New Material for Final Part 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Where do metaphyseal/diaphyseal infarcts usually occur?

A

the medullary of the distal femur, proximal tibia, and proximal humerus

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2
Q

What do metaphyseal/diaphyseal infarcts look like?

A

serpent-like configuration with central sclerosis

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3
Q

What is Chandler’s Disease and who gets it typically?

A

AVN of femoral head in adults, usualy males aged 30-70

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4
Q

“bilateral but asymmetric 50% of the time”

A

AVN of the adult femoral head

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5
Q

What is the “bite sign?”

A

a semi-lunar or wedged necrotic area involving the superior margin of the femoral head

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6
Q

Snow Cap Sign, crescent/rim sign, mushroom deformity, and hanging rope sign all indicate what?

A

AVN

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7
Q

What is the term for an arc like radioucency beneath the superior weight bearing surface of the femoral head which is associated with AVN?

A

subchondral fracture (rim or crescent sign)

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8
Q

T/F: Once AVN heals, it is typically the beginning of DJD.

A

True

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9
Q

Why might a person with lupus develop AVN?

A

Steroids are often prescribed for lupus

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10
Q

What disease affects mostly boys, is sometimes bilateral, causes groin pain, and involves AVN of the femoral capital epiphysis before closure?

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

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11
Q

What are the 4 stages of Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease?

A
avascular stage (0-12 months)
revascularization stage (6 months-4 years)
repair and remodeling (1-2 years)
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12
Q

What are 3 common soft tissue signs of hip joint disease?

A

capsular swelling, small obturator (hip flexion), and increased TDD

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13
Q

What condition represents a focal subchondral infarction of sub-articular bone where the necrotic bone may heal spontaneously or become a free floating fragment separated from the parent bone?

A

Osteochondritis dissecans

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14
Q

Who typically gets osteochondritis dissecans? where do they get it?

A

males aged 11-20;

knee is mc location, especialy medial femoral condyle

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15
Q

What are the typical symptoms of osteochondritis dissecans?

A

may be asymptomatic or have vague symptoms such as, clicking, locking, limitation of movement, swelling, or pain aggravated by movement.

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16
Q

What condition doe osteochondritis dissecans predispose the patient to?

A

DJD

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17
Q

Other than the knee where might a patient have osteochondritis dissecans?

A

humeral head, capitellum of the elbow, or the medial surface of the talus.

18
Q

What is a joint mouse?

A

osteochondral fragment that has detached

19
Q

What is SONK?

A

spontaneous osteonecrosis of the knee - idiopathic (aged) AVN of the knee

20
Q

T/F: SONK is associated with lateral meniscal lesions.

A

False; associated with medial meniscal lesions

21
Q

What is the term for the fragmentation of the apophysis of the tibial tuberosity often seen in young, teenage males which typically is asymptomatic by age 18?

A

Osgood Schlatter’s Disease

22
Q

What is the difference between Osgood Schlatters’s and Sindig-Larsen-Johanssen disease?

A

SLJ disease involves the inferior pole of the patella rather than the tibial tuberosity

23
Q

What is the name for AVN of the metatarsal head, usually the second, which affects females more often possibly due to wearing heels?

A

Freiberg’s Disease

24
Q

What condition involves AVN of the lunate in males aged 20-40 y/o who are involved in manual labor?

A

Kienbock’s Disease aka Drillers disease

25
Q

What bone is involved in Kohler’s Disease?

A

Navicular (tarsal)

26
Q

What disease most commonly affects teens, has irregular end plates, affects 3 contiguous vertebrae, may display schmorl’s nodes, and is aka Juvenile Discogenic Disease?

A

Scheuermann’s Disease

27
Q

The primary etiology of this disease appears to be failure of embryologic vascular channels, centrum defects, and notochord clefts to disappear leaving endplate defects. What is this disease?

A

Juvenile Discogenic Disease (Scheuermann’s)

28
Q

T/F: Severs Disease is a necrosis and fragmentation of the calcaneal apophysis.

A

False; Sever disease is not a necrosis but a sclerosis and fragmentation of the calcaneal apophysis

29
Q

What is the term for serpiginous regions of calcification within the bone medulla, usually associated with arteriosclerosis, which look similar to enchondromas/chondrosarcomas?

A

Calcified medullary infarct

30
Q

What is the most common hemolytic anemia?

A

Sickle cell anemia

31
Q

T/F: In addition to “hands and feet syndrome” (pain/swelling), patients with sickle cell anemia also have a predisposition to salmonella osteomyelitis

A

True

32
Q

Hair-on-end skull, H-vertebrae, marrow hyperplasia, and long bone undertubulation are all associated with what disease?

A

Sickle cell anemia

33
Q

What disease other than Sickle cell anemia may also display hair-on-end skull? and how do you tell the difference?

A

thalassemia;

only sickle cell will also affect the spine

34
Q

This group of genetic blood disorders affects people of mediterranean origin, creates abnormal hemoglobin, and is aka Cooley’s anemia.

A

What is Thalassemia

35
Q

With what condition might you find splenomegaly, cardiomegaly, fatigue, and rodent facies?

A

Thalassemia

36
Q

What is the term for undertubulation at the metaphyseal/diaphyseal junction commonly seen with Thalassemia?

A

Erlenmeyer Flask Deformity

37
Q

What appearance will trabeculation take on with severe Thalassemia?

A

honeycomb (coarsened trabeculation)

38
Q

What X chromosome linked bleeding disorder is typically carried by females but manifested in males? It may produce intra-articular tissue swelling, osteopenia, and joint pain.

A

Hemophilia

39
Q

What malignant proliferation of WBCs produces radiolucent submetaphyseal bands on xrays, osteopenia, periosteal reactions, and osteolytic destruction of long bone metaphysis and diaphysis?

A

Leukemia

40
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a patient with Leukemia?

A

fever, malaise, joint pain, easily bruised, and spontaneous bleeds