show ip interface
show ip cache flow
show ip nbar protocol-discovery
show process memory
show interface application
B, C, and D
What is used to create the documentation of the existing network?
Router show commands
Network audit, documentation, and traffic analysis tools
Audit tools
Existing documentation and input from organization
B
What is the sequence for the stages of top-down design?
Identify customer requirements.
Define upper OSI layers.
Gather additional information.
Choose underlying technology.
Which are potential scopes for a network design project? (Choose three.)
Network layer redundancy
Campus upgrade
Data link layer redundancy
Network redesign
WAN upgrade
Application upgrade
B, D, and E
A credit card company network is being designed. Secure transactions are emphasized throughout the initial requirements. Redundant links are required to reduce network outages. What is the order of importance of the following design issues?
IP addressing design
Physical topology design
Network modules
Security design
C-1, A-2, B-3, D-4. Taking a top-down approach the order of importance is security design, IP addressing (network layer) design, physical topology design, and then network modular design.
Which types of tools are used during the network design process?
Network management tools
Network trending tools
Network modeling tools
Network simulation and testing tools
Network implementation tools
C and D
Which four items should be present in the implementation plan?
Implementation description
Estimated time to implement
Reference to design document
Rollback procedure
Estimated cost of implementation
Application profiles
A, B, C, and D
A new design uses IPsec for the WAN. Which approach should be used to verify the design?
Live network
Pilot network
Prototype network
Cable network
Internet network
C
Which three is included in the design document?
Design details
Design requirements
Current cable runs
List of Layer 2 devices
Implementation plan
A, B, and E
In the hierarchical network model, which layer is responsible for fast transport?
Network
Core
Distribution
Access
B. The core layer of the hierarchical model is responsible for fast transport.
Which Enterprise Architecture model component interfaces with the service provider (SP)?
Campus infrastructure
Access layer
Enterprise edge
Edge distribution
C. The enterprise edge consists of e-commerce, Internet connectivity, VPN/remote access, and WAN modules. The enterprise edge modules connect to SPs.
In the hierarchical network model, at which layer do security filtering, address aggregation, and media translation occur?
Network
Core
Distribution
Access
C. The distribution layer of the hierarchical model is responsible for security filtering, address and area aggregation, and media translation.
Which of the following is/are method(s) of workstation-to-router redundancy in the access layer?
AppleTalk Address Resolution Protocol (AARP)
Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)
Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
Answers B and C
Answers A, B, and C
D. HSRP and VRRP provide default gateway redundancy.
The network-management module has tie-ins to which component(s)? Campus infrastructure
Server farm
Enterprise edge
SP edge
Answers a and b
Answers a, b, and c
Answers a, b, c, and d
F. The network management module monitors all components and functions except the SP edge.
Which of the following is an SP edge module in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model? Public switched telephone network (PSTN) service
Edge distribution
Server farm
Core layer
A. The SP edge includes Internet, PSTN, and WAN modules.
In which module would you place Cisco Unified Communications Manager (CUCM)? Campus core
E-commerce
Server farm
Edge distribution farm
C. The server farm hosts campus servers including Cisco CallManager servers.
High availability, port security, and rate limiting are functions of which hierarchical layer?
Network
Core
Distribution
Access
D. The access layer functions are high availability, port security, rate limiting, ARP inspection, virtual access lists, and trust classification.
True or false: The core layer of the hierarchical model does security filtering and media translation.
False
True or false: The access layer provides high availability and port security.
True
You add Communications Manager to the network as part of a Voice over IP (VoIP) solution. In which submodule of the Enterprise Architecture model should you place Communications Manager?
The server farm.
True or false: HSRP provides router redundancy.
True
Which enterprise edge submodule connects to an ISP?
The Internet submodule.
List the six modules of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model for network design.
Enterprise campus, enterprise edge, enterprise WAN, enterprise branch, enterprise data center, and enterprise teleworker.
True or false: In the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model, the network management submodule does not manage the SP edge.
True
True or false: You can implement a full-mesh network to increase redundancy and reduce a WAN’s costs.
False. A full-mesh network increases costs.
How many links are required for a full mesh of six sites?
Use n(n – 1)/2, where n = 6. 6 * (6 – 1)/2 = (6 * 5)/2 = 30/2 = 15
List and describe four options for multihoming to the SP between the Enterprise Edge and the SP Edge. Which option provides the most redundancy?
Option 1: Single router, dual links to one ISP
Option 2: Single router, dual links to two ISPs
Option 3: Dual routers, dual links to one ISP
Option 4: Dual routers, dual links to two ISPs
Option 4 provides the most redundancy, with dual local routers, dual links, and dual ISPs.
To what enterprise edge submodule does the SP Edge Internet submodule connect?
The SP edge Internet submodule connects to the enterprise edge Internet submodule.
What are four benefits of hierarchical network design?
Cost savings, ease of understanding, easy network growth (scalability), and improved fault isolation.
In an IP telephony network, in which submodule or layer are the IP phones and CUCM servers located?
IP phones reside in the building access layer of the campus infrastructure. The CallManagers are placed in the server farm of the enterprise campus.
Match the redundant model with its description:
Workstation-router redundancy
Server redundancy
Route redundancy
Media redundancy
Cheap when implemented in the LAN and critical for the WAN
Provides load balancing
Host has multiple gateways
Data is replicated
i = C, ii = D, iii = B, iv = A
True or false: Small to medium campus networks must always implement three layers of hierarchical design.
False. Small campus networks can have collapsed core and distribution layers and implement a two-layer design. Medium campus networks can have two-tier or three-tier designs.
How many full-mesh links do you need for a network with ten routers?
Use the formula n(n – 1)/2, where n = 10. 10(10 – 1)/2 = 90/2 = 45 links.
Which layer provides routing between VLANs and security filtering?
Access layer
Distribution layer
Enterprise edge
WAN module
B. The distribution layer provides routing between VLANs and security filtering.
List the four modules of the enterprise edge area.
E-commerce, Internet, VPN/remote access, and WAN.
List the three submodules of the SP edge.
Internet services, WAN services, and PSTN services.
List the components of the Internet edge.
Firewalls, Internet routers, FTP/HTTP servers, SMTP mail servers, and DNS servers.
Which submodule contains firewalls, VPN concentrators, and ASAs? WAN
VPN/remote access
Internet
Server farm
B. The VPN/remote access submodule contains firewalls, VPN concentrators, and ASAs.
Which of the following describe the access layer? (Select two.)
High-speed data transport
Applies network policies
Performs network aggregation
Concentrates user access
Provides PoE
Avoids data manipulation
D and E. The access layer concentrates user access and provides PoE to IP phones.
Which of the following describe the distribution layer? (Select two.)
High-speed data transport
Applies network policies
Performs network aggregation
Concentrates user access
Provides PoE
Avoids data manipulation
B and C. The distribution layer concentrates the network access switches and routers and applies network policies with access lists.
Which of the following describe the core layer? (Select two.)
High-speed data transport
Applies network policies
Performs network aggregation
Concentrates user access
Provides PoE
Avoids data manipulation
A and F. The core layer provides high-speed data transport without manipulating the data.
Which campus submodule connects to the enterprise edge module? SP edge
WAN submodule
Building distribution
Campus core
Enterprise branch
Enterprise data center
D. The Campus Core connects to the server farm, the Enterprise Edge, and the Building Distribution.
Which remote module connects to the enterprise via the Internet or WAN submodules and contains a small LAN switch for users? SP edge
WAN submodule
Building distribution
Campus core
Enterprise branch
Enterprise data center
E. The infrastructure at the remote site usually consists of a WAN router and a small LAN switch.
Which three types of servers are placed in the e-commerce submodule?
Web
Application
Database
Intranet
Internet
Public share
A, B, and C. Web, application, and database servers are placed in the e-commerce submodule.
Which solution supports the enterprise teleworker?
IP telephony
Enterprise campus
Cisco virtual office
SP edge
Hierarchical design
Data Center 3.0
C. The Cisco Virtual Office supports the teleworker with router, VPN, and IP telephony.
Which are two benefits of using a modular approach?
Simplifies the network design
Reduces the amount of network traffic on the network
Often reduces the cost and complexity of the network
Makes the network simple by using full mesh topologies
A and C
Which three modules provide infrastructure for remote users? (Select three.)
Teleworker module
WAN module
Enterprise branch module
Campus module
Enterprise data center
Core, distribution, access layers
A, C, and E. The teleworker, branch, and data center modules are part of the enterprise remote modules.
Which are borderless networks infrastructure services? (Select three.)
IP telephony
Security
QoS
SP edge
High availability
Routing
B, C, and E. Security, QoS, and high availability are borderless network infrastructure services.
Which module contains devices that supports AAA and stores passwords? WAN module
VPN module
Server farm module
Internet connectivity module
SP edge
TACACS
C. Servers are located in the server farm module of the enterprise campus area.
Which topology is best used for connectivity in the building distribution layer?
Full mesh
Partial mesh
Hub and spoke
Dual ring
EthernetChannel
B. Partial-mesh connectivity is best suited in the distribution layer.
What are two ways that wireless access points are used? (Choose two.)
Function as a hub for wireless end devices
Connect to the enterprise network
Function as a Layer 3 switch for wireless end devices
Provide physical connectivity for wireless end devices
Filter out interference from microwave devices
A and B. Wireless APs function as a hub to connect wireless end devices to the network.
In which ways does application network services helps resolve application issues?
It can compress, cache, and optimize content.
Optimizes web streams which can reduce latency and offload the web server.
Multiple data centers increases productivity.
Improves application response times by using faster servers.
A and B
Which are key features of the distribution layer?
Aggregates access layer switches
Provides a routing boundary between access and core layers
Provides connectivity to end devices
Provides fast switching
Provides transport to the enterprise edge
Provides VPN termination
A, B, and C
Which Cisco solution allows a pair of switches to act as a single logical switch?
HSRP
VSS
STP
GLB
B. VSS allows a Catalyst 6500 switch pair to act as a single logical switch.
Which module or layer connects the server layer to the enterprise edge? Campus distribution layer
Campus data center access layer
Campus core layer
Campus MAN module
WAN module
Internet connectivity module
C
Which server type is used in the Internet connectivity module?
Corporate
Private
Public
Internal
Database
Application
C
Which server types are used in the e-commerce module for users running applications and storing data? (Select three.) Corporate
Private
Public
Internet
Database
Application
Web
E, F, and G
What device filters broadcasts?
Layer 2 switch
Hub
Layer 3 switch
Router
A and C
C and D
A, C, and D
F. Routers and Layer 3 switches are Layer 3 devices that control and filter network broadcasts.
What is the maximum segment distance for Fast Ethernet over unshielded twisted-pair (UTP)?
100 feet
500 feet
100 meters
285 feet
C. The maximum distance of 100BASE-T is 100 meters.
What device limits the collision domain?
Layer 2 switch
Hub
Layer 3 switch
Router
A and C
C and D
A, C, and D
G. Every port of a Layer 2 switch, Layer 3 switch, or LAN port on a router is a collision domain.
The summarization of routes is a best practice at which layer?
Access layer
Distribution layer
Core layer
WAN layer
B. Routes are summarized at the distribution layer.
What type of LAN switches are preferred in the campus backbone of an enterprise network?
Layer 2 switches
Layer 3 switches
Layer 3 hubs
Hubs
B. Layer 3 switches are recommended for the backbone of campus networks.
Two workstations are located on separate VLANs. They exchange data directly. What type of application is this?
Client/server
Client-peer
Peer-peer
Client-enterprise
C. This is a peer-to-peer application.
Which type of cable is the best solution in terms of cost for connecting an access switch to the distribution layer requiring 140 meters?
UTP
Copper
Multimode fiber
Single-mode fiber
C. Multimode fiber provides a cost-effective solution for that distance. Single-mode fiber is more expensive. UTP cannot go more than 100 meters.
Why is switching preferred over shared segments?
Shared segments provide a collision domain for each host.
Switched segments provide a collision domain for each host.
Shared segments provide a broadcast domain for each host.
Switched segments provide a broadcast domain for each host.
B. Each port on a switch is a separate collision or bandwidth domain. All ports on a hub share the same bandwidth domain.
True or false: Layer 2 switches control network broadcasts.
False. Layer 2 switches limit only the collision domain.
What technology can you use to limit multicasts at Layer 2?
CGMP
True or false: Packet marking is also called coloring.
True
True or false: Usually, the distribution and core layers are collapsed in medium-size networks.
True
What are two methods to mark frames to provide CoS?
Inter-Switch Link (ISL) and IEEE 802.1p/802.1Q
Which of the following is an example of a peer-to-peer application?
IP phone call
Client accessing file server
Web access
Using a local server on the same segment
A. IP phone-to-IP phone communication is an example of peer-to-peer communication.
What primary design factors affect the design of a campus network? (Select three.)
Environmental characteristics
Number of file servers
Infrastructure devices
Fiber and UTP characteristics
Network applications
Windows, Linux, and mainframe operating systems
A, C, and E. Network applications, infrastructure devices, and environmental characteristics affect network design.
You need to connect a building access switch to the distribution switch. The cable distance is 135 m. What type of cable do you recommend?
UTP
Coaxial cable
Multimode fiber
Single-mode fiber
C. Multimode fiber provides the necessary connectivity at the required distance. UTP can reach only 100 m. Single-mode fiber is more expensive.
Which layer of the campus network corresponds to the data center aggregation layer?
Core layer
Distribution layer
Access layer
Server farm
B. The DC aggregation layer is similar to the campus distribution layer.
Which of the following is an access layer best practice?
Reduce switch peering and routing
Use HSRP and summarize routes
Disable trunking and use RPVST+
Offload SSL sessions and use load balancers
C. Disabling trunking on host ports and using RPVST+ are best practices at the access layer.
Which of the following is a distribution layer best practice?
Reduce switch peering and routing
Use HSRP and summarize routes
Disable trunking and use RPVST+
Offload SSL sessions and use load balancers
B. The use of HSRP and summarization of routes are best practices in the distribution layer.
Which of the following is a core layer best practice?
Reduce switch peering and routing
Use HSRP and summarize routes
Disable trunking and use RPVST+
Offload SSL sessions and use load balancers
A. Best practices for the core is the use of triangle connections to reduce switch peering and use routing to prevent network loops.
Which of the following is a DC aggregation layer best practice?
Reduce switch peering and routing
Use HSRP and summarize routes
Disable trunking and use RPVST+
Offload SSL sessions and use load balancers
D. Load balancers, SSL offloading, firewalls, and intrusion detection devices are deployed in the DC aggregation layer.
Which of the following are threats to the edge distribution?
IP spoofing
Network discovery
Packet-capture devices
All of the above
D. All are threats to the enterprise edge distribution.
An enterprise network has grown to multiple buildings supporting multiple departments. Clients access servers that are in local and other buildings. The company security assessment has identified policies that need to be applied. What do you recommend?
Move all departments to a single building to prevent unauthorized access.
Move all servers to one of the LAN client segments.
Move all servers to a server farm segment that is separate from client LANs.
Move all servers to the building distribution switches.
C. Create a server farm that allows the enforcement of security policies.
Link redundancy and infrastructure services are design considerations for which layers?
Core layer
Distribution layer
Access layer
All of the above
B. These are design considerations for the distribution layer.
Which of the following are server connectivity methods in the server farm?
Single NIC
EtherChannel
Content switch
All of the above
D. All are server connectivity options.
What is the recommended method to connect the distribution switches to the core?
Redundant triangle links
Redundant cross-connect links
Redundant Layer 3 squares
Redundant Layer 2 links
A. The core and the distribution should be connected using redundant Layer 3 triangular links.
A campus network of four buildings is experiencing performance problems. Each building contains 400 to 600 devices, all in one IP subnet. The buildings are connected in a hub-and-spoke configuration back to building 1 using Gigabit Ethernet with multimode fiber. All servers are located in building 1. What do you recommend to improve performance?
Connect all buildings in a ring topology.
Implement multiple VLANs in each building.
Move servers to the buildings.
Use single-mode fiber to make the Gigabit Ethernet links faster.
B. The building subnets are too large and should be further segmented to reduce the broadcast domain.
What of the following is true about data link layer broadcasts?
Not controlled by routers
Not forwarded by routers
Not forwarded by switches
Not controlled by VLANs
B. Broadcasts are not forwarded by routers and are controlled by VLANs.
Match each LAN medium with its original physical specification.
Fast Ethernet
Gigabit Ethernet
WLAN
Token Ring
10 Gigabit Ethernet
IEEE 802.3ab
IEEE 802.11b
IEEE 802.3u
IEEE 802.3ae
IEEE 802.5
i = C, ii = A, iii = B, iv = E, v = D
True or false: Layer 3 switches bound Layer 2 collision and broadcast domains.
True. Layer 3 switches and routers control both the collision and broadcast domains.
Match each enterprise campus component with its description.
Campus infrastructure
Server farm
Edge distribution
Consists of backbone, building-distribution, and building-access modules
Connects the campus backbone to the Enterprise Edge
Provides redundancy access to the servers
i = A, ii = C, iii = B
Match each LAN device type with its description.
Hub
Bridge
Switch
Layer 3 switch
Router
Legacy device that connects two data link layer segments
Network layer device that forwards packets to serial interfaces connected to the WAN
High-speed device that forwards frames between two or more data link layer segments
High-speed device that bounds data link layer broadcast domains
Device that amplifies the signal between connected segments
i = E, ii = A, iii = C, iv = D, v = B
Match each application type with its description.
Peer to peer
Client-local server
Client/server farm
Client-enterprise edge
Server on the same segment
IM
Web access
Client accesses database server
i = B, ii = A, iii = D, iv = C
Match each transmission medium with its upper-limit distance.
UTP
Wireless
Single-mode fiber
Multimode fiber
2 km
100 m
90 km
500 m
i = B, ii = D, iii = C, iv = A
True or false: IP phones and LAN switches can reassign a frame’s CoS bits.
True. IP phones reclassify incoming frames from the PC. Switches can accept or reclassify incoming frames.
Name two ways to reduce multicast traffic in the access layer.
CGMP and IGMP snooping control multicast traffic at Layer 2. The switch and local router exchange CGMP messages. With IGMP snooping, the switch listens to IGMP messages between the host and the router.
What are two VLAN methods you can use to carry marking CoS on frames?
ISL and IEEE 802.1p/Q are two methods for CoS. ISL was created by Cisco and uses an external tag that contains 3 bits for marking. IEEE 802.1p specifies 3 bits for marking that is carried in the internal tag of IEEE 802.1q. The IEEE 802.1p specification is not included in the IEEE 802.1D-1998 standard.
True or false: You can configure both CGMP and IGMP snooping in mixed Cisco switch and non-Cisco router environments.
False. You can configure the CGMP only if both the router and switch are Cisco devices. IGMP snooping can be configured in mixed environments.
What medium do you recommend for the campus LAN backbone? 3-20
The campus backbone should have high-speed links. Recommend Gigabit Ethernet links.
The workstations send frames with the DSCP set to EF. What should the IP phones do so that the network gives preference to VoIP traffic over data traffic? 3-20
The IP phones should remap the workstation traffic to a value less than the value assigned to voice. Typically, it is recommended that you configure the IP phone to set the DSCP to EF for VoIP bearer traffic.
If the Layer 2 switches in Building A cannot look at CoS and ToS fields, where should these fields be inspected for acceptance or reclassification: in the building Layer 3 switches or in the backbone Layer 3 switches? 3-20
Inspect them at the Layer 3 switches in Building A. Packets should be marked and accepted as close as possible to the source.
Does the network have redundant access to the WAN?
No. There is no redundancy to the WAN module. A separate link to another building would provide that redundancy.
Does the network have redundant access to the Internet? 3-20
No. There is no redundancy to the Internet module. A separate link from another building would provide that redundancy.
Does Figure 3-20 use recommended devices for networks designed using the Enterprise Architecture model? 3-20
Yes. The network uses Layer 2 switches at the building-access layer and Layer 3 switches at the building distribution and campus backbone layers.
Which are environmental characteristics? (Select three.)
Transmission media characteristics
Application characteristics
Distribution of network nodes
Operating system used
Remote-site connectivity requirements
A, C, and E
Which network application type is most stringent on the network resources?
Peer to peer
Client to local server
Client to server farm
Client to enterprise edge
C
Why is LAN switching used more than shared LAN technology? (Select two.)
Shared LANs do not consume all available bandwidth.
Switched LANs offer increased throughput.
Switched LANs allow two or more ports to communicate simultaneously.
Switched LANs forward frames to all ports simultaneously.
B and C
An application used by some users in a department generates significant amounts of bandwidth. Which is a best design choice?
Rewrite the application to reduce bandwidth.
Use Gigabit Ethernet connections for those users.
Put the application users into a separate broadcast domain.
Add several switches and divide the users into the two.
C
Users access servers located on a server VLAN and servers located in departmental VLANs. Users are located in the departmental VLAN. What is the expected traffic flow from users to servers?
Most traffic is local.
All traffic requires multilayer switching.
There is no need for multilayer switching.
Most of the traffic will have to be multilayer switched.
D
Company departments are located across several buildings? These departments use several common servers. Network policy and security are important. Where should servers be placed?
Within all department buildings and duplicate the common servers in each building.
Connect the common servers to the campus core.
Use a server farm.
Connect the servers to the distribution layer.
C
A large company has a campus core. What is the best practice for the core campus network?
Use triangles.
Use squares.
Use rectangles.
Use point-to-point mesh.
A. Use redundant triangle topology between distribution and core layers.
A company has five floors. It has Layer 2 switches in each floor with servers. They plan move servers to a new computer room and create a server farm. What should they use?
Replace all Layer 2 switches with Layer 3 switches.
Connect the Layer 2 switches to a Layer 3 switch in the computer room.
Connect the Layer 2 switches to a new Layer 2 switch in the computer room.
Connect the Layer 2 switches to each other.
B
A Fast Ethernet uplink is running at 80 percent utilization. Business-critical applications are used. What can be used to minimize packet delay and loss?
Implement QoS with classification and policing in the distribution layer.
Add additional VLANs so that the business applications are used on PCs on that VLAN.
Perform packet bit rewrite in the distribution switches.
Classify users in the access with different priority bits.
A
Which are four best practices used in the access layer?
Disable trunking in host ports.
Limit VLANS to one closet.
Use PVST+ as the STP with multilayer switches.
Enable trunking on host ports.
Use VLAN spanning to speed convergence of STP.
Use VTP Server mode in hierarchical networks.
Use VTP Transparent mode in hierarchical networks.
Use RPVST+ as the STP with multilayer switches.
A, B, G, and H
Which are three best practices used in the distribution layer?
Use HSRP or GLBP.
Provide fast transport.
Use Layer 3 routing protocols to the core.
Use Layer 2 routing protocols to the core.
Summarize routes to the core layer.
Summarize routes to the access layer.
A, C, and E
Which are four best practices used in the distribution layer?
Disable trunking in host ports.
Limit VLANS to one closet.
Use HSRP.
Use GLBP.
Use VLAN spanning to speed convergence of STP.
Use Layer 3 routing to the core.
Summarize routes.
Use RPVST+ as the STP with multilayer switches.
C, D, F, and G
Which are three best practices used in the core layer?
Use routing with no Layer 2 loops.
Limit VLANS to one closet.
Use HSRP.
Use GLBP.
Use Layer 3 switches with fast forwarding.
Use Layer 3 routing to the core.
Use two equal-cost paths to every destination network.
Use RPVST+ as the STP with multilayer switches.
A, E, and G
What are two methods for implementing unified fabric in the data center over 10Gigabit Ethernet?
VSS
FCoE
iSCSI
vPC
B and C. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) and Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) are two methods for implementing unified fabric in the data center over 10 Gigabit Ethernet.
What best describes the characteristics of Data Center 3.0 architecture?
Mainframes
Consolidation/virtualization/automation
Distributed client/server computing
Decentralized computing
B. Data Center 3.0 architecture can be best described by consolidation, virtualization, and automation.
Which of the following data center facility aspects best corresponds with architectural and mechanical specifications?
Space, load, and power capacity
PCI, SOX, and HIPPA
Operating temperature and humidity
Site access, fire suppression, and security alarms
A. Data center facility aspects such as space, load, power capacity, and cabling are architectural and mechanical specifications.
Which of the following uses the highest percentage of power within the overall data center power budget?
Lighting
Servers and storage
Network devices
Data center cooling
D. Data center cooling requires the most power out of the overall power budget next to servers and storage.
Which data center architecture layer provides Layer 2/Layer 3 physical port density for servers in the data center?
Data center core
Data center aggregation
Data center access
Data center distribution
C. The data center access layer provides Layer 2/Layer 3 physical port density for servers in the data center.
Layer 4 security and application services including server load balancing, Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) offloading, firewalling, and intrusion prevention system (IPS) services are provided by the data center ___________ layer?
Access
Routed
Core
Aggregation
D. The Layer 4 security and application services in the data center aggregation layer include server load balancing, SSL Offloading, firewalling, and IPS services.
Virtualization technologies allow a _________ device to share its resources by acting as multiple versions of itself?
Software
Virtual
Logical
Physical
D. Virtualization technologies allow a physical device to share its resources by acting as multiple versions of itself.
Which of the following are examples of logical isolation techniques in which network segments share the same physical infrastructure? (Select all that apply.)
VRF
VLAN
VSAN
VSS
A, B, and C. VRFs, VLANs, and VSANs are examples of network virtualization techniques where logical isolation is used.
Which of the following are examples of technologies that employ device virtualization or the use of contexts? (Select all that apply.)
VRF
ASA
VLAN
ACE
B and D. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances (ASA) and Cisco Application Control Engines (ACE) use device virtualization or contexts.
What involves the creation of independent logical network paths over a shared network infrastructure?
Access control
Services edge
Path isolation
Device context
C. Path Isolation involves the creation of independent logical network paths over a shared network infrastructure.
Which data center architecture was based on client/server and distributed computing?
Data Center 1.0
Data Center 2.0
Data Center 3.0
Data Center 4.0
B. Data Center 2.0 brought client/server and distributed computing into the mainstream.
What Cisco Nexus switch helps deliver visibility and policy control for virtual machines (VM)?
Nexus 7000
Nexus 4000
Nexus 2000
Nexus 1000V
D. Cisco Nexus 1000V virtual switch for VMware ESX and ESXi help deliver visibility and policy control for VMs.
Which of the following is a network adapter that can run at 10GE and support Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)?
CNA
VN-Link
MDS
NAS
A. Converged network adapters (CNAs) run at 10GE and support FCoE and are available from Emulex and QLogic.
What is an innovative next-generation data center platform that converges computing, network, storage, and virtualization all together into one system? (Select the best answer.)
Cisco MDS
Cisco Nexus 7000
Cisco Nexus 5000
Cisco UCS
D. Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS) is an innovative next-generation data center platform that converges computing, network, storage, and virtualization all together into one system.
Which of the following Cisco Nexus switches support virtual device contexts using (VDCs)?
Cisco Nexus 7000
Cisco Nexus 2000
Cisco Nexus 5000
Cisco Nexus 4000
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 series switches are the only switches that support VDCs.
What services option provides an effective way to address firewall policy enforcement in a Cisco Catalyst 6500 series switch?
IPS
FWSM
Nexus 1000V
VDCs
B. The FWSM is an effective way to address policy enforcement in a Cisco Catalyst 6500 series switch, by providing firewall services for the data center.
What has enabled applications to no longer be bound to bare metal hardware resources?
Unified fabric
Device virtualization
Network virtualization
Server virtualization
D. As a result of server virtualization, many data center applications are no longer bound to bare-metal hardware resources.
Which of the following supports network virtualization technology that allows two physical Cisco Catalyst 6500 series switches to act as a single logical virtual switch?
VN-Link technology
Unified fabric
Virtual Switching System (VSS)
Virtual routing and forwarding (VRF)
C. Virtual Switching System (VSS) is a network virtualization technology that allows two physical Cisco Catalyst 6500 series switches to act as a single logical virtual switch.
What enables the spanning-tree topology to appear loop-free although multiple redundant paths are present in the physical topology?
vPC
VRF
VSS
VDC
A. Virtual Port Channel (vPC) enables the spanning-tree topology to appear loop-free although multiple redundant paths are present in the physical topology.
Which of the following are data center core layer characteristics? (Select all that apply.)
10GE
High-latency switching
Distributed forwarding architecture
Service modules
A and C. Low-latency switching, distributed forwarding architecture, 10GE, and scalable IP multicast support are all DC core layer characteristics.
Which data center layer provides advanced application and security services and has a large STP processing load?
Data center access layer
Data center aggregation layer
Data center services layer
Data center core layer
B. The data center aggregation layer supports advanced application and security services and has a large STP processing load.
Which of the following are drivers for the data center core layer? (Select all that apply.)
Future growth
10 Gigabit Ethernet density
Services edge
Administrative domains and policies
A, B, and D. 10 Gigabit Ethernet density, administrative domains and polices, and future growth are all drivers for the data center core layer.
Benefits such as port density for server farms, high-performance low-latency Layer 2 switching, and a mix of oversubscription requirements belong to which data center layer?
Core
Distribution
Access
Aggregation
C. The data center access layer provides benefits such as port density for server farms, high-performance low-latency Layer 2 switching, and a mix of oversubscription requirements.
Cable management is affected by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a. Alternative cooling technologies
b. Number of connections
c. Media selection
d. Increase in the number of HVAC units
B and C. Cable management and is affected by the number of connections and media selection.
Which of the following best describes how “cold” and “hot” aisles should be arranged in the data center?
a. Hot and cold aisles facing each other
b. Alternating pattern of cold and hot aisles
c. Nonalternating pattern of hot and cold aisles
d. None of the above
B. The cabinets and racks should be arranged in the data center with an alternating pattern of “cold” and “hot” aisles.
Within the unified computing resources, what defines the identity of the server?
a. Virtualization
b. Unified fabric
c. Services profile
d. Virtual machines
C. Within the unified computing resources, the service profile defines the identity of the server. The identity contains many items such as memory, CPU, network cards, and boot image.
What technology provides 54 Mbps of bandwidth using UNII frequencies?
a. IEEE 802.11b
b. IEEE 802.11g
c. IEEE 802.11a
d. IEEE 802.11n
e. Both C and D
E. Both 802.11a and 802.11n use UNII frequencies.
What frequency allotment provides 11 channels for unlicensed use for WLANs in North America?
a. UNII
b. ISM
c. Bluetoothd. FM
B. The Industrial, Scientific, and Medical (ISM) band of frequencies provides 11 channels for WLANs.
What standard is used for control messaging between access points and controllers?
a. IEEE 802.11
b. CSMA/CA
c. IEEE 802.1X
d. CAPWAP
D. CAPWAP is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standard for control messaging for setup, authentication, and operations between access points (AP) and WLAN controllers (WLC).
Which WLAN controller interface is used for out-of-band management?
a. Management interface
b. Service-port interface
c. AP manager interface
d. Virtual interface
B. The service-port interface is an optional interface that is statically configured for out-of-band management.
How many access points are supported by a Cisco Catalyst 3750 with an integrated controller?
a. 6
b. 50
c. 100
d. 300
B. The Cisco Catalyst 3750 Integrated WLC supports up to 50 APs.
Which WLAN controller redundancy scheme uses a backup WLC configured as the tertiary WLC in the APs?
a. N+1
b. N+N
c. N+N+1
d. N+N+B
C. With N+N+1 redundancy, an equal number of controllers back up each other, as with N+N. Plus, a backup WLC is configured as the tertiary WLC for the access points.
What is the recommended maximum number of data devices associated to a WLAN?
a. 8
b. 20
c. 50
d. 100
B. The recommended best practice is up to 20 WLAN clients.
Which device of Cisco’s Wireless Mesh Networking communicates with the rooftop AP (RAP)?
a. WLC
b. WCS
c. RAP
d. MAP
D. Mesh access points (MAP) connect to the RAP to connect to the wired network.
What is the maximum data rate of IEEE 802.11g?
54 Mbps
What is the typical data rate of IEEE 802.11n?
200 Mbps
What standard does IEEE 802.11i use for confidentiality, integrity, and authentication?
Advanced Encryption Standard
List at least four benefits of Cisco UWN.
Having to configure SSIDs, frequency channels, and power settings on each individual APs.
True or false: With split-MAC, the control and data frames are load-balanced between the LWAP and the WLC
False. With split-MAC, control and data traffic frames are split. LWAPs communicate with the WLCs with control messages over the wired network. LWAPP data messages are encapsulated and forwarded to and from wireless clients.
True or false: With split-MAC, the WLC, not the LWAP, is responsible for authentication and key management.
True. Controller MAC functions are association requests, resource reservation, and authentication and key management.
What CAPWAP transport mode is the preferred and most scalable?
a. Intra
b. Layer 2
c. Layer 3
d. EoIP
C. Layer 3 CAPWAP tunnels are the preferred solution.
What is the preferred intercontroller roaming option?
a. Intra
b. Layer 2
c. Layer 3
d. EoIP
B. Layer 2 intercontroller roaming is the preferred intercontroller roaming option.
What device places user traffic on the appropriate VLAN?
a. Lightweight AP
b. WLAN controller
c. MAP
d. RAP
B. The WLC places the user data on the appropriate VLAN and forwards the frame to the wired network.
How many access points are supported in a mobility group using Cisco 4400 series WLCs?
a. 144
b. 1200
c. 2400
d. 7200
C. Each 4400 series WLC supports 100 APs. 100 APs times 24 controllers in a mobility group equals 2400.
What is the recommended number of data devices an AP can support for best performance?
a. About 6
b. 7 to 8
c. 10 to 15
d. About 20
D. The recommended number of data devices per AP is 20.
What is the recommended number of VoWLAN devices an AP can support for best performance?
a. 2 to 3
b. 7 to 8
c. 10 to 15
d. About 20
B. The recommended number of voice over wireless devices per AP is seven for G.711 and eight for G.729.
What method is used to manage radio frequency channels and power configuration?
a. WLC
b. WCS
c. RRM
d. MAP
C. Cisco Radio Resource Management controls AP radio frequency and power settings.
What is the typical latency per wireless mesh hop in milliseconds?
a. 1 to 3
b. 7 to 8
c. 10 to 15
d. About 20
A. Typically, there is a 1- to 3-ms latency per hop.
What is the recommended maximum RTT between an AP and the WLC?
a. 20 ms
b. 50 ms
c. 100 ms
d. 300 ms
D. The RTT between the AP and WLC should not exceed 300 ms.
What is the recommended controller redundancy technique?
a. N+1+N
b. Static
c. Dynamic
d. Deterministic
D. Cisco recommends deterministic controller redundancy.
What is the recommended best practice for guest services?
a. Use separate VLANs.
b. Use separate routers and access lists.
c. Obtain a DSL connection and bridge to the local LAN.
d. Use EoIP to isolate traffic to the DMZ.
D. EoIP is the recommended method for guest services.
What is the recommended best practice for branch WLANs?
a. Use H-REAP with centralized controllers.
b. Use local-MAP.
c. Use wireless mesh design.
d. Use EoIP.
A. H-REAP with centralized controllers is recommended for branch WLAN design.
What are two recommended best practices for WLC design?
a. Maximize intercontroller roaming.
b. Minimize intercontroller roaming.
c. Use distributed controller placement.
d. Use centralized controller placement.
B and D. Recommended practices are minimizing intercontroller roaming and centralizing controller placement.
How many APs does the Cisco 6500 WLC module support?
a. 6
b. 50
c. 100
d. 300
D. The Cisco 6500 WLC module supports 300 access points.
Match each access point mode with its description:
i. Local
ii. REAP
iii. Monitor
iv. Rogue detector
v. Sniffer
vi. Bridge
a. For location-based services
b. Captures packets
c. For point-to-point connections
d. Default mode
e. Management across the WAN
f. Monitors rouge APs
i = D, ii = E, iii = A, iv = F, v = B, vi = C
Match each WLC interface type with its description.
i. Management
ii. Service port
iii. AP manager
iv. Dynamic
v. Virtual
a. Authentication and mobility
b. Analogous to user VLANs
c. Discovery and association
d. Out-of-band management
e. In-band management
i = E, ii = D, iii = C, iv = B, v = A
Match each roaming technique with its client database entry change.
i. Intracluster roaming
ii. Layer 2 intercluster roaming
iii. Layer 3 intercluster roaming
a. The client entry is moved to a new WLC.
b. The client entry is updated on the same WLC.
c. The client entry is copied to a new WLC.
i = B, ii = A, iii = C
Match each UDP port with its protocol.
i. LWAPP data
ii. RF group 802.11b/g
iii. WLC encrypted exchange
iv. LWAPP control
v. WLC unencrypted exchange
vi. CAPWAP control
vii. CAPWAP data
a. UDP 12114
b. UDP 12222
c. UDP 5246
d. UDP 5247
e. UDP 12223
f. UDP 16666
g. UDP 16667
i = B, ii = A, iii = G, iv = E, v = F, vi = C, vii = D
Match each wireless mesh component with its description.
i. WCS
ii. WLC
iii. RAP
iv. MAP
a. Root of the mesh network
b. Remote APs
c. Networkwide configuration and management
d. Links APs to the wired network
i = C, ii = D, iii = A, iv = B
How many MAP nodes are recommended per rooftop AP?
a. 6
b. 20
c. 500
d. 100
B. For best performance, 20 MAP nodes or fewer is recommended per RAP.
Which of the following shows the correct order of the steps in an RF site survey?
a. Define requirements, document findings, perform the survey, determine preliminary AP locations, identify coverage areas.
b. Define requirements, perform the survey, determine preliminary AP locations, identify coverage areas, document findings.
c. Identify coverage areas, define requirements, determine preliminary AP locations, perform the survey, document findings.
d. Define requirements, identify coverage areas, determine preliminary AP locations, perform the survey, document findings.
D. Only answer D has the correct order.
What technique performs dynamic channel assignment, power control, and interference detection and avoidance?
a. CAPWAP
b. RRM
c. Mobility
d. LEAP
B. Radio Resource Management (RRM) functions include radio resource monitoring, dynamic channel assignment, interference detection and avoidance, dynamic transmit power control, coverage hole detection and correction, and client and network load balancing.
What are the three nonoverlapping channels of IEEE 802.11b/g?
a. Channels A, D, and G
b. Channels 1, 6, and 11
c. Channels 3, 8, and 11
d. Channels A, E, and G
B. Channels 1, 6, and 11 of the ISM frequencies do not overlap.
Which of the following statements is true?
a. IEEE 802.11g is backward compatible with 802.11b; 802.11a is not compatible with 802.11b.
b. IEEE 802.11a is backward compatible with 802.11b; 802.11g is not compatible with 802.11b.
c. IEEE 802.11b is backward compatible with 802.11a; 802.11g is not compatible with 802.11b.
d. IEEE 802.11n is backward compatible with 802.11a and 802.11g.
A. Only answer A is correct.
What is necessary when you use H-LEAP for authentication?
a. WLC
b. WCS
c. RADIUS server
d. LWAP
C. H-LEAP uses mutual authentication between the client and the network server and uses IEEE 802.1X for 802.11 authentication messaging. H-LEAP uses a RADIUS server to manage user information.
A LWAP is added to a network. What sequence accurately reflects the process it will use to associate with the WLAN controller?
a. First master, secondary, tertiary, greatest AP capacity
b. Primary, secondary, tertiary, greatest AP capacity, master
c. Primary, secondary, tertiary, master, greatest AP capacity
d. Greatest AP capacity, primary, secondary, master
C
An LWAP is added to a network that is in a separate IP subnet from the WLAN controller. OTAP has not been enabled. Which two methods can be used by the LWAP to find the WLAN controller?
a. DHCP
b. Primary, secondary, tertiary, greatest AP capacity, master
c. Primary, secondary, tertiary, master, greatest AP capacity
d. Greatest AP capacity, primary, secondary, master
e. DNS
f. Local subnet broadcast
A and E. DHCP and DNS can be used to find the WLAN controller.
Which two of the following statements represent a preferred Wireless LWAPP implementation? (Select two.)
a. Use of Layer 2 LWAPP is preferred over Layer 3 LWAPP.
b. Use of Layer 3 LWAPP is preferred over Layer 2 LWAPP.
c. Open ports for Layer 2 LWAPP on EtherType 0xABAB and Layer 3 on TCP 12222 and TCP 12223.
d. Open ports on Layer 2 LWAPP on EtherType 0xBBBB and Layer 3 on UDP 12222 and UDP 12223.
e. Open ports on Layer 2 LWAPP on EtherType 0xBABA and Layer 3 on UDP 12222 and TCP 12223.
B and D
Which two of the following statements represent a preferred split-MAC LWAPP implementation? (Select two.)
a. IEEE 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a WLAN controller. Then the 802.1Q packet is encapsulated in CAPWAP or LWAPP and sent to the access point for transmission over the SSID.
b. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID, which in turn maps to a common shared VLAN.
c. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to the access point for translation into SSIDs.
d. Each wireless client authentication type maps to a unique SSID, which in turn maps to a unique VLAN.
e. 802.1Q trunking extends from the wired infrastructure to a WLAN controller for translation into SSIDs.
C and D
Which two of these are required for Cisco wireless client mobility deployment?
a. Matching security
b. Matching mobility group name
c. Matching RF channel
d. Matching RF group name
e. Matching RF power
f. Assigned master controller
A and B
Which describe best practice for Cisco outdoor wireless mesh networks? (Select three.)
a. RAP implemented with 20 or fewer MAP nodes
b. RAP implemented with 20 to 32 MAP nodes
c. Mesh hop counts of 4 or fewer
d. Mesh hop counts of 8 to 4
e. Client access via 802.11b/g and backhaul with 802.11a
f. Client access via 802.11a and backhaul with 802.11b/g
A, C, and E
Which describe best practices for Cisco WLAN guest access? (Select two.)
a. Guest tunnels have limitations on which wireless controllers can originate the tunnel.
b. Guest tunnels have limitations on which wireless controllers can terminate the tunnel.
c. Dedicated guest VLANs are only extended to the wireless controllers in the network to ensure path isolation.
d. Dedicated guest VLANs are extended throughout the network to the access points for path isolation.
e. Dedicated guest access in the DMZ extends from the origination to the termination controllers without dedicated guest VLANs.
f. Guest tunnels can originate and terminate on any wireless controller platform.
B and E
How are WLANs identified?
a. MAC addresses
b. IP subnet
c. SSID
d. WEP key
e. LAN ports
f. Secure encryption key
C. The service set identifier identifies the WLAN network.
Which description is correct regarding Wireless solutions that provide higher bandwidth than point-to-multipoint (p2mp) wireless?
a. p2p links tend to be slower than p2mp.
b. p2mp wireless connections can provide up to 1.544-Mbps raw bandwidth.
c. p2p wireless connections can provide up to 44-Mbps raw bandwidth.
d. P2mp links tend to be faster than p2mp.
C
Which WLAN attributes should be considered during a site survey? (Select two.)
a. Channels
b. Power
c. SSID
d. Network name
e. Authentication
f. Encryption
A and B
Which WLC interfaces are mandatory? (Select all that apply.)
a. Management
b. AP manager
c. Dynamic
d. Virtual
e. Service port
f. Extended
A, B, C, and D
Which are differences between CAPWAP and LWAPP? (Select three.)
a. CAPWAP uses the newer AES. LWAPP uses DTLS.
b. CAPWAP uses DTLS. LWAPP uses AES.
c. CAPWAP control uses UDP 5246. LWAPP control uses UDP 12223.
d. CAPWAP control uses UDP 12223. LWAPP control uses UDP 5246.
e. CAPWAP is preferred.
f. LWAPP is preferred.
B, C, and E
Which two of these functions of an access point in a split MAC architecture? (choose two)
a. 802.1Q encapsulation
b. EAP authentication
c. MAC layer encryption/decryption
d. Process probe response
C and D
What are two modules or blocks used in the enterprise edge?
a. Internet and campus core
b. Core and building access
c. Internet connectivity and WAN
d. WAN and building distribution
C. DMZ/E-commerce, Internet, remote-access VPN, and WAN/MAN are all network modules found in the enterprise edge.
What MAN/WAN technology has bandwidth available from 10 Mbps to 1 Gbps?
a. DSL
b. Metro Ethernet
c. TDM
d. Frame Relay
B Metro Ethernet bandwidths can range from 10 Mbps to 1 Gbps, and even higher in some cases.
How much bandwidth does a T1 circuit provide?
a. 155 Mbps
b. 64 kbps
c. 1.544 kbps
d. 1.544 Mbps
D. A TDM T1 circuit provides 1.5.44 Mbps of bandwidth.
What methodology is used when designing the enterprise edge?
a. Cisco-powered network
b. ISL
c. PPDIOO
d. IEEE
C. The Cisco PPDIOO methodology is used when designing the enterprise edge.
SONET/SDH technology is what kind of technology?
a. Packet based
b. Cell based
c. Circuit based
d. Segment based
C. The architecture of SONET/SDH is circuit based and delivers high-speed services over an optical network.
What technology delivers IP services using labels to forward packets from the source to the destination?
a. ADSL
b. Cable
c. Frame Relay
d. MPLS
D. MPLS is technology for the delivery of IP services using labels (numbers) to forward packets.
GSM, GPRS, and UMTS are all part of ____________________technologies.
a. Wireless LAN
b. Wireless bridging
c. Mobile wireless
d. SONET/SDH
C. GSM, GPRS, and UMTS are all part of mobile wireless technologies.
When designing a network for four separate sites, what technology allows a full mesh by using only one link per site rather than point-to-point TDM circuits?
a. Dark fiber
b. Cable
c. ISDN
d. Frame Relay
D. Frame Relay technology supports full mesh configurations when connecting multiple sites together.
The _______ size specifies the maximum number of frames that are transmitted without receiving an acknowledgment.
a. Segment
b. Access
c. TCP
d. Window
D. The window size defines the upper limit of frames that can be transmitted without getting a return acknowledgment.
Which of the following adds strict PQ to modular class-based QoS?
a. LLQ
b. FIFO
c. CBWFQ
d. WFQ
A. Low-latency queuing (LLQ) adds a strict-priority queue to CBWFQ.
When using PPDIOO design methodology, what should a network designer do after identifying the customer requirements?
a. Design the network topology.
b. Design a test network.
c. Plan the implementation.
d. Characterize the existing network.
D. After analyzing the customer requirements, the next step is to characterize the existing network.
Which module within the enterprise campus connects to the enterprise edge module?
a. Server module
b. Campus core
c. Building distribution
d. Remote access/VPN module
B. The enterprise edge modules connect to the enterprise campus via the campus core module.
What WAN technology is most cost effective and suitable for the telecommuter?
a. MPLS
b. Dark fiber
c. ISDN
d. DSL
D. The high speeds and relatively low cost of DSL make this a popular Internet access technology for the enterprise telecommuter.
What two modules are found in the enterprise edge?
a. Campus core
b. Building access
c. Internet
d. MAN/WAN
C and D. DMZ/E-commerce, Internet, remote-access VPN, and WAN/MAN are modules that are found in the enterprise edge.
Which of the following statements best describes window size for good throughput?
a. A large window size reduces the number of acknowledgments.
b. A small window size reduces the number of acknowledgments.
c. A small window size provides better performance.
d. None of the above
A. The window size defines the upper limit of frames that can be transmitted without getting a return acknowledgement. A larger window size uses a smaller number of acknowledgements than smaller window sizes.
What is the default queuing mechanism for router interfaces below 2.0 Mbps?
a. Traffic shaping
b. WFQ
c. CBWFQ
d. LLQ
B. WFQ is the default QoS mechanism on interfaces below 2.0 Mbps.
Which of the following best describes the PPDIOO design methodology? (Select three.)
a. Analyze the network requirements.
b. Characterize the existing network.
c. Implement the network management.
d. Design the network topology.
A, B, and D. The PPDIOO design methodology includes the process of analyzing network requirements, characterizing the existing network, and designing the topology.
Which of the following modules belongs in the enterprise edge?
a. Building distribution
b. Campus core
c. Network management
d. DMZ/e-commerce
D. DMZ/e-commerce, Internet, remote-access VPN, and WAN/MAN are modules that are found in the enterprise edge.
Which network modules connect to ISPs in the enterprise edge? (Select two.)
a. Building distribution
b. Campus core
c. Internet
d. DMZ/e-commerce
C and D. DMZ/e-commerce and Internet are modules that are found in the enterprise edge.
Which enterprise edge network modules connect using the PSTN connectivity?
a. Remote-access/VPN
b. Campus core
c. Building access
d. DMZ/e-commerce
A. The remote-access/VPN module connects to PSTN-type connectivity.
Which enterprise edge network modules connect using Frame Relay and ATM?
a. Remote-access/VPN
b. WAN/MAN
c. Building distribution
d. Server farm
B. WAN/MAN modules are used to connect to Frame Relay and ATM networks in the enterprise edge.
During which part of the PPDIOO design methodology does implementation planning occur?
a. Analyze the network requirements.
b. Design the topology.
c. Characterize the existing network.
d. None of the above.
B. After you analyze the network requirements and characterize the existing network, the design of the topology occurs, which includes the implementation planning.
What functional area provides connectivity between the central site and remote sites?
a. DMZ/e-commerce
b. Campus core
c. Building distribution
d. MAN/WAN
D. The WAN/MAN functional area or module provides connectivity to the remote sites via Frame Relay, TDM, ATM, or MPLS services.
What WAN technology allows the enterprise to control framing?
a. Cable
b. Wireless
c. DWDM
d. Dark fiber
D. The framing for dark fiber is determined by the enterprise not the provider.
Which QoS method uses a strict PQ in addition to modular traffic classes?
a. CBWFQ
b. Policing
c. WFQ
d. LLQ
D. Low-latency queuing (LLQ) adds a strict priority queue to CBWFQ.
A T1 TDM circuit uses how many timeslots?
24 timeslots are used in a T1.
Which wireless implementation is designed to connect two wireless networks in different buildings?
a. Mobile wireless
b. GPRS
c. Bridge wireless
d. UMTS
C. Wireless bridges are used to connect two separate wireless networks together, typically located in two separate buildings.
What improves the utilization of optical-fiber strands?
DWDM maximizes the use of the installed base of fiber used by service providers and is a critical component of optical networks.
On the ISP side of a cable provider, cable modems connect to what system?
CMTS. The equipment used on the remote access side is the cable modem, which connects to the Cable Modem Termination System or (CMTS) on the Internet service provider side.
If Frame Relay, ATM, and SONET technologies are used, what enterprise edge network module would they connect to?
a. WAN/MAN
b. VPN/remote access
c. Internet
d. DMZ/e-commerce
A. The WAN/MAN module provides connectivity to the remote sites via Frame Relay, TDM, ATM, or SONET network services.
What protocol describes data-over-cable procedures that the equipment must support?
DOCSIS. The Data Over Cable Service Interface Specifications (DOCSIS) protocol defines the cable procedures that the equipment need to support.
Into what WAN technology category does ISDN fit?
a. Cell switched
b. UTMS switched
c. Circuit switched
d. Packet switched
C. ISDN falls into the circuit-switched WAN category.
What do service providers use to define their service offerings at different levels?
a. SWAN
b. WAN tiers
c. WWAN
d. SLA
D. SLA defines what level of service, offered by the provider such as bandwidth, allowed latency, and loss.
When is it appropriate to use various queuing solutions?
a. WAN has frequent congestion problems.
b. WAN occasionally becomes congested.
c. WAN is consistently at 50 percent utilized.
d. WAN is consistently at 40 percent utilized.
B. WANs that occasionally become congested is a good candidate for queuing solutions.
Which of the following are examples of packet- and cell-switched technologies used in the enterprise edge?
a. Frame Relay and ATM
b. ISDN and T1
c. Cable and DSL
d. Analog voice and T1
A. Frame Relay and ATM are commonly used to connect to WAN services in the enterprise edge.
Typical remote-access network requirements include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a. Best-effort interactive and low-volume traffic patterns
b. Voice and VPN support
c. Connections to the enterprise edge using Layer 2 WAN technologies
d. Server load balancing
A, B, and C. Typical remote-access requirements include best-effort interactive traffic patterns.
Which VPN infrastructure is used for business partner connectivity and uses the Internet or a private infrastructure?
a. Access VPN
b. Intranet VPN
c. Extranet VPN
d. Self-deployed MPLS VPN
C. Extranet VPN infrastructure uses private and public networks, which are used to support business partner connectivity.
