Neuroscience + Clinical Flashcards

1
Q

Nucleus contains

A

DNA

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2
Q

RER

A

Synthesis proteins

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3
Q

SER

A

Synthesis Fats

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4
Q

Golgi Complex

A

Packages products for transport around the cell

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5
Q

Mitochondria

A

Powerhouse of the cewll

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6
Q

Lysosomes

A

Waste Disposal System

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7
Q

Cytoskeleton

A

maintains shape and provides rails for transport

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8
Q

More than 1 dendrite neuron is called?

A

Multipolar Neuron - dendrites emanate from apex and base of cell body

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9
Q

Bipolar Neuron

A

only has 1 dendrite

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10
Q

Golgi type 1 length of axon

A

Long axon and large

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11
Q

Golgi type 2 length of axon

A

Short axon

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12
Q

Three shapes of cell bodies of neurons

A

Ovoid
Fusiform
Triangular

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12
Q

Where are pyramidal cells found

A

Mainly in cerebral cortex

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12
Q

Features of Pyramidal cells

A

triangular cell body
multipolar
spiny dendrites
axon extends from base
golgi type 1 (projection neuron)

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13
Q

Where are spiny stellate cells found?

A

Cerebral cortex

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14
Q

Features of spiny stellate cells

A

Ovoid cell body
multipolar
radial/horizontal
spiny dendrites
golgi type 2 (interneurons)

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15
Q

Features of Dopaminergic Neurons

A

Fusiform cell body
multipolar ]axon emerges from dendrites or cell body
golgi type 1 (projection neurons)

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16
Q

Neurons involved in Parkinson’s Disease

A

Dopaminergic neurons - degeneration

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17
Q

Where are Purkinje cells

A

Cortex of cerebullum

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18
Q

Features of Purkinje cells

A

Ovoid cell body
bipolar
highly branched dendritic tree
spiny dendrites
golgi type 1 (projection neuron)

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19
Q

Degeneration of purkinje cell

A

Tremor
problems with walking, fine hand movements
problems with speech
motor issues

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20
Q

4/5ths of all neurons in the brain are found in one structure

A

Cerebellum

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21
Q

3 types of glia cells in CNS

A

Oligodendrocytes
Astrocytes
Microglia

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22
Q

Type of Glia in PNS

A

Schwann Cell

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23
Q

What cells are schwann cells similar to

A

oligodendrocytes

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24
Q

What do oligodendrocytes do

A

Form Myelin

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25
Q

What are nodes of ranvier

A

Unmyelinated segments of axon

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26
Q

what is an internode

A

myelinated segments of axon

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27
Q

How is multiple sclerosis caused

A

caused by degeneration of myelin coating

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28
Q

features of astrocytes

A

star shaped
connected by gap junctions
20-50 percent of volume of most brain areas

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29
Q

What do astrocytes do

A

Fence in neurons
make cuffs around nodes of ranvier
ensheath synapses of dendrites
project processes to cell somas
cover capillaries

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30
Q

(more) Functions of astrocytes

A

Induce/maintain tight junctions in endothelial ells - forms blood brain barrier

Uptake of neurotransmitters

Neurovascular coupling

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31
Q

features of Microglia

A

small rod shaped somas

processes extend out symmetrically

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32
Q

What do microglia do

A

Representatives of immune system in brain

brain - immunologically privileged site
BBB restricts access of immune cells from blood

involved in phagocytosis

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33
Q

What does encephalon mean

A

position within the head

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34
Q

dorsal / ventral

A

back / belly

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35
Q

anterior / posterior

A

front / back

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36
Q

rostral / caudal

A

beak / tail

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37
Q

medial / lateral

A

middle / side

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38
Q

What are the main areas of the forebrain

A

telencephalon
diencephalon

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39
Q

What is in the telencephalon

A

2 cerebral hemispheres
Limbic system
basal ganglia
cerebral cortex

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40
Q

what connects the 2 cerebral hemispheres

A

corpus callosum

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41
Q

what is the limbic system

A

a collection of structures regarding emotion and memory

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42
Q

what structures are in the limbic system

A

hippocampus
amygdala
cingulate cortex
septum
mammillary bodies

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43
Q

what are the basal ganglia

A

a group of nuclei with the main function of movement

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44
Q

what basal ganglia are there

A

caudate nucleus
putamen
globus palliddus
substantia nigra (mesencephalon)
ssubthalamic nucleus (diencephalon)

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45
Q

where are the four lobes located

A

cerebral cortex

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46
Q

what are the four lobes

A

frontal
temporal (temple)
parietal (wall)
occipital (back of head)

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47
Q

which lobe is involved with movement

A

frontal

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48
Q

which lobe is involved with auditory stimulation

A

temporal

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49
Q

which lobe is involved with visual stimulation

A

occiptal

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50
Q

what does the parietal lobe involve

A

somatosensory

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51
Q

what does damage to V1 do

A

causes blindness

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52
Q

where is the prefrontal cortex

A

rostral (towards the beak) to the motor association cortex

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53
Q

what is the prefrontal cortex involved in

A

planning and emotional behaviour
(think phineas gage)

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54
Q

What structures are in the diencephalon

A

thalamus
hypothalamus

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55
Q

what do sensory relay nuclei do

A

transmit info from receptors to the cortex

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56
Q

where is the mesencephalon

A

midbrain

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57
Q

what is in the mesencephalon

A

tectum
tegmentum

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58
Q

What is in the tectum, and what do they do

A

consists of inferior and superior colliculi
inferior = auditory system
superior = visual system

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59
Q

What 3 structures are in the tegmentum

A

periacueductal grey
red nucleus
substantia nigra

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60
Q

death of neurone in which component causes parkinson’s disease

A

substantia nigra

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61
Q

what components are in the hindbrain

A

mesencephalon
myelencephalon

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62
Q

what does the nucleus ambiguus give rise to

A

the vagus nerve
part of ANS - controlling heart muscle, blood vessels and glands

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63
Q

what do the nuclei in the hindbrain control

A

respiration
tongue muscles
blood pressure and heart rate

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64
Q

what structures are in the metencephalon

A

pons
cerebellum

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65
Q

what does the pons contain

A

nuclei which are involved in sleep and arousal

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66
Q

what does the locus coeruleus control

A

noradrenaline

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67
Q

what does the cerebellum do

A

coordinates smooth movements
integrates sensory info to modify motor output

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68
Q

where is the medulla oblongata located

A

myelencephalon

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69
Q

what components make the brainstem

A

mid and hindbrain

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70
Q

what charge is a cation and anion

A

cation - positive loss e
anion - negative gain e

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71
Q

at rest, what is the charge inside a neuron

A

negative

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72
Q

why does a resting membrane potential arise

A

The ions are unevenly distributed across the membrane

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73
Q

which ion is permeable to the cell membrane, and therefore establishes a membrane potential

A

potassium K+

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74
Q

what two ions are involved in the active process

A

3 Na+in = 2 K+ out

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75
Q

what is depolarisation

A

when the membrane potential is made LESS negative

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76
Q

what is hyperpolarisation

A

when a membrane potential is made MORE negative

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77
Q

Describe briefly an action potential

A

cell depolarises to threshold -60mV
VG Na+ channels open, polarity goes to +30
Na+ closes, K+ opens
restores the resting membrane potential

78
Q

what is propagation

A

when an action potential travels down the axon

79
Q

why does myelin increase the speed of propagation

A

conduction along myelinated segments is passive, so the current jumps straight from one node of ranvier to the next

80
Q

what is saltatory conduction

A

transmission of action potentials in myelinated axons

81
Q

what is a synapse

A

point of specialised contact between two neurons

82
Q

what is the most important feature of the presynaptic element

83
Q

what do vesicles do

A

they contain neurotransmitters and allow us to release thousands of molecules rapidly at the same time

84
Q

what substance blocks neurotransmitter release

A

botox
botulinum toxin

85
Q

describe the process of synaptic transmission

A

neurotransmitters synthesised and stored in vesicles
released by presynaptic activation
binds to receptors
inactivated

86
Q

what does an excitatory neurotransmitter do

A

depolarisation
allows entry of positively charged
makes cells more likely to fire an action potential

87
Q

example of an excitatory neurotransmitter

88
Q

what does an inhibitory neurotransmitter do

A

hyperpolarisation
allows entry of negatively charged ions
makes cells less likely to fire an action potential

89
Q

an example of an inhibitory neurotransmitter

90
Q

what are the two main types of receptors and what are they

A

ionotropic - receptors directly associated with an in channel - usually consists of 5 subunits

metabotropic - biochemical cascade links receptor to an ion channel -
no subunits

91
Q

In what ways can neurotransmitters be removed from synaptic cleft

A

active transport
reuptake
diffusion
glial cells
enzymes breakdown

92
Q

how do agonists interefere with transmission

A

mimic the action of the neurotransmitter
barbiturates

93
Q

what do antagonists do

A

block the action of the neurotransmitter

94
Q

what does cocaine do

A

blocks reuptake of dopamine

95
Q

what does fluoxetine do

A

blocks reuptake of 5-HT for depression

96
Q

what does amphetamine do

A

binds directly to dopamine transporter to increase in synapse

97
Q

What methods do we have of visualising the living brain

A

C(a)T scan
MRI Scan
fMRI

98
Q

What is a CT scan

A

computer assisted X ray scanner
rotates 1 degree at a time over 180
creates horizontal slices - tomograph

99
Q

What is an MRI scan

A

strong magnetic field which causes protons to align in the same orientation

When a radio frequency wave passes through head, protons emit energy

MRI tuned to detect radiation emitted

100
Q

what does an fMRI do

A

brain doesn’t store fuel, so our blood supply changes as the need arises

fMRI shows where the functional activity occurs

101
Q

How do we record large scale physiological activity of the brain

A

electroencephalography

102
Q

what is electroencephalography

A

non invasive method of recording electrical activity

uses a net of electrodes placed on scalp

103
Q

what is an ERP

A

event related potential in Electroencephalography

ERP waveform tells us info about the neural basis/processing of activity

104
Q

A disadvantage of Electroencephalography

A

poor spatial localisation due to recordings made at the scalp
better suited to when not where

105
Q

Methods of recording from individual neurons

A

Electrophysiological techniques:
intracellular recording
extracellular recording

106
Q

methods of activating neurons

A

stimulation:
electrical
optogenetic

107
Q

what is optogenetic stimulation

A

extracts virus, injects virus into neurons
cells become sensitive to light

108
Q

what is a way to investigate species-common behaviours

A

open field test - rat grooming

109
Q

what is the social defeat paradigm

A

male rats are territorial and when rats fight over the territory, the consequences of defeat are social defeat.

The stress from the fight can make a drug more effective

110
Q

what is operant conditioning

A

assessing behaviour with outcome

specific behaviour - reinforcement of punishment - increase/decrease possibility of response

111
Q

what is semi natural learning paradigms

A

measures spatial memory and awareness - hippocampus

a rat is put in different locations and learns to swim directly to a platform

112
Q

what can be investigated using field observations in rats

A

gene-behaviour relationship

social dominance

113
Q

what is psychopathology

A

study of psychological and behavioural dysfunction occurring in mental illness or in social disorganisation

114
Q

What is the biological approach to explaining psychopathology

A

neurochemical dysfunction causes lesions in brain structure

115
Q

what is the psychological approach

A

where experiences cause psychopathology

cognitive, behaviour and learning
humanist - existential factors

116
Q

What is the biopsychosocial approach to explaining psychopathology

A

It links experience and biology
Where environmental stress + genetic vulnerability leads to psychopathology

117
Q

what is the statistical approach to defining psychopathology

A

having an attribute or behaviour that deviates substantially from the statistical norm

118
Q

evaluate the statistical approach to defining psychopathology

A

+
offers objectivity and measurability

-
measurement error
extreme values doesn’t imply extreme problem

where is the cut off

119
Q

What is the functional approach to defining psychopathology

A

someone who can’t function normally may be impaired in or maladapted in some way

120
Q

disadvantages to functional approach to defining psychopathology

A

assumes universal needs

maladaptive behaviour might not mean mental illness

121
Q

what is the distress based approach to defining psychopathology

A

based on an individual’s stress or inability to cope with problems
based on one’s own perspective of normality

122
Q

disadvantages of distress based approach to psychopathology

A

doesn’t provide standard by which we should judge the behaviour

risk of medicalising normal reactions to adverse circumstances

123
Q

what is the ‘p’ factor

A

P factor is a general risk factor to a non specific mental health problem

124
Q

what factors are there (groups) to psychopathology

A

externalising group - alcohol, cannabis, drugs, smoking and conduct disorder

internalising group - major depressive disorder, generalised anxiety

thought disorder - OCD, mania, schizophrenia

general psychopathology - P factor

125
Q

what is a co-morbidity

A

simultaneous presence of two or more medical conditions in a patient

126
Q

what is the network theory

A

conceptualises mental disorders as a network of symptoms

127
Q

what are the central principals of clinical psychology research

A

informed consent
minimisation of harm
privacy and confidentiality

128
Q

describe what is meant by informed consent

A

freedom of choice
voluntary
no implicit or explicit coercion
self determination

129
Q

why might it be hard for patients to give informed consent in a clinical setting

A

patients have a fear that refusal may mean withdrawal of treatment/care

offering large financial incentives

blind experiments

competence

130
Q

describe what is meant by minimisation of harm

A

research shouldn’t harm participants

people may expose themselves to potential harm for good of humanity

131
Q

what types of ways may patients come to harm in studies

A

may ask about difficult past experiences
cause distress, embarassment
withholding benefits in RCT
social risk - differences between ethnic or cultural groups

132
Q

what can be done to minimise harm

A

termination/suspension of data collection
wait list control - people get help later but symptoms are measured whilst on waiting list

133
Q

what can be done to protect confidentiality

A

specify what will be done to data
use research codes for anonymity
procedures in place for audio/video recordings

134
Q

what are the four general principles according to BPS

A

respect
competence
responsibility
integrity

135
Q

What are the criteria for generalised anxiety disorder DSM-5

A

excessive anxiety and worry for at least 6 months

associated with at least 3 of the following:
restlessness
easily fatigued
difficulty concentrating
irritability
muscle tension
sleep disturbance

not attributable to any substance or condition

136
Q

why use classification systems

A

they help us understand which things are related to each other and which things are different

helps us to understand causes, identify most appropriate treatments, determine if treatment is effective or not

137
Q

Describe some weakness of methods of assessment of psychological disorders

A

describes observable symptoms, not explain

diagnosis can be stigmatising

diagnosis is categorical

disorders are distinct but often comorbidity is the norm

138
Q

biopsychosocial explanations of drug use

A

a psychic, sometimes physical state resulting from the interaction between a living organism and a drug - characterised by behavioural responses

Includes a compulsion to take a drug on a periodic basis in order to experience its psychic effects

139
Q

what is contingent tolerance

A

tolerance only develops to the effects of the drugw

140
Q

what is conditioned tolerance

A

maximal tolerance effects are seen in the environment where the drug is taken

141
Q

What routes are there for drug administration

A

ingestion - oral

injection - bypasses digestive tract

inhalation - tobacco and marijuana

absorption through mucus membranes - nose and mouth

142
Q

how do people inject drugs

A

subcutaneously SC under the skin

intramuscularly IM into large muscles

intravenously IV into veins directly to the brain

143
Q

What are methods to investigate neural and behavioural basis of drug use

A

self reporting

animal models -
behavioural preference
intra cranial self stimulation
self administration paradigm

144
Q

What does nicotine do

A

binds to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors on dopamine neuron’s

145
Q

what does MDMA do

A

blocks reuptake of serotonin to keep it in the synapse

146
Q

what does LSD do

A

binds to serotonin receptors and interfered with sleep waking systems

147
Q

what does cannabis do

A

it is a primary psychoactive constituent

148
Q

what does alcohol do

A

potentiates action of GABA to increase dopamine

149
Q

How does an analgesic work

A

by activating pain blocking neurons in the spinal cord

150
Q

Why do we take drugs (brain chemistry)

A

Brain imaging (fMRI) shows dopaminergic brain regions become activated by ‘nice things’ so drugs activate dopamine

151
Q

How do we diagnose substance use disorder

A

If they meet any 2 from 11 diagnostic criteria in DSM 5

Three severity categories
mild = 2/3
moderate = 4/5
severe = 6+

someone is addicted if they continue to use drugs despite a sincere intention to do otherwise

152
Q

What are some risk factors of substance use disorder (SUD)

A

Heritability

Comorbidity - smoking/drugs and mental disorders

Traumatic life events - particularly sexual abuse during childhood

153
Q

Why do people take drugs (reasons)

A

to get ‘high’ - heroiine, cocaine, MDMA

increase alertness - nicotine, caffeine

social facilitation - alcohol MDMA, cocaine

alleviate distress - alcohol, heroin, nicotine

154
Q

What is an ‘operant’ behaviour

A

A voluntary behaviour that is maintained by its consequences - people continue to use drugs even when negative effects increase

155
Q

What is compulsive drug use

A

compulsion is evoked to explain addictive behaviour when negative consequences outweigh the positive

156
Q

What is the clinical implication of drugs

A

It may be a brain disease, in which we should target the biological changes caused by drugs using medication

157
Q

what is hypoactive with an addicted brain

A

the prefrontal regions:
anterior cingulate cortex, medial prefrontal cortex,
striatum and other regions

158
Q

What is the flow for drugs to become a habit

A

Stimulus
Outcome (anticipated)
Response

A habit is a shift from SOR to SR

159
Q

What is the dual-process theory

A

Where controlled cognitive processes (intentions to use) and automatic cognitive processes (attentional biases etc.) combine to become substance use

Addiction is when automatic is higher than controlled processes

160
Q

can choice also play a role in addiction

A

Motivation to change is one of the best predictors of recovery

161
Q

List different treatments of substance use disorders

A

talking therapies
self help groups
contingency management
pharmacotherapy
general observation

162
Q

What are types of talking therapies

A

CBT - improves coping skills
Motivational Interviewing - change motivational balance

163
Q

What are types of self help groups

A

AA - Alcoholics Anonymous
Residential rehab - private, expensive, AA principles

164
Q

what pharmacotherapy treatments are there for smoking

A

nicotine replacement, vapes

varenicline - alleviates withdrawal
bupropion - antidepressant

165
Q

what pharmacotherapy treatments are there for heroin

A

methadone - substitute
buprenorphine - longer acting substitute blocks effect of heroin

166
Q

what pharmacotherapy treatments are there for alcohol

A

Naltrexone - blocks effects

Acomprosate - reset GABA and glutamate function

Disulfiram - prevents metabolism of alcohol

167
Q

What are the benefits of general observation as a treatment to substance use

A

reduces motivation to use

increases motivation to abstain

provide people with resources that they need to change their behaviour

168
Q

What is the assumption of the psychodynamic approach to treatment

A

unconscious conflicts originate from early life, evoke defines mechanisms - repression, denial and displacement - which turn into observable symptoms

169
Q

What is the aim of psychodynamic treatment

A

identify unconscious conflicts

bring them to awareness

170
Q

Technicques of psychodynamic therapy

A

free association - trigger words
psychoanalysis
dream analysis

171
Q

What is the structure of an average psychodynamic treatment

A

highly variable, 3-5 sessions per week over many years

172
Q

What is the assumption for the behaviour therapy approach to treatment (psychopathology)

A

many psychological disorders come from faulty learning - involving classic pavlovian and operant instrumental conditioning

173
Q

What are the aims of behaviour therapy

A

using associative learning principles, to unless/relearn associations

174
Q

Techniques of behaviour therapy and type of associative learning

A

Exposure therapy - classical

contingency management - operant

aversion therapy - classic al

response shaping - operant

175
Q

What is the assumption with CBT treatment in psychopathology

A

there is a distorted way of thinking and cognitive biases cause symptoms

176
Q

What is the aim of CBT

A

to change the dysfunction cognitions that underlie psychological disorders

177
Q

What are some techniques of CBT

A

Challenging dysfunctional beliefs

Replacing with more rational and healthy beliefs

testing out new beliefs

178
Q

What types of CBT are there

A

Mindfulness-based CBT

Acceptance and Commitment therapy

179
Q

What is the assumption with humanistic therapies in psychopathology

A

that it is important to consider the person as a whole rather than specific behaviours and emotions that are ‘disordered’ - holistic

180
Q

What are the aims of humanistic therapies

A

to encourage a client to find their own solutions and enable them to move from a negative to a positive state

181
Q

What are some techniques of humanistic therapies

A

Unconditional positive regard - non judgemental

non directive = active listening

client centered therapy

182
Q

What is an assumption of family/systemic therapies as a treatment of psychopathology

A

psychological disorders arise from dysfunctional relations and communications between close family members

183
Q

what are some aims and techniques of family/systemic therapies

A

therapist leads discussion with the patient and close family members

184
Q

What are the assumptions of pharmacotherapies

A

psychological disorders are caused by brain dysfunction that can be correct/alleviated by medication

185
Q

What are some techniques of pharmacotherapies

A

GABA - Valium, Zolpidem (anxiolytic) for anxiety

SSRI’s - antidepressant for depression

Antipsychotics / neuroleptics - for schizophrenia/bipolar

186
Q

What are the goals of treatment

A

relief from distress

increase self awareness and insight

teach coping skills

identify root cause

187
Q

What ways are treatments delivered

A

One to one
group therapy
computerised
E - therapy
mobile apps
telephone / video conference

188
Q

What counts as a success

A

remission vs improvement

change in emotion/behaviour

self reported improvement

189
Q

What treatments work best for psychopathology

A

Most if not all therapies are more effective than control conditions

190
Q

What are common factors shared across different treatments that contribute to their effectiveness

A

therapeutic alliance - relationship between therapist and client

empathy and active listening

hope and expectation

goal setting

psychoeducation

feedback and monitoring

emotional express and catharsis

191
Q

what is a case study in terms of evaluating treatment of psychopathology

A

detailed report of treatment provided to an individual patient/outcome

improvement, remission or detoriation

192
Q

What is a case series in terms of evaluating treatment of psychopathology

A

descriptive report of treatment and patient outcomes in groups of patients who have received different types of treatment

193
Q

What factors make it difficult to determine whether a treatment works in the way that it’s intended

A

spontaneous remission, placebo effects and structured social support