Neuroscience Flashcards

1
Q

Define encephalitis.

A

Inflammation of the brain parenchyma.

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2
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of encephalitis.

A

Causes:

  • VIRAL - e.g. HSV, herpes zoster, mumps, adenovirus, coxsackie, echovirus, enteroviruses, measles, EBV, HIV, rabies (Asia), Nipah (Malasia), arboviruses transmitted by mosquitos (Jap B encephalitis - Asia, St Louis and West Nile encephalitis - USA)
  • NON-VIRAL - e.g. syphillis, Staphylococcus aureus
  • IMMUNOCOMPROMISED - e.g. CMV, toxoplasmosis, Listeria
  • AUTOIMMUNE OR PARANEOPLASTIC - associated with antibodies - e.g. anti-NMDA or anti-VGKC
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3
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of encephalitis.

A

7.4 in 100,000 in UK

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4
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of encephalitis.

A
  • Can be mild and self-limiting
  • Subacute onset (hours to days)
  • Headache
  • Fever
  • Vomiting
  • Neck stiffness
  • Photophobia - i.e. symptoms of meningism (meningoencephalitis)
  • Behavioural changes
  • Drowsiness
  • Confusion
  • History of seizures
  • Focal neurological symptoms - e.g. dysphagia, hemiplegia
  • DETAILED TRAVEL HISTORY
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5
Q

Recognise the signs of encephalitis on physical examination.

A
  • Reduced level of consciousness with deteriorating GCS
  • Seizures
  • Pyrexia
  • Neck stiffness
  • Photophobia
  • Kernig’s test positive
  • Hypertension
  • Bradycardia
  • Papilloedema
  • Focal neurological signs - e.g. dysphagia, hemiplegia
  • Minimental examination may reveal cognitive or psychiatric disturbances

NB: Raised intracranial signs and meningism signs.

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6
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for encephalitis and interpret the results.

A
  1. Bloods
  2. MRI / CT
  3. Lumbar Puncture
  4. EEG
  5. Brain Biopsy

Bloods

  • FBC - high lymphocytes
  • U&E - SIADH may occur
  • Glucose - compare with CSF glucose
  • Viral serology
  • ABG

MRI / CT

  • Excludes mass lesion
  • HSV produces characteristic oedema of the temporal lobe on MRI

Lumbar Puncture

  • High lymphocytes
  • High monocytes
  • High protein
  • Glucose usually normal
  • CSF culture difficult
  • Viral PCR now first line

EEG

  • Epileptiform activity
  • E.g. spiking activity in temporal lobes

Brain Biopsy
- Rarely performed

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7
Q

Define epilepsy.

A

> 2 seizures.

Seizure = paroxysmal synchronised cortical electrical discharges.

Focal Seizures

  • Localised to specific cortical regions
  • Temporal lobe, frontal lobe, occipital, complex partial
  • Simple partial - does not affect consciousness
  • Simple complex - does affect consciousness

Generalised Seizures

  • Affect consciousness
  • Tonic clonic, absence attacks, myoclonic, atonic (drop attacks), tonic seizures
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8
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of epilepsy.

A

Result from an imbalansce in the inhibitory and excitatory currents (Na+ or K+) or neurotransmittors (glutamate or GABA) in the brain. Can be precipitated or are cryptogenic.

Precipitants:

  • Flashing lights
  • Drugs
  • Sleep deprivation
  • Metabolic

Idiopathic.

Primary Syndromes

  • Idiopathic generalized epilepsy
  • Temporal lobe epilepsy
  • Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

Secondary Seizures (Symptomatic)

  • Tumour
  • Infection - meningitis, encephalitis, abscess
  • Inflammation - vasculitis, multiple sclerosis
  • Toxic / metabolic - sodium imbalance, hyperglycaemia, hypoglycaemia, hypocalcaemia, hypoxia, porphyria, liver failure
  • Drugs - alcohol withdrawal, benzodiazepine withdrawal
  • Vascular - haemorrhage, infarction
  • Congenital anomalies - cortical dysplasia
  • Neurodegenerative disease - Alzheimer’s disease
  • Malignant hypertension or eclampsia
  • Trauma

Common Seizure Mimics

  • Syncope
  • Migrane
  • Non-epileptiform seizure disorder (e.g. dissociative disorder)
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9
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of epilepsy.

A

Common.

1% of general population.

Peak age of onset is in early childhood or in elderly.

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10
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of epilepsy.

A

Obtain history from a witness as well as a patient.

Key features from history to determine seizure semiology:

  • Rapidity of onset?
  • Duration of episode?
  • Any alteration of consciousness?
  • Any tongue-biting or incontinence?
  • Any rhythmic synchronous limb jerking?
  • Any post-ictal period?
  • Drug history - alcohol, recreational drugs

FOCAL SEIZURES

  • Frontal lobe focal motor seizures - motor convulsions, Jacksonian march (spasm spreads from mouth or digit), post-ictal flaccid weakness (Todd’s paralysis)
  • Temporal lobe seizures - aura (visceral and psychic symptoms, fear or deja-vu sensation), hallucinations (olfactory, gustatory)
  • Frontal lobe complex partial seizures - loss of consciousness, automatisms, rapid recovery

GENERALISED SEIZURES

  • Tonic-clonic (grand mal) - vague symptoms before attack (irritability), tonic phase (generalised muscle spasm), clonic phase (repetitive synchronous jerks), faecal or urinary incontinence, tongue biting, impaired consciousness, lethargy, confusion, headache, back pain, stiffness afterwards
  • Non-convulsive status epilepticus - acute confusional state, fluctuating, difficult to distinguish from dementia
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11
Q

Recognise the signs of epilepsy on physical examination.

A

Depends on aetiology, usually normal between seizures.

Look for focal abnormalities indicative of brain lesions.

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12
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for epilepsy and interpret the results.

A

Bloods

  • FBC, U&E, LFTs
  • Glucose, Ca2+, Mg2+
  • ABG, toxicology screen
  • Prolactin - transient increase shortly after a true seizure

EEG

  • Helps confirm or refute the diagnosis
  • Assists in clarifying the epileptic syndrome
  • Usually performed inter-ictally and often normal and does not rule out epilepsy
  • Ictal EEGs combined with video telemetry are more useful but requires adequate facilities

CT / MRI
- For structural, space-occupying and vascular lesions

Others

  • Particularly for secondary seizures according to suspected aetiology
  • E.g. lumbar puncture, HIV serology
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13
Q

Generate a management plan for epilepsy.

A

STATUS EPILEPTICUS: seizure lasting longer than 30 minutes, failure to regain consciousness

  • Early treatment has higher success - give at 5-10 minutes
  • Resuscitate and protect airway, breathing and circulation
  • Check glucose and give if hypoglycaemic
  • Consider thiamine
  • IV lorazepam or IV/PR diazepam - repeat once after 15 minutes if needed
  • Reoccur or fail to respond- give IV phenytoin (15mg/kg) under ECG monitoring
  • Alternative IV agents - phenobarbitone, levetiracetam, sodium valproate
  • If these measures fail, consider general anaesthesia - requires intubation and mechanical ventilation
  • Treat cause - e.g. correct hypoglycaemia or hyponatraemia
  • Check plasma levels of all anticonvulsants

PHARMACOLOGICAL TREATMENT

  • Only start anti-convulsant therapy after >2 unprovoked seizures
  • Lamotrigine or carbamazepine - 1st line focal seizures
  • Sodium valproate - 1st line generalised seizures
  • Others - phenytoin, levetiracetam, clobazam, topiramate, gabapentin, vigabatrin, ethosuximide (absence)
  • Start treatment with single anti-epileptic drug (AED)

PATIENT EDUCATION

  • Patient education
  • Avoid triggers - e.g. alcohol
  • Encourage seizure diaries
  • Recommend supervision for swimming or climbing
  • Driving only permitted if seizure free for 6 months
  • Women of childbearing age should be counselled regarding possible teratogenic effects of AEDs and should consider taking supplemental folate to limit the risk
  • Drug interactions can limit the effectiveness of oral contraception

SURGERY

  • For refractory epilepsy
  • Removal of definable epileptogenic focus - determined from detailed EEG, intra-cortical recordings, ictal SPECT, neuropsychometry
  • Vagus nerve stimulator
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14
Q

Identify the possible complications of epilepsy (including status epilepticus) and its management.

A
  • Fractures with tonic-clonic seizures
  • Behavioural problems
  • Sudden death in epilepsy (SUDEP)
  • Complications of AEDs

SE of phenytoin = gingivial hypertrophy

SE of carbamazepine = neutropenia, osteoporosis

SE of lamotrigine = Stevens-Johnson syndrome

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15
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with epilepsy.

A

50% remission at 1 year

Mortality 2 in 100,000 per year
Directly related to seizure or secondary to injury

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16
Q

Define extradural haemorrhage.

A

Aka epidural haematoma.

Collection of blood that forms between the inner surface of the skull and outer layer of the dura, which is called the endosteal layer.

Associated with a history of head trauma and associated skull fracture.

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17
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of extradural haemorrhage.

A

Causes:

  • Traumatic skull fracture - to a temple just lateral to the eye - temporal or parietal bone
  • Laceration of middle meningeal artery and vein
  • Tear in dural venous sinus

Differentials - epilepsy, carotid dissection, carbon monoxide poisoning.

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18
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of extradural haemorrhage.

A

2% of all head injuries

15% of all fatal head traumas

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19
Q

Recognise the signs of extradural haemorrhage on physical examination.

A
  • Deteriorating consciousness after head injury
  • No initial loss of consciousness
  • Initial drowsiness post injury seems to have resolved
  • Lucid interval pattern - lasts a few hours to a few days before reducing GCS from raised ICP
  • Severe headache
  • Vomiting
  • Confusion
  • Seizures
  • Hemiparesis with brisk reflexes and upgoing plantar

If bleeding continues:

  • Ipsilateral pupil dilation
  • Coma deepening
  • Bilateral limb weakness
  • Breathing becomes deep and irregular due to brainstem compression
  • Death following period of coma due to respiratory arrest
  • Bradycardia and high BP are late signs
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20
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of extradural haemorrhage.

A
  • Deteriorating consciousness after head injury
  • No initial loss of consciousness
  • Initial drowsiness post injury seems to have resolved
  • Lucid interval pattern - lasts a few hours to a few days before reducing GCS from raised ICP
  • Severe headache
  • Vomiting
  • Confusion
  • Seizures
  • Hemiparesis with brisk reflexes and upgoing plantar

If bleeding continues:

  • Ipsilateral pupil dilation
  • Coma deepening
  • Bilateral limb weakness
  • Breathing becomes deep and irregular due to brainstem compression
  • Death following period of coma due to respiratory arrest
  • Bradycardia and high BP are late signs
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21
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for extradural haemorrhage and interpret the results.

A

CT

  • Shows haematoma lens-shaped / biconvex
  • Rounded blood shape

NB: Sickle-shaped subdural haematoma as touch dural attachments to skull keep it more localized

Skull X-RAY

  • Normal
  • Fracture lines crossing course of middle meningeal vessels

LUMBAR PUNCTURE IS CONTRAINDICATED.

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22
Q

Define meningitis.

A

Inflammation of the leptomeningeal (pia mater and arachnoid) coverings of the brain, most commonly caused by infection.

Aseptic meningitis - characterised by clinical and laboratory evidence for meningeal inflammation and negative routine bacterial culture

Mollaret’s meningitis - recurrent benign lymphocytic meningitis

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23
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of meningitis.

A

Bacterial

  • Neonates - Group B streptococci, Escherichia coli, Listeria monocytogenes
  • Children - Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Adults - Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus), Streptococcus pneumonia, tuberculosis
  • Elderly - Streptococcus pneumoniae, Listeria monocytogenes

Viral

  • Enteroviruses
  • Mumps
  • HSV
  • VZV
  • HIV

Fungal
- Cryptococcus - associated with HIV infection

Aseptic Meningitis

  • Enterovirus, mycobacteria, fungi, spirochetes
  • Autoimmune - e.g. Sarcoidosis, Behcet’s disease, Systemic lupus erythematosus
  • Malignancy - lymphoma, leukaemia, metastatic carcinomas
  • Medication - NSAIDs, trimethoprim, azathioprine

Mollaret’s Meningitis

  • 50% exhibit transient neurological manifestations
  • HSV-2
  • Large granular plasma cells on Papnicolaou’s stain, PCR for HSV DNA
  • Treat with acyclovir

Risk Factors:

  • Close communities - e.g. dormitories
  • Basal skull fractures
  • Mastoiditis
  • Sinusitis
  • Inner ear infections
  • Alcoholism
  • Immunodeficiency
  • Splenectomy
  • Sickle cell anaemia
  • CSF shunts
  • Intracranial surgery
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24
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of meningitis.

A

Variation according to geography, age, social conditions.

UK Public Health Laboratory Service receives approx 2500 notifications / year.

Recent visitors to Haj (meningococcal serogroup W135).

Epidemics occur in the meningitis belt of Africa (meningococcal serogroup A).

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25
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of meningitis.

A
  • Severe headache
  • Photophobia
  • Neck or backache
  • Irritability
  • Drowsiness
  • Vomiting
  • High-pitched crying or fits (common in children)
  • Clouding of consciousness
  • Fever

Check travel and exposure history:

  • Rodents - lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus
  • Ticks - Lyme borrelia, Rocky Mountain spotted fever
  • Mosquitoes - West Nile virus, St. Louis encephalitis virus
  • Sexual activity - HSV-2, HIV, syphilis
  • Travel - C.immitis, A.cantonensis
  • Contact with other individuals with vrial exanthems - enteroviruses
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26
Q

Recognise the signs of meningitis on physical examination.

A

Signs of Meningism:

  • Photophobia
  • Neck stiffness
  • Kernig’s sign - with hips flexed, pain / resistance on passive knee extension
  • Brudzinski’s sign - flexion of hips on neck flexion

Signs of Infection

  • Fever
  • Tachycardia
  • Hypotension
  • Skin rash - petechiae with meningococcal septicaemia
  • Altered mental state
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27
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for meningitis. and interpret the results.

A
  1. Bloods
  2. Imaging
  3. Lumbar Punctre
  4. viral
  5. TB

Bloods
- 2 sets of blood cultures - do not delay antibiotics

Imaging

  • CT scan to exclude a mass lesion or raised intracranial pressure before LP
  • LP may lead to cerebral herniation due to subsequent CSF removal
  • CT head before LP in patents with immunodeficiency, history of CNS disease, reduced consciousness, fit, focal nerologic deficit, papilloedema

LP

  • Note opening CSF pressure
  • Send for microscopy with culture, sensitivity, Gram staining, biochemistry, cytology
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae - Gram-positive diplococcic
  • Neisseria Meningitidis - gram-negative diplococcic

Bacterial

  • Cloudy CSF
  • Increased neutrophils
  • Increased protein
  • Reduced glucose
  • CSF serum glucose ratio of <0.5

Virus

  • Increased lymphocytes
  • Increased protein
  • Normal glucose

TB

  • Fibrinous CSF
  • Increased lymphocytes
  • Increased protein
  • Reduced glucose

Staining of petechiae scrapings may detect meningococcus in 70%.
Additional studies - e.g. viral PCR, staining / culture for mycobacteria and fungi, HIV test depending on the clinical presentation / CSF findings.

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28
Q

Generate a management plan for meningitis.

A
  1. IMMEDIATE ANTIBIOTICS IV or IM
  • If meningitis suspected before lumbar puncture or CT
  • 3rd generation cephalosporin - cefotaxime 2g QDS or ceftriaxone 2g BD
  • Benzylpenicillin - initial blind therapy, sensitive meningococci and pneumococci
  • Listeria = amoxicillin + gentamicin
  • Penicillin & Cephalosporin resistant pneumococci = + vancomycin + rifampicin
  • History of anaphylaxis to penicillin or cephalosporins = chloramphenicol
  • Patients treated with benzylpenicillin or chloramphenicol = 2 days rifampicin (eliminate nasopharyngeal carriage)
  1. DEXAMETHASONE IV
  • 10mg QDS for 4 days
  • Given shortly before or with first dose of antibiotics
  • Continue in pneumococcal or H. influenzae meningitis - reduce complications of death (pneumococcal) and hearing loss (H.influenzae)
  • Avoid dexamethasone if HIV suspected
  1. RESUSCITATION
    - ITU
  2. PREVENTION
  • Notify public health services
  • Consult a consultant in communicable disease control for advice regarding chemoprophylaxis - e.g. rifampicin for 2 days
  • Vaccination for close contacts
  • Vaccination against meningococcal serogroups A and C (none for B)
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29
Q

Identify the possible complications of meningitis and its management.

A
  • Septicaemia
  • Shock
  • DIC
  • Renal failure
  • Fits
  • Peripheral gangrene
  • Cerebral oedema
  • Cranial nerve lesions
  • Cerebral venous thrombosis
  • Hydrocephalus
  • Water house - Friderichsen Syndrome - bilateral adrenal haemorrhage
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30
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with meningitis.

A

Bacterial meningitis mortality at 10-40% with meningococcal sepsis.

In developing countries - higher mortality rate

Viral meningitis - self-limiting

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31
Q

Define subarachnoid haemorrhage.

A

Arterial haemorrhage into the subarachnoid space.

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32
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of subarachnoid haemorrhage.

A
  • Rupture of a saccular aneurysms at the base of the brain - usually at Circle of Willis (85%).
  • Permesencephalic haemorrhage - e.g. parenchymal haemorrhages tracking onto surface of brain (10%)
  • Arteriovenous malformations
  • Bleeding diatheses
  • Vertebral or carotid artery dissection with intracranial extension
  • Mycotic aneurysms
  • Drug abuse - e.g. cocaine, amphetamines

Associated with:

  • Hypertension
  • Smoking
  • Excess alcohol intake
  • Polycystic kidney disease
  • Marfan’s Syndrome
  • Peseudoxanthoma elasticum
  • Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
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33
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of subarachnoid haemorrhage.

A

Incidence 10 in 100,000

Peak incidence = 50-60 years

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34
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of subarachnoid haemorrhage.

A
  • Sudden onset severe headache - hit at the back of the head
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Neck stiffness
  • Photophobia
  • Reduced level of consciousness
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35
Q

Recognise the signs of subarachnoid haemorrhage on physical examination.

A

Meningism

  • Neck stiffness
  • Kernig’s sign - resistence or pain on knee extension when hip is flexes
  • Irritation of meninges by blood
  • Pyrexia

GCS
- Assess and regularly monitor for deterioration

Increased intracranial pressure

  • Papilloedema
  • IV or III cranial nerve palsy
  • Hypertension
  • Bradycardia

Fundoscopy
- Subhyaloid haemorrhage - between retina and vitreous membrane

Focal Neurological Signs

  • 2nd day
  • Ischaemia from vasospasm and reduced brain perfusion
  • Aneurysms - pressure on cranial nerves causing opthalmoplegia (III or VI nerve palsy)
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36
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for subarachnoid haemorrhage and interpret the results.

A
  • Bloods - FBC, U&E, ESR, CRP, Clotting (?bleeding diathesis)
  • CT
  • Angiography (CT or intra-arterial)
  • LP

CT

  • Hyperdense area in basal regions of the skull - due to blood in subarachnoid space
  • Identifies any intraparenchymal or intraventricular haemorrhages

Angiography
- To detect the source of bleeding if the patient is a candidate for surgery or endovascular treatment

LP

  • Increased opening pressure
  • Increased red cells
  • Few white cells
  • Xanthochromia - straw-coloured CSF due to Hb breakdown
  • Confirmed by spectrophotometry of CSF supernatant after centrifugation
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37
Q

Define subdural haemorrhage.

A

A collection of blood that develops between the surface of the brain and the dura mater.

Acute - within 72h
Subacute - 3-20 days
Chronic - 3 weeks

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38
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of subdural haemorrhage.

A

Trauma causing rapid acceleration and deceleration of the brain results in shearing forces which tear veins (bridging veins) that travel from the dura to the cortex.

Bleeding occurs between the dura and arachnoid membranes.

In children, non-accidental injury should always be considered.

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39
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of subdural haemorrhage.

A

Acute

  • Younger patients
  • Associated with major trauma (5-25% of cases in severe head injury)

More common than extradural haemorrhage.

Chronic

  • Elderly
  • 1-5 per 100,000
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40
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of subdural haemorrhage.

A

Acute

  • History of trauma with head injury
  • Patient has reduced conscious level

Subacute

  • Worsening headaches 7-14 days after injury
  • Altered mental status

Chronic

  • Headache
  • Confusion
  • Cognitive impairment
  • Psychiatric symptoms
  • Gait deterioration
  • Focal weakness
  • Seizures

May not be a history of fall or trauma, hence low index of suspicion especially in elderly and alcoholics.

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41
Q

Recognise the signs of subdural haemorrhage on physical examination.

A

Acute

  • Low GCS
  • Midline shift haematoma - ipsilateral fixed dilated pupil (compression of ipsilateral third nerve parasympathetic fibres)
  • Pressure on brainstem results in reduced consciousness and bradycardia

Chronic

  • Neurological examination may be normal
  • Focal neurological signs - III or VI nerve dysfunction, papilloedema, hemiparesis, reflex asymmetry
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42
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for subdural haemorrhage and interpret the results.

A

CT Head

  • Crescent or sickle-shaped mass
  • Concave over brain surface - extradural is lentiform in shape
  • CT appearance changes with time
  • Acute - hyperdense, become isodense over 1-3 weeks (presence may be inferred from effacement of sulci, midline shift, ventricular compression, obliteration of basal cisterns)
  • Chronic - hypodense - approach that of CSF

MRI Brain
- Higher sensitivity for isodense or small SDH

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43
Q

Generate a management plan for subdural haemorrhage.

A

Acute

  • ALS protocol with priorities of cervical spine control and ABC
  • GCS, pupillary reactivity
  • If signs of raised ICP, head elevation and consider osmotic diuresis with mannitol or hyperventilation
  • Stabilise - then CT head

Conservative

  • Especially if small and minimal midline shift
  • SDH <10 mm thickness
  • Midline shift <5mm

Surgical

Chronic

  • If symptomatic or mass effect on imaging - surgical treatment with Burr hole, craniotomy, drainage (24-72h)
  • If asymptomatic or no significant mass effect - conservative management, serial imaging to monitor for spontaneous resorption
  • May require craniotomy with membranectomy if haematoma does not fully liquify

Children

  • Percutaneous aspiration via open fontanelle
  • Placement of subdural to peritoneal shunt
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44
Q

Identify the possible complications of subdural haemorrhage and its management.

A
  • Raised ICP
  • Cerebral oedema
  • Secondary ischaemic brain damage
  • Mass effect - transtentorial or uncal herniation

Post-Op

  • Seizures
  • Recurrence (33% for SDH)
  • Intracranial haemorrhage
  • Subdural empyema
  • Brain abscess
  • Meningitis
  • Tension pneumocephalus
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45
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with subdural haemorrhage.

A

Acute
- Underlying brain injury most important factor on outcome

Chronic

  • Generally better outcome than acute
  • Lower incidence of underlying brain injury
  • Good outcomes in 3/4 of those treated by surgery
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46
Q

Define CNS tumours.

= Meningioma, Acoustic neuroma, Medulloblastoma, Astrocytic brain tumour, Craniopharyngioma, Primary CNS lymphoma, Non-functional pituitary adenoma, Acromegaly, Cushing’s, Prolactinoma

A

A brain tumour is an abnormal growth occuring in any tissue contained within the cranium, including the brain, cranial nerves, meninges, skull, pituitary gland and pineal gland.

May be benign or malignant and originate from within the cranium (primary) or from a metastatic tumour found elsewhere (secondary).

Present with signs of raised ICP and gait abnormality.

Meningioma:
- Primary tumour of cranial and spinal compartments

Acoustic Neuroma (Vesticular Schwannoma):
- Benign, slow-growing cerebellopontine angle tumour that grows from the superior vestibular component of the vestibulocochlear nerve

Medulloblastoma:
- Malignant, invasive brain tumour arising from cerebellar vermis

Astrocytic Brain Tumours:

  • Primary tumour of the brain arising from astrocytes, which are an important part of the blood-brain barrier
  • A neuroepithelial type tumour categorised by histological type and grade with each subtype having different age-adjusted incidence rate, behaviour and clinical course

Craniopharyngioma:
- Benign extra-axial non-glial epithelial tumours of the CNS

Acromegaly:
- Due to pituitary somatotroph adenoma in 99% of cases

Cushing’s Disease :
- Hypercortisolism caused by an ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma

Prolactinoma:
- Benign, prolactin-expressing and secreting pituitary adenoma

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47
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of CNS tumours.

= Meningioma, Acoustic neuroma, Medulloblastoma, Astrocytic brain tumour, Craniopharyngioma, Primary CNS lymphoma, Non-functional pituitary adenoma, Acromegaly, Cushing’s, Prolactinoma

A
Acoustic Neuroma (Vesticular Schwannoma):
- Neurofibromatosis Type 2 - autosomal dominant 

Craniopharyngioma:
- Arise within the sellar / suprasellar space

Primary CNS lymphoma:

  • Immunosuppression
  • HIV infection
  • EBV infection

Non-functional pituitary adenoma:
- Multiple endocrine neoplasia Type 1 (MEN-1)

Acromegaly:

  • Pituitary somatotroph adenomas chronically secrete excessive GH
  • Stimulates IGF-1 production
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48
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of CNS tumours.

= Meningioma, Acoustic neuroma, Medulloblastoma, Astrocytic brain tumour, Craniopharyngioma, Primary CNS lymphoma, Non-functional pituitary adenoma, Acromegaly, Cushing’s, Prolactinoma

A

Meningioma:

  • Represent over 36% of primary brain tumours, 53.5% of all non-malignant tumours
  • More common in women and usually benign

Medulloblastoma:

  • Usually in first 2 decades of life
  • Common brain tumours of childhood

Astrocytic Brain Tumours:

  • Common in industrial countries
  • White males

Craniopharyngioma:

  • Both children and adults
  • Presents at any age
  • Bimodal age distribution - peak between 5-14 years and 50-70 years

Primary CNS lymphoma:

  • <1% of all non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
  • Uncommon

Prolactinoma:
- Women during childbearing years

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49
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of CNS tumours.

= Meningioma, Acoustic neuroma, Medulloblastoma, Astrocytic brain tumour, Craniopharyngioma, Primary CNS lymphoma, Non-functional pituitary adenoma, Acromegaly, Cushing’s, Prolactinoma

A

Meningioma:

  • Neurological deficit
  • Progressive, focal or general headaches in large tumours
  • Visible bony growth

Acoustic Neuroma (Vesticular Schwannoma):

  • Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss
  • Found on routine hearing examinations
  • Progressive dizziness
  • Unilateral facial numbness

Medulloblastoma:

  • Due to mass effect from tumour or due to obstructive hydrocephalus
  • Morning headaches
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting (relieving headaches)
  • Diplopia - 6th nerve palsy
  • Ataxia

Astrocytic Brain Tumours:

  • Focal neurological defecits according to location
  • Signs of raised ICP

Craniopharyngioma:

  • Mass effect symptoms
  • Visual loss
  • Symptoms of ICP
  • Pituitary dysfunction
  • Children - growth failure
  • Adults - diabetes insipidus and sexual dysfunction

Non-functional pituitary adenoma:

  • Features of hormonal insufficiency
  • Longstanding and progress slowly

Prolactinoma:

  • Hyperprolactinaemia
  • Hypogonadism
  • Sexual dysfunction
  • Galactorrhoea
  • Hypopituitarism
  • Osteoporosis
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50
Q

Recognise the signs of CNS tumours on physical examination.

= Meningioma, Acoustic neuroma, Medulloblastoma, Astrocytic brain tumour, Craniopharyngioma, Primary CNS lymphoma, Non-functional pituitary adenoma, Acromegaly, Cushing’s, Prolactinoma

A

PITUITARY MASS ASSESSMENT

  • 2 type
  • Clinically Non-functional Adenoma (CNFA) - no hypersecretion of hormone
  • Functional Adenoma - hypersecretion of hormone

Functional:

  • Acromegaly
  • Cushing’s disease
  • Prolactinoma

Compression of adjacent structures:

  • Visual disturbances
  • Ophthalmoplegia
  • Headaches

ACUTE HEADACHE ASSESSMENT:

  • Most with a benign diagnosis
  • HIgh index of suspicion
  • Brain tumours causing headaches seen on non-enhancing contrast CT
  • 0.7-1.3% of all paeds emergency visits
  • 62% of patients with childhood brain tumours have a headache, 98% have 1 neurological symptom on exam

ATAXIA ASSESSMENT:

  • Hereditary or acquired
  • Cerebellar, sensory or vestibular
  • Extensive list of acquired causes - e.g. vascular, demyelinating, neoplastic, autoimmune, toxic, degenerative, compressive, infectious aetiologies

HYPERPROLACTINAEMIA

  • Prolactinomas - micro or macroadenomas
  • Acromegaly
  • Interruption of the hypothalamic-pituitary axis

SHORT STATURE

  • Craniopharyngioma
  • Cushing’s syndrome during childhood
  • Symptoms of Craniopharyngioma: Diplopia, vision loss, headache, short stature
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51
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for CNS tumours and interpret the results.

= Meningioma, Acoustic neuroma, Medulloblastoma, Astrocytic brain tumour, Craniopharyngioma, Primary CNS lymphoma, Non-functional pituitary adenoma, Acromegaly, Cushing’s, Prolactinoma

A

Meningioma:

  • MRI with and without contrast enhancement
  • Asymptomatic lesions followed up with serial observation
Acoustic Neuroma (Vesticular Schwannoma):
- Gadolinium-enhanced MRI

Medulloblastoma:
- Cranial CT and MRI

Astrocytic Brain Tumours:
- Cranial imaging with surgical biopsy

Craniopharyngioma:

  • Crania CT / MRI
  • Full endocrine evaluation

Primary CNS lymphoma:

  • Cranial CT
  • Clinical history
  • LP & CSF analysis

Non-functional pituitary adenoma:

  • Endocrine evaluation
  • Cranial imaging

Acromegaly:
- IGF-1 hypersecretion biochemical confirmation

Cushing’s Disease :

  • Demonstration of unsuppressed ACTH
  • Cranial MRI

Prolactinoma:

  • Assessment of serum prolactin levels
  • Cranial imaging
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52
Q

Define lumbosacral radiculopathy.

A

A disorder that causes pain in the lower back and hip, which radiates down the back of the thigh into the leg.

Describes a predictable constellation of symptoms occuring secondary to mechanical and/or inflammatory cycles compromising at least one of the lumbosacral nerve roots.

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53
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of radiculopathy.

A

Damage caused by compression fo nerve roots exiting spine at levels L1-S4.
Most disc herniations occur posterolaterally, root that gets compressed is actually the root that exists the foramen below the herniated disc. Protrusion at L4/L5 will compress L5 root, protrusion at L5/S1 will compress S1 root.

Most common in lower back and neck = lumbar-sacral, cervical.

Majority of cases are benign and will resolve spontaneously.

Risk factors:

  • Activities placing an excessive or repetitive load on spine
  • Heavy labour
  • Contact sports
  • Age 45-64 yrs
  • Smoking
  • Mental stress
  • Frequent lifting
  • Driving - vibration of whole body

Causes:

  • Lesions of intervertebral discs and degenerative disease of spine
  • Herniated disc with nerve root compression
  • Tumours
  • Congenital abnormalities
  • Scoliosis
  • Osteomyelitis
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54
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of radiculopathy.

A

3-5% prevalence rate.

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55
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of radiculopathy.

A
  • Tingling
  • Radiating pain
  • Numbness
  • Paraesthesia
  • Shooting pain
  • Gait abnormalities
  • Predictable patterns affecting corresponding dermatome or myotome.

Sciatica:

  • Unilateral leg pain greater than lower back pain
  • Leg pain follows dermatomal pattern
  • Pain traveling below knee to foot or toes
  • Numbness and paraesthesia
  • Straight leg raise positive - induces more pain
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56
Q

Recognise the signs of radiculopathy on physical examination.

A
  • Tingling
  • Radiating pain
  • Numbness
  • Paraesthesia
  • Shooting pain
  • Gait abnormalities
  • Predictable patterns affecting corresponding dermatome or myotome.

Sciatica:

  • Unilateral leg pain greater than lower back pain
  • Leg pain follows dermatomal pattern
  • Pain traveling below knee to foot or toes
  • Numbness and paraesthesia
  • Straight leg raise positive - induces more pain
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57
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for radiculopathy and interpret the results.

A

DDX:

  • Radicular syndrome/ sciatica
  • Pseuoradicular syndrome
  • Thoracic disc injuries
  • Low back pain
  • Cauda equina
  • Inflammatory / metabolic causes - e.g. diabetes, ankylosing spondylitis, Paget’s disease, Arachnoiditis, Sarcoidosis
  • Trochanteric bursitis
  • Intraspinal synovial cysts

CXR - presence of trauma or osteoarthritis, signs of tumour or infection
EMG - detect radiculopathies, limited utility in diagnosis
MRI - see if disc herniation and nerve root compression are present

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58
Q

Define Bell’s Palsy.

A

An acute unilateral peripheral facial nerve palsy in patients for whom physical examination and history are otherwise unremarkable, consisting of deficits affecting all facial zones equally that fully evolve within 72 hours.

DIAGNOSIS OF EXCLUSION.

Facial palsy of an otherwise known aetiology (e.g., Lyme disease-associated facial palsy), or facial palsy that is progressive, waxing and waning, or affects facial zones in an uneven fashion, is not Bell’s palsy..

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59
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of Bell’s palsy.

A

Acute unilateral facial palsy of probable viral aetiology.

Risk factors:

  • Intranasal influenza vaccination
  • Pregnancy
  • URTI
  • Black or Hispanic ancestry
  • Arid / cold climate
  • HTN
  • Family history
  • Diabetes
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60
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Bell’s palsy.

A

Most population studies generally show an annual incidence of 15–30 cases per 100,000 population. Bell palsy is thought to account for approximately 60–75% of cases of acute unilateral facial paralysis, with the right side affected 63% of the time. It can also be recurrent, with a reported recurrence range of 4–14%

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61
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Bell’s palsy.

A
  • Single episode
  • Unilateral
  • Absence of constitutional symptoms
  • Involvement of all facial nerve branches
  • Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eye)
  • Pain
  • Synkinesis (late Bell’s palsy) - involuntary and abnormal synchronous movement
  • Any age
  • Hyperacusis - unusual sensitivity to sound ipsilateral to facial palsy due to insult to branchial efferents of stapedius muscle
  • Dysgeusia - taste disturbance of ipsilateral anterior 2/3rds of tongue
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62
Q

Recognise the signs of Bell’s palsy on physical examinstion.

A
  • Single episode
  • Unilateral
  • Absence of constitutional symptoms
  • Involvement of all facial nerve branches
  • Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eye)
  • Pain
  • Synkinesis (late Bell’s palsy) - involuntary and abnormal synchronous movement
  • Any age
  • Hyperacusis - unusual sensitivity to sound ipsilateral to facial palsy due to insult to branchial efferents of stapedius muscle
  • Dysgeusia - taste disturbance of ipsilateral anterior 2/3rds of tongue
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63
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Bell’s palsy and interpret the results.

A

1st Line:

  • Clinical diagnosis - acute unilateral facial palsy with a normal physical examination
  • ENoG (evoked eEMG) - >90% decrease in amplitude of compound muscle action potential (CMAP)
  • Needle EMG - absence of voluntary motor unit potentials
  • Serology for Borrelia burgdorferi - negative

Consider:

  • Pure-tone audiometry - normal
  • Tympanometry and stapedius reflex - absent or impaired reflex of the ipsilateral efferent limb
  • MRI gadolinium-enhanced fine cut of facial nerve course - post-contrast enhancement of distal meatal, labyrinthine, geniculate, and sometimes tympanic and mastoid segments of facial nerve, without enlargement
  • CT fine-cut, non-enhanced - normal
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64
Q

Generate a management plan for Bell’s palsy.

A

CORTICOSTEROID - Prednisolone OD within 72h of symptoms onset

EYE PROTECTION as keratoconjunctivitis may lead to exposure keratopathy - glasses worn, artificial tears used as needed, ophthalmic lubricant and eyelid taped closed, eye patching avoided.

If severe palsy / complete paralysis on presentation:

  • Concurrent antiviral therapy - e.g. valaciclovir, aciclovir
  • Surgical decompression
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65
Q

Identify the possible complications of Bell’s palsy and its management.

A
  • Irreversible damage
  • Abnormal regrowth and healing
  • Involuntary contraction - synkinesis
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66
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with Bell’s palsy.

A

Complete recovery to normal facial function occurs in approximately 70% of untreated cases, with permanently impaired facial function occurring to a minor degree in 13% and to a major degree in 16% of cases.

Onset of clinical recovery is nearly always demonstrated within 4 to 6 months of symptom onset; absence of any return of hemi-facial tone or movement by this time is highly suggestive of an alternative diagnosis.

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67
Q

Define cluster headache.

A

An attack of severe pain localised to the unilateral orbit, supra-orbital and/or temporal areas that lasts from 15 mins to 3 hours.

Occurs once every other day to 8 times a day.

Attacks occur at the same time period for several weeks = cluster period.

Accompanied by ipsilateral autonomic signs (secondary to parasympathetic HYPERactivity and sympathetic HYPOactivity) and restlessness.

(Migraine = motion sensitivity presentation)

Both cluster bouts and attacks during a cluster period can show cyclical periodicity occurring at the same time of year or the same time of day.

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68
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of cluster headache.

A
  • Hypothalamic activation with secondary trigeminal and autonomic activation
  • Precipitated by alcohol, volatile smells, warm temperatures and sleep

Risk factors:

  • Male sex
  • Family history
  • Head injury
  • Cigarette smoking
  • Heavy drinking
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69
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of cluster headache.

A

Cluster headache is a primary headache disorder affecting up to 0.1% of the population.

Approximately 90% of patients have episodic cluster headache, which consists of at least two cluster periods of attacks lasting from 7 days to 1 year when untreated (cluster periods usually last from 2 weeks to 3 months), separated by remission periods lasting at least 3 months.

The chronic form of cluster headache is seen in approximately 10% of patients and consists of attacks that occur for 1 year or longer without remission, or with remission periods lasting less than 3 months.[1][2] The condition may be chronic from onset or may evolve over time from the episodic form.

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70
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of cluster headache.

A

Occurs once every other day to 8 times a day. Lasts from 15mins-3 hours.

Attacks occur at the same time period for several weeks = cluster period.

Accompanied by ipsilateral autonomic signs (secondary to parasympathetic HYPERactivity and sympathetic HYPOactivity) and restlessness.

(Migraine = motion sensitivity presentation)

Both cluster bouts and attacks during a cluster period can show cyclical periodicity occurring at the same time of year or the same time of day.

Autonomic features:

  • Ptosis
  • Conjunctival injection
  • Lacrimation
  • Rhinorrhoea
  • Nasal stuffiness
  • Eyelid and facial swelling
  • Aural fullness
  • Facial sweating
  • Redness

Also associated with N&V, photophobia, phonophobia and migrainous aura.

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71
Q

Recognise the signs of cluster headache on physical examination.

A

Occurs once every other day to 8 times a day. Lasts from 15mins-3 hours.

Attacks occur at the same time period for several weeks = cluster period.

Accompanied by ipsilateral autonomic signs (secondary to parasympathetic HYPERactivity and sympathetic HYPOactivity) and restlessness.

(Migraine = motion sensitivity presentation)

Both cluster bouts and attacks during a cluster period can show cyclical periodicity occurring at the same time of year or the same time of day.

Autonomic features:

  • Ptosis
  • Conjunctival injection
  • Lacrimation
  • Rhinorrhoea
  • Nasal stuffiness
  • Eyelid and facial swelling
  • Aural fullness
  • Facial sweating
  • Redness

Also associated with N&V, photophobia, phonophobia and migrainous aura.

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72
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for cluster headache and interpret the results.

A

1st Line:

  • Brain CT or MRI - normal in primary, abnormal in secondary (tumour, cavernous sinus pathology)
  • ESR - normal in primary
  • Pituitary function tests - normal in primary, abnormal in secondary (pituitary adenoma)

Consider:

  • Polysomnogram - abnormal with sleep apnoea
  • ECG - normal, conduction abnormalities or evidence of ischaemiac changes (check drug prescription)
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73
Q

Define Guillainn-Barré Syndrome.

A

An acute inflammatory polyneuropathy.

Classified according to symptoms.
= AXONAL AND DEMYELINATING FORMS.

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74
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of Guillain-Barré Syndrome.

A

Associated with outbreaks of ZIKA.

2/3rds of patients have a history of gastroenteritis or influenza-like illness weeks before onset of neurological symptoms.

Risk factors:

  • Preceding viral illness
  • Preceding bacterial infection
  • Preceding mosquito-borne viral infection
  • Hepatitis E infection
  • Immunisation
  • Cancer and lymphoma
  • Older age
  • HIV infection
  • Male
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75
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Guillainn-Barré Syndrome.

A

Up to 30% will develop respiratory muscle weakness requiring ventilation.

Neurophysiology is confirmatory and is abnormal in 85% of patients, even early in the disease.

Most common variant = acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy.

GBS occurs throughout the world with a median annual incidence of 1.3 cases per population of 100 000, with men being more frequently affected than women. GBS is considered to be an autoimmune disease triggered by a preceding bacterial or viral infection.

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76
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Guillain-Barré Syndrome.

A
  • Muscle weakness
  • Respiratory distress
  • Speech problems
  • Paraesthesia
  • Back / leg pain
  • Areflexia / hyporeflexia
  • Facial weakness
  • Bulbar dysfunction causing oropharyngeal weakness
  • Extra-ocular muscle weakness
  • Facial droop
  • Diplopia
  • Dysarthria
  • Dysphagia
  • Dysautonomia
  • Anisocoria
  • Non-reactive pupil
  • Opthalmoplegia
77
Q

Recognise the signs of Guillain-Barré Syndrome on physical examination.

A

Clincal Definition:

  • Motor difficulty
  • Hyporeflexia
  • Paraesthesias without objective sensory loss
  • Increased cerebrospinal fluid albumin with absence of cellular reaction = albuminocytological dissociation
  • Muscle weakness
  • Respiratory distress
  • Speech problems
  • Paraesthesia
  • Back / leg pain
  • Areflexia / hyporeflexia
  • Facial weakness
  • Bulbar dysfunction causing oropharyngeal weakness
  • Extra-ocular muscle weakness
  • Facial droop
  • Diplopia
  • Dysarthria
  • Dysphagia
  • Dysautonomia
  • Anisocoria
  • Non-reactive pupil
  • Opthalmoplegia
78
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Guillain-Barré Syndrome and interpret the results.

A

1st Line:

  • Nerve conduction studies - slow
  • LP - high protein, normal/high lymphocytes
  • LFTs - high AST, high ALT, high bilirubin (not enough to cause jaundice)
  • Spirometry - LOW vital capacity, LOW max inspiratory pressure, LOW max expiratory pressure
  • Antiganglioside antibody

Consider:

  • Serology - presence of Campylobacter jejuni, CMV, EBV, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, H.influenzae
  • Stool culture - Campylobacter jejuni, poliovirus (pure motor syndrome)
  • HIV antibodies
  • Spinal MRI - enhancement of cauda equina nerve roots with gadolinium
  • Borrelia burgdorferi serology (Lyme disease)
  • CSF meningococcal PCR
  • CSF cytology - positive in carcinomatous meningitis
  • CSF ACE - positive in sarcoidosis
  • CXR - bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (sarcoidosis)
  • CSF VDRL (neurosyphilis)
  • CSF West Nile PCR
79
Q

Define Horner’s Syndrome.

A

Characterized by 4 signs:

  • Miosis - constricted pupil
  • Ptosis - drooping of upper eyelid
  • Anhidrosis - absence of sweating of the face
  • Enopthalmos - sinking of eyeball into orbit
80
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of Horner’s Syndrome.

A

Causes:

  • Brainstem / Cervical spinal cord = tumour (glioma), infarction, syringomyelia / bulbia
  • T1 root = brachial plexus lesion, neurofibromatosis
  • Cervical sympathetic chain = Pancoast tumour (lung apex)
  • Internal carotid artery = dissection, occlusion
  • Migraine
  • Cluster headaches

CHILDREN:

  • Injury to the neck or shoulders during delivery
  • Defect of the aorta present at birth
  • Tumor of the hormonal and nervous systems (neuroblastoma)
81
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Horner’s Syndrome.

A

Uncommon, occurring with a frequency of approximately 1 per 6,000.

82
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Horner’s Syndrome.

A

Characterized by 4 signs:

  • Miosis - constricted pupil
  • Ptosis - drooping of upper eyelid
  • Anhidrosis - absence of sweating of the face
  • Enopthalmos - sinking of eyeball into orbit

Presents with:

  • A persistently small pupil (miosis)
  • A notable difference in pupil size between the two eyes (anisocoria)
  • Little or delayed opening (dilation) of the affected pupil in dim light
  • Drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis)
  • Slight elevation of the lower lid, sometimes called upside-down ptosis
  • Sunken appearance to the eye (enopthalamos)
  • Little or no sweating (anhidrosis) either on the entire side of the face or an isolated patch of skin on the affected side

CHILDREN:

  • Lighter iris color in the affected eye of a child under the age of 1
  • Lack of redness (flushing) on the affected side of the face that would normally appear from heat, physical exertion or emotional reactions
83
Q

Recognise the signs of Horner’s Syndrome on physical examination.

A

Characterized by 4 signs:

  • Miosis - constricted pupil
  • Ptosis - drooping of upper eyelid
  • Anhidrosis - absence of sweating of the face
  • Enopthalmos - sinking of eyeball into orbit
84
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Horner’s Syndrome and interpret the results.

A
  • Apraclonidine or Cocaine Drop Testing - little dilation fo affected eye if caused by 3rd order neuron (neck & above lesion)
  • MRI
  • Carotid USS
  • CXR
  • CT
  • CXR

Investigate causes to locate abnormality causing Horner’s Syndrome.

85
Q

Generate a management plan for Horner’s Syndrome.

A

Treat the cause.

86
Q

Identify the possible complications of Horner’s Syndrome and its management.

A

Depends on cause.

87
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with Horner’s Syndrome.

A

Horner’s Syndrome disappears when an underlying medical condition is effectively treated

88
Q

Define lumbar puncture.

A

The procedure of taking fluid from the spine in the lower back through a hollow needle, usually done for diagnostic purposes.

89
Q

Summarise the indications for a lumbar puncture.

A

DIAGNOSTIC

  • CNS infection
  • Autoimmune CNS diseases like GBS
  • CNS vasculitis
  • CT negative SAH
  • Malignant cells in metastasis
  • Injection of dye like fluorescin to identify site of CSF leakage

THERAPEUTIC

  • Benign intracranial hypertension
  • Acute communicating hydrocephalus
  • Cryptococcal meningitis in HIV infections
  • For CSF leaks

DELIVERY OF DRUGS

  • Antibodies
  • Anti-neoplastic drugs
90
Q

Identify the possible complications of a lumbar puncture.

A
  • Space-occupying lesion with mass effect - increased ICP / CSF pressure (can lead to cerebral herniation)
  • Posterior fossa mass
  • Arnold-Chiari malformation
  • Anticoagulant medication
  • Coagulopathy
  • Uncorrected bleeding diathesis
  • Congenital spine abnormality
  • Skin infection at puncture site
91
Q

Define Huntington’s disease.

A

A slowly progressive, neurodegenerative disorder characterised by:

  • Chorea
  • Incoordination
  • Cognitive decline
  • Personality changes
  • Psychiatric symptoms

Culminates in:

  • Immobility
  • Mutism
  • Inanition
92
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of Huntington’s disease.

A

AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT.
Trinucleotide repeat disorder.

Risk factors:

  • Expansion of the CAG repeat length at the N-terminal end of the Huntingtin Gene
  • Family history
93
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Huntington’s disease.

A

Affects men and women equally.

Characteristically in mid-adult life, but can occur at any age.

94
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Huntington’s disease.

A
  • Positive FHx of Huntington’s disease
  • Known expansion of the CAG repeat length at the N-terminal end of the Huntingtin gene
  • Impaired work or school performance
  • Personality change
  • Irritability and impulsivity
  • Chorea - random movements of fingers and toes with peculiar postures of hands, trunk or limbs, odd facial expressions
  • Twitching or restlessness
  • Loss of coordination - dropping things, stumbling, motor vehicle accidents
  • Deficit in fine motor co-ordination
  • Slowed rapid (saccadic) eye movements
  • Motor impersistence - trouble maintaining maximal protrusion of tongue or lid closure, milkmaid’s grip (variation in intensity of requested squeeze)
  • Impaired tandem walking
  • Apathy
  • Depression, obsessions and compulsions
95
Q

Recognise the signs of Huntington’s disease on physical examination.

A
  • Positive FHx of Huntington’s disease
  • Known expansion of the CAG repeat length at the N-terminal end of the Huntingtin gene
  • Impaired work or school performance
  • Personality change
  • Irritability and impulsivity
  • Chorea - random movements of fingers and toes with peculiar postures of hands, trunk or limbs, odd facial expressions
  • Twitching or restlessness
  • Loss of coordination - dropping things, stumbling, motor vehicle accidents
  • Deficit in fine motor co-ordination
  • Slowed rapid (saccadic) eye movements
  • Motor impersistence - trouble maintaining maximal protrusion of tongue or lid closure, milkmaid’s grip (variation in intensity of requested squeeze)
  • Impaired tandem walking
  • Apathy
  • Depression, obsessions and compulsions
96
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Huntington’s disease and interpret the results.

A

1st Line:
- No initial tests

Consider:

  • CAG repeat testing - a positive result is >40 CAG repeats on 1/2 alleles, intermediate is 36-39 repeats
  • MRI or CT scan - evident caudate or striatal atrophy
97
Q

Define hydrocephalus.

A

A condition in which fluid accumulates in the brain, typically in young children, enlarging the head and sometimes causing brain damage.

Excess CSF builds up within the fluid-containing cavities or ventricles of the brain.

3 TYPES:

  • Congenital hydrocephalus
  • Acquired hydrocephalus
  • Normal pressure hydrocephalus - usually older people

2 TYPES:

  • Communicating hydrocephalus - when the flow of CSF is blocked after it exits the ventricles
  • Non-communicating hydrocephalus
98
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of hydrocephalus.

A

Abnormal accumulation of CSF in ventricles caused by:

1) Impaired outflow of CSF from ventricles (Obstructive)
- Lesions of third ventricle, fourth ventricle, cerebral aqueduct
- Posterior fossa lesions - e.g. tumour, blood compressing the 4th ventricle
- Cerebral aqueduct stenosis

2) Impaired CSF resorption in subarachnoid villi (Non-Obstructive)
- Tumours
- Meningitis - typically TB
- Normal pressure hydrocephalus

COMMUNICATING HYDROCEPHALUS

  • The flow of CSF is blocked after it exits the ventricles
  • CSF can still flow between ventricles - passages between ventricles remain open
  • Reduced flow and absorption of CSF into arachnoid villi

NON COMMUNCATING HYDROCEPHALUS
- The flow of CSF is blocked along one or more of the narrow passages connecting the ventricles

HYDROCEPHALUS EX-VACUO - described apparent enlargement of ventricles, but this is compensatory change due to brain atrophy

  • Brain damage caused by stroke or injury
  • Tissue around ventricles shrink - ventricles become bigger than normal
  • Not a true hydrocephalus

NORMAL PRESSURE HYDROCEPHALUS (NPH)

  • Result of bleeding into brain CSF via subarachnoid or intraventricular haemorrhage, head trauma, infection, tumour or surgical complication
  • Many people develop when none of these factors are present
  • Increase in CSF occurs slowly enough for tissue around ventricles to compensate
  • Fluid pressure within the head does not increase
  • Causes problems with walking, bladder control and difficulties thinking and reasoning
  • Mistaken for Alzheimer’s

CONGENITAL HYDROCEPHALUS

  • Inherited genetic abnormalities that block the flow of CSF
  • Developmental disorders
  • Complications of premature birth - bleeding within ventricles
  • Infection during pregnancy - e.g. rubella

ACQUIRED HYDROCEPHALUS:

  • Brain or spinal cord tumorus
  • Infections of CNS - e.g. bacterial meningitis
  • Injury or stroke that causes bleeding in the brain
99
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of hydrocephalus.

A

Bimodal age distribution.

Congenital malformations and tumours in the young, tumourd and strokes in the elderly.

100
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of hydrocephalus.

A
  • Headache
  • Blurred or double vision
  • Nausea or vomiting
  • Problems with balance
  • Slowing or loss of developmental progress like walking or talking
    vision problems
  • Decline in school or job performance
  • Poor coordination
  • Loss of bladder control and/or frequent urination
  • Difficulty remaining awake or waking up
  • Sleepiness
  • Irritability
  • Changes in personality or cognition including memory loss
  • Problems walking, often described as feet feeling “stuck”
  • Progressive mental impairment and dementia
  • General slowing of movements

Obstructive - acute drop in conscious level, diplopia.

NPH - chronic cognitive decline, falls, urinary incontinence.

101
Q

Recognise the signs of hydrocephalus on physical examination.

A
  • Unusually large head size
  • Rapidly increasing head circumference
  • Bulging and tense fontanelle or soft spot
  • Prominent scalp veins
  • Downwards deviation of eyes = ‘sunset sign’
  • Unsteady walk or gait
  • Difficulty focusing the eyes
  • Sudden falls

OBSTRUCTIVE

  • Impaired GCS
  • Papilloedema
  • CN VI nerve palsy - false localising sign of increased ICP

NON-OBSTRUCTIVE

  • Cognitive impairment
  • Gait apraxia (shuffling)
  • Hyper-reflexia
102
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for hydrocephalus and interpret the results.

A

CT

  • 1st line to detect hydrocephalus
  • Detect cause - e.g. tumour in brainstem

CSF

  • Obtained from ventricular drains or lumbar puncture
  • Underlying pathology - e.g. tuberculosis
  • Check MC&S, protein, glucose (CSF and plasma)

LP

  • Contraindicated in OBSTRUCTIVE as can cause tonsilar herniation and death
  • May be necessary in NPH as therapeutic trial
103
Q

Define migraine.

A

A chronic, genetically determined, episodic neurological disorder that usually presents early-to-mid-life.

Migraine aura - a complex of reversible visual, sensory or speech symptoms that may precede or occur during headache - 15-30% of patients.

104
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of migraine.

A

Menstrual migraine - most likely to occur in the 2 days leading up to a period and in the first 3 days of a period.

Risk factors:

  • Family history
  • High caffeine intake
  • Exposure to change in barometric pressure
  • Female sex
  • Obesity
  • Stressful life events
  • Overuse of headache medications
  • Sleep disorders
  • Low socio-economic status
  • Allergies or asthma
  • Hypertension
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Diet
105
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of migraine.

A

Scholarly articles for epidemiology of migraine
The epidemiology of migraine - ‎Lipton - Cited by 285
An update on the epidemiology of migraine - ‎Lipton - Cited by 235
Epidemiology of migraine - ‎Silberstein - Cited by 113
Migraine is the third most common disease in the world (behind dental caries and tension-type headache) with an estimated global prevalence of 14.7% (that’s around 1 in 7 people). Migraine is more prevalent than diabetes, epilepsy and asthma combined. Chronic migraine affects approximately 2% of the world population.

106
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of migraine.

A
  • Nausea
  • Photophobia
  • Phonophobia
  • Disability
  • Headache
  • Aurea
  • Vomiting
  • Unilateral
  • Throbbing sensation
107
Q

Recognise the signs of migraine on physical examination.

A
  • Nausea
  • Photophobia
  • Phonophobia
  • Disability
  • Headache
  • Aurea
  • Vomiting
  • Unilateral
  • Throbbing sensation
108
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for migraine and interpret the results.

A

No lab or imaging tests are essential for diagnosis.

1st Line:
- Clinical diagnosis - ICHD-3b criteria for migraine

Consider:

  • ESR - normal (high in temporal arteritis)
  • LP - normal
  • CSF culture - normal
  • MRI brain - normal (SOL or ischaemic lesions identified)
  • CT head - normal (SOL or ischaemia or subarachnoid haemorrhage identified)
109
Q

Generate a management plan for migraine.

A

Involves identifying and avoid trigger factors, and the use of medication to treat the acute attack or prevent future attacks.

Present to ED:

  • Rescue therapy - a) metoclopramide / prochlorperazine + diphenhydramine, b) promethazine, c) cumatriptan, d) ketorolac, e) valproic acid, f) haloperidol, g) paracetamol, h) magnesium sulfate
  • High-flow O2
  • IV corticosteroid - dexamethasone
  • Secobarbital post-discharge

Mild-Moderate, Non-Pregnant:

  • NSAID - aspirin, diclofenac potassium, ibuprofen, naproxen, celecoxib, indometacin
  • Anti-emetic - metoclopramide, prochlorperazine, promethazine
  • Hydration
  • Paracetmol monotherapy
  • Anti-emetic
  • Hydration
  • Paracetamol / Aspirin / Caffeine

Severe, Non-Pregnant:

  • Triptan - almotriptan, eletriptan, rizatriptan, sumatriptan zolmitriptan, frovatriptan, naratriptan
  • Anti-emetic - metoclopramide, prochlorperazine, promethazine
  • Hydration
  • NSAID - aspirin, diclofenac potassium, ibuprofen, naproxen, celecoxib, indometacin
  • Ergot alkaloid - dihydroergotamine, ergotamine / caffeine
  • Corticosteroid - prednisolone, dexamethasone
  • Butalbital-containing compounds

PREGNANT

  • Paracetamol
  • Anti-emetic - metoclopramide, prochlorperazine,promethazine
  • Hydration
  • Magnesium sulfate

Other options:

  • Trigger avoidance - regular meals, good sleep hygiene, avoid volume depletion, regular exercise
  • Behavioural modification
  • Cycle control
  • Prevention with magnesium, triptan, anticonvulsant, TCA, beta-blocker, calcium-channel blocker, anti-depressant, calcitonin gene-related peptide inhibitor, botulinum toxin A - dependent on the number of headaches per month
110
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with migraine.

A

Migraine is a chronic disorder with episodic attacks with a highly variable long-term prognosis. In many, migraine may have a very benign (complete remission) or relatively benign (partial remission) prognosis. In some, migraine persists and in others, it progresses.

111
Q

Define motor neurone disease (aka amyotrophic lateral sclerosis - ALS).

A

A neurodegenerative disorder characterised by progressive muscle weakness that can start in limb, axial, bulbar or respiratory muscles and then generalises relentlessly, causing progressive disability and ultimately death, usually from respiratory failure.

112
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of motor neurone disease (aka amyotrophic lateral sclerosis - ALS).

A

Types of presentations:

  • Limb-onset
  • Bulbar-onset
  • Respiratory-onset

Risk factors:

  • Genetic predisposition or family history
  • Age > 40 years
  • Military service
  • Professional athletic activity
  • Cigarette smoking
  • Agricultural chemical exposure
  • Lead exposure
113
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of motor neurone disease (aka amyotrophic lateral sclerosis - ALS).

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) develops with a uniform frequency in major Western countries; the annual incidence is about 2 per 100,000 population. The estimated prevalence is 5 per 100,000 in the United States; approximately 30,000 Americans currently have the disease.

114
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of motor neurone disease (aka amyotrophic lateral sclerosis - ALS).

A

Combination of upper motor neurone and lower motor neurone signs.

115
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of motor neurone disease (aka amyotrophic lateral sclerosis - ALS).

A

Combination of upper motor neurone and lower motor neurone signs.

  • Presence of risk factors
  • Upper extremity weakness
  • Stiffness, with poor co-ordination and balance
  • Spastic, unsteady gait
  • Painful muscle spasms
  • Difficulties in arising from chairs and climbing stairs
  • Foot drop
  • Stiffness and decreased balance with impact on gait
  • Head drop
  • Progressive difficulties in maintaining erect posture, with stooping
  • Muscle atrophy
  • Increased lumbar lordosis and tendency for abdominal protuberance
  • Hyper-reflexia
  • Dyspnoea
  • Coughing and choking on liquids (including secretions) and eventually on food
  • Strained, slow speech
  • Slurred, nasal, and dysphonic speech
  • Propensity for falls
  • Sialorrhoea and drooling
  • Inappropriate bursts of crying or laughing
  • Cognitive impairment
  • Features of frontotemporal dementai
116
Q

Recognise the signs of motor neurone disease on physical examination (aka amyotrophic lateral sclerosis - ALS).

A

Combination of upper motor neurone and lower motor neurone signs.

  • Presence of risk factors
  • Upper extremity weakness
  • Stiffness, with poor co-ordination and balance
  • Spastic, unsteady gait
  • Painful muscle spasms
  • Difficulties in arising from chairs and climbing stairs
  • Foot drop
  • Stiffness and decreased balance with impact on gait
  • Head drop
  • Progressive difficulties in maintaining erect posture, with stooping
  • Muscle atrophy
  • Increased lumbar lordosis and tendency for abdominal protuberance
  • Hyper-reflexia
  • Dyspnoea
  • Coughing and choking on liquids (including secretions) and eventually on food
  • Strained, slow speech
  • Slurred, nasal, and dysphonic speech
  • Propensity for falls
  • Sialorrhoea and drooling
  • Inappropriate bursts of crying or laughing
  • Cognitive impairment
  • Features of frontotemporal dementai
117
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for motor neurone disease and interpret the results (aka amyotrophic lateral sclerosis - ALS).

A

1st line:
- Clinical diagnosis - presence of upper and lower motor neurone signs, disease progression, absence of any other explanation for presentation

Consider:

  • EMG - diffuse, ongoing, chronic denervation
  • Repetitive nerve stimulation - only modest decreases in compound motor action amplitude after repetitive stimuli
  • MRI brain and spine - normal
  • Anti-GM1 antibodies - usually negative
  • Voltage-gated calcium-channel antibodies - negative (rule out Lambert-Eaton syndrome)
  • ACh receptor antibodies - negative (rule out myasthenia gravis)
  • Vitamin B12 - normal
  • Creatine kinase - max 1000 units/L in ALS, higher = alternative diagnosis
  • LP - normal
  • HIV test - negative or positive
  • Genetic testing - may be positive for mutations in C9orf72, SOD1, TARDBP and FUS
118
Q

Define multiple sclerosis.

A

An inflammatory demyelinating disease characterised by the presence of episodic neurological dysfunction in at least two areas of the CNS (brain, spinal nerve, optic nerves) separated in time and space.

119
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of multiple sclerosis.

A

Unknown. Autoimmune basis with postulated environmental trigger in a genetically susceptible individual. Immune-mediated damage to CNS myelin results in impaired conduction along axons.

Associated grey matter atrophy.

Risk factors:

  • Female sex
  • Northern latitude
  • Genetic factors
  • Smoking
  • Vitamin D deficiency
  • Autoimmune disease
  • EBV
120
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of multiple sclerosis.

A

White women
Age 20-40 years

May affect either sex and any age or ethnic group, and may have variable neurological symptom location and/or duration.

121
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of multiple sclerosis.

A

Depends on site of inflammation.

Optic neuritis - unilateral deterioration in visual acuity and colour perception, pain on eye movement.

Sensory system - pins and needles, numbness, burning.

Motor - limb weakness, spasms, stiffness, heaviness.

Autonomic - urinary urgency, hesitancy, incontinence, impotence.

Psychological - depression, psychosis.

Uhthoff’s phenomenon - transient increase or recurrence of symptoms due to conduction block precipitated by a rise in body temperature.

  • Visual disturbance in one eye
  • Peculiar sensory phenomena
  • Female sex
  • Ages 20-40 years
  • Foot dragging or slapping
  • Leg cramping
  • Fatigue
  • Urinary frequency
  • Bowel dysfunction
  • Spasticity / increased muscle tone
  • Increased deep tendon reflexes
  • Imbalance / inco-ordination
  • Pale optic disc or non-correctable visual loss
  • Incorrect responses to Ishihara colour blindness test plates
  • Abnormal eye movements
122
Q

Recognise the signs of multiple sclerosis on physical examination.

A

Optic neuritis - impaired visual acuity, loss of coloured vision, swollen optic nerve head (acute), optic atrophy (chronic).

Visual field testing - central scotoma, field defects.

Relative afferent pupillary defect - both pupils contract when light is shone on unaffected side, both pupils dilate when light is swung to the diseased eye.

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia - lateral horizontal gaze produces a failure of adduction of the contralateral eye, indicating lesion of contralateral medial longitudinal fasciculus.

Sensory - paraesthesia (vibration and joint position sense loss more common than pain and temperature).

Motor - UMN signs

Cerebellar - limb ataxia (intention tremor, past pointing, dysmetria), dysdiadochokinesis, ataxic wide-based gait, scanning speech.

Lhermitte’s Phenomenon - electric shock-like sensation in arms and legs precipitated by neck flexion.

  • Visual disturbance in one eye
  • Peculiar sensory phenomena
  • Female sex
  • Ages 20-40 years
  • Foot dragging or slapping
  • Leg cramping
  • Fatigue
  • Urinary frequency
  • Bowel dysfunction
  • Spasticity / increased muscle tone
  • Increased deep tendon reflexes
  • Imbalance / inco-ordination
  • Pale optic disc or non-correctable visual loss
  • Incorrect responses to Ishihara colour blindness test plates
  • Abnormal eye movements
123
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for multiple sclerosis and interpret the results.

A

1st line:

  • MRI brain - hyperintensities in periventricular white matter
  • MRI spinal cord - demyelinating lesions in spinal cord
  • FBC - normal
  • Comprehensive metabolic panel - normal
  • TSH - normal
  • Vitamin B12 - normal

Consider:

  • Anti-neuromyelitis optica antibody - present in neuromyelitis optica (Devic syndrome)
  • Cerebrospinal fluid evaluation - glucose, protein and cell count normal, oligoclonal bands and high CSF IgG and IgG synthesis rates in 80% of MS
  • Evoked potentials - prolongation of conduction
124
Q

Define myasthenia gravis.

A

A chronic autoimmune disorder of the post-synaptic membrane at the neuromuscular junction in skeletal muscle.

NB: Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome subtype - caused by auto-antibodies against presynaptic calcium ion channels impairing ACh release.

125
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of myasthenia gravis.

A

Circulating antibodies against nAChR and associated proteins impair transmission.

Elevated serum acetylcholine receptor antibody titres or muscle-specific tyrosine kinase antibodies are present. Antibodies to 4 new autoantigens, low-density lipoprotein receptor-related protein (LRP4), agrin, collagen Q, and cortactin, located at the neuromuscular junction, have been identified. Clinical electrophysiology shows decremental response on repetitive nerve stimulation or increased jitter on single-fibre study.

Present with muscle weakness which worsens with continued activity (fatiguability) and improves on rest.

Severity varies from isolated eye muscle weakness to generalised muscle weakness and respiratory failure requiring mechanical ventilation.

Risk factors:

  • FHx of autoimmune disorders
  • Genetic markers
  • Cancer-targeted therapy
126
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of myasthenia gravis.

A

Approximately 15% to 20% of patients may experience a myasthenic crisis (exacerbation necessitating mechanical ventilation).

The estimated prevalence of myasthenia gravis is approximately 20 cases per 100,000 population, with the disease affecting twice as many women as men. The overall prevalence is approximately 150-200 per million. However, in older age groups, men are affected more often and the disease is often misdiagnosed

127
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of myasthenia gravis.

A
  • Muscle fatiguability
  • Ptosis
  • Diplopia
  • Dysphagia
  • Dysarthria
  • Facial paresis
  • Proximal limb weakness
  • Shortness of breath
  • Disturbed hypernasal speech
  • Difficulty smiling, chewing or swallowing - nasal regurgitation of fluids
128
Q

Recognise the signs of myasthenia gravis on physical examination.

A
  • Generalised, bulbar or ocular.

EYES

  • Bilateral ptosis
  • Asymmetrical
  • Complex opthalmoplegia
  • Watch for progressive ptosis
  • ‘Ice on eyes’ test - improves NM transmission, reducing ptosis by >2mm from baseline

BULBAR
- Reading aloud provokes dysarthria or nasal speech after 3 minutes

Limbs
- Test power of muscle before and after repeated use of the muscle - e.g. 20 repetitions

129
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for myasthenia gravis and interpret the results.

A

1st line:

  • Serum AChR antibody analysis - titre above a certain point
  • MuSK antibodies - may be positive
  • Serial pulmonary function tests - MG crisis low FVC and NIF

Consider:

  • Striational antibodies - positive
  • Repetitive nerve stimulation - >10 % decline in CMAP amplitude between 1st and 4th potential in a train of 10 stimulations at 2-3Hz
  • Single-fibre EMG - increase variability in motor latencies (jitter) or complete failure of NM (block) in some muscle fibres
  • CT of chest - thymic enlargement
130
Q

Define stroke (ischaemic and hemorrhagic).

A

Rapid permanent neurological deficit from cerebrovascular insult.

Focal or global impairment of CNS function developing rapidly and lasting >24h.

131
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of stroke (ischaemic and hemorrhagic).

A

INFARCTION (80%)

  • Thrombosis - lacunar and large vessel atherosclerosis, prothrombotic states
  • Emboli - intimal flap of carotid dissection, atherosclerosis in carotids, heart pathology (AFib, right-left heart defect)
  • Hypotension - If below the autoregulatory range maintaining cerebral blood flow, infarction results in watershed zones between different cerebral artery territories
  • Vasculitis
  • Cocaine
HAEMORRHAGE (10%) 
- Hypertension 
- Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysm rupture
- Amyloid angiopathy 
- AV malformation 
Trauma
- Tumours
- Vasculitis 

Ischaemic brain becomes soft due to vasogenic oedema from breakdown of BBB and prone to haemorrhagic transformation - secondary damage to CNS.

132
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of stroke (ischaemic and hemorrhagic).

A

2/1000. Common.
3rd most common cause of death in industrialized countries.
70yrs + most patients.
Young stroke (<50) merit extensive investigations.

133
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of stroke (ischaemic and hemorrhagic).

A

Sudden onset - deterioration within seconds.

  • Weakness, sensory, visual or cognitive impairment
  • Impaired coordination
  • Impaired conscioussness
  • Head and neck pain in carotid or vertebral artery dissection
  • Enquire time of onset as critical for management (if <4.5h)
  • Enquire if history of atrial fibrillation, MI, valvular heart disease, carotid artery stenosis, recent neck trauma or pain
134
Q

Recognise the signs of stroke (ischaemic and hemorrhagic) on physical examination.

A

Examine for underlying cause -e.g. AFib, heart murmurs, carotid bruit, fundoscopy.

ANTERIOR CIRCULATION

  • Anterior cerebral = lower limb weakness (motor cortex), confusion (frontal lobe)
  • Middle cerebral = facial weakness, hemiparesis (motor cortex), hemisensory loss (somatosensory cortex), apraxia, hemineglect (parietal lobe), receptive or expressive dysphasia (language centres), quadrantanopia (superior or inferior optic radiations)

SMALL VESSELS (LACUNAR)

  • Internal capsule or pons = pure sensory or motor deficit, or combination of both
  • Thalamus = LOC, hemisensory deficit
  • Basal ganglia = hemichorea, hemiballismus, parkinsonism

POSTERIOR CIRCULATION

  • Posterior cerebral = hemianopia
  • Anterior inferior cerebellar artery = vertigo, ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral deafness (or tinnitus), ipsilateral facial weakness
  • Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (lateral medullary syndrome of Wallenberg) = vertigo, ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome, ipsilateral hemifacial sensory loss, dysarthria and contralateral spinothalamic sensory loss
  • Basilar artery - combination of cranial nerve pathology, impaired consciousness (emergency)

MULTIPLE LACUNAR INFARCTS

  • Vascular dementia
  • Urinary incontinence
  • Gait apraxia - marche a petits pas
  • Shuffling small-stepped gait
  • Upright posture
  • Normal or excessive arm-swing

HAEMORRHAGE

  • Intracerebral = headache, meningism, focal neurological signs, N&V, signs of raised ICP, seizures
  • Subarachnoid
135
Q

Identify the appropriate investigation for stroke (ischaemic and hemorrhagic).

A
  1. Bloods
  2. ECG - identify arrhythmias
  3. Echo - identify source of embolism (bubble contrast for right-to-left shunt)
  4. Carotid Doppler - exclude carotid artery disease
  5. CT Head - see haemorrhages, normal in lacunar infarct or <6h into stroke
  6. MRI brain - higher sensitivity, diffusion-weighted imaging to determine whether recent or old
  7. CT-Cerebral Angiogram - detect dissections or intracranial stenosis (MRA with T1-fat-saturation useful alternatively)

Bloods

  • FBC
  • U&E
  • Glucose
  • Clotting profile
  • Lipids
  • Thrombophilia screen

ISCHAEMIC STROKE

1st line:
- Non-contrast CT head - if indications for thormbolysis or thrombectomy, on anti-coag / bleeding tendency, GCS <13, raised ICP, severe headache

Result: Hypoattenuation (dark in brain parenchyma), loss of grey matter-white matter differentiation, sulcal effacement, hyperattenuation (brightness) in artery (clot)

  • Glucose - normal, hypoglycaemia (stroke mimic), hyperglycaemia (bleeding, worse outcomes)
  • Electrolytes - normal
  • Urea & Creatinine - normal, renal failure
  • Cardiac enzymes - normal, cardiac ischaemia
  • FBC - normal, anaemia, thrombocytopenia
  • ECG - may show arrhythmia or signs of ischaemia
  • PT/PTT with INR - normal, coagulopathy

HAEMORRHAGIC STROKE

  • Non-contrast CT head - if indications for thormbolysis or thrombectomy, on anti-coag / bleeding tendency, GCS <13, raised ICP, severe headache

Result: Hyperattenuation, suggesting acute blood surrounding hypoattenuation due to oedema.

  • Glucose - normal, hypoglycaemia (stroke mimic), hyperglycaemia (intracerebral bleeding risk)
  • Electrolytes - normal
  • Urea and Creatinine - normal, renal failure
  • LFTs - normal, liver dysfunction (bleeding risk)
  • FBC - normal, anaemia, thrombocytopenia
  • Clotting screen - normal or high INR / FXa levels
  • ECG - normal, arrhythmia or signs of ischaemia
136
Q

Generate a management plan for stroke (ischaemic and hemorrhagic).

A

SUSPECTED ISCHAEMIC STROKE

  • A to E approach - ET intubation GCS <8, Oxygen if Sats <93%
  • Admit to hyperacute stroke unit within 4 hours of presentation - swallow assessment, nutrition support

CONFIRMED ISCHAEMIC STROKE

Within 4.5 hours + Thrombolysis IS NOT contraindicated

(Must exclude intracerebral haemorrhage by imaging first)

  • Supportive care + monitoring - GCS, blood glucose 4-11mmol/L, BP <185/110mmHg, O2 if Sats <93%, hydration, temperature, ECG monitoring, ICP (low LOC, headache, N&V, high BP), seizures
  • Alteplase IV
  • Consider mechanical thrombectomy (endovascular intervention)
  • Antiplatelet agent - 24h after alteplase, give aspirin or clopidogrel daily for 2 weeks
  • VTE prophylaxis - intermittent pneumatic compression, NOT LMWH or Teds
  • Early mobilization
  • High-intensity statin - atorvastatin given after 48h

Outside 4.5 hours OR Thrombolysis IS contraindicated

  • Supportive care + monitoring
  • Mechanical thrombectomy (endovascular intervention)
  • Anti-platelet agent - give aspirin or clopidogrel daily for 2 weeks
  • VTE prophylaxis - intermittent pneumatic compression, NOT LMWH or Teds
  • Early mobilization
  • High-intensity statin - atorvastatin given after 48h

SUSPECTED HAEMORRHAGE

  • A to E approach - ET intubation GCS <8, Oxygen if Sats <93%
  • Admit to hyperacute stroke unit within 4 hours of presentation - swallow assessment, nutrition support

CONFIRMED HAEMORRHAGE

  • Supportive care plus monitoring - GCS, glucose 4-11 mmol/L, BP, O2, hydration, temperature, cardiac monitoring, ICP (haematoma mass effect, transtentorial herniation, intraventricular haemorrhage, hydrocephalus), seizures
  • Immediate referral for neurosurgery assessment - medical management for small deep haemorrhages, lobar haemorrhages without hydrocephalus or neurological deterioration, large haemorrhage and comorbidities, posterior fossa haemorrhage, GCS <8 unless hydrocephalus
  • Rapid blood pressure control - aim for 130-140 SBP mmHg for 7 days within 1h of starting treatment
  • Urgent reversal of anticoagulation

Warfarn/Vit K antagonist = PCC AND Phytomenadione

Dabigatran = Idarucizumab

Factor Xa Inhibitor = PCC

  • VTE prophylaxis - intermittent pneumatic compression, NOT LMWH or Teds
  • Early mobilisation

SECONDARY PREVENTION

  • Aspirin
  • Dipyridamole
  • Warfarin (if AFib)
  • Stop smoking
  • Control hypertension and hyperlipidaemia
  • Treatment of carotid artery disease
137
Q

Identify the possible complications of stroke (ischaemic and hemorrhagic).

A
  • Cerebral oedema - raised ICP and local compression
  • Immobility
  • Infections - e.g. pneumonia, UTI, pressure sores
  • DVT
  • Cardiovascular events - e.g. arrhythmias, MI, cardiac failure
  • Death
138
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with stroke (ischaemic and hemorrhagic).

A

10% mortality in first months.
Up to 50% of those who survive remain dependent.
10% recurrence in 1 year.
Poorer for haemorrhages than infarction.

139
Q

Define neurofibromatosis.

A

An autosomal-dominant genetic disorder with defining features of:

  • Cafe au lait spots
  • Multiple neurofibromas
  • Iris Lisch nodules
140
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of neurofibromatosis.

A

RNA-based NF1 mutation = TYPE 1.

Additional manifestations involving:

  • Skin
  • CNS
  • Peripheral nerves
  • Bones
  • GI tract
  • Vasculature
  • Endocrine system

Most common:

  • Learning disabilities
  • optic pathway gliomas
  • Diffuse plexiform neurofibromas
  • Dystrophic scoliosis
  • Sphenoid wing dysplasia
  • Renovascular hypertension
  • Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumours

Risk factors:

  • Parent with NF 1
  • Severe crush trauma
141
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of neurofibromatosis.

A

Progressive, variable but will worsen.

142
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of neurofibromatosis.

A
  • Family history of NF1
  • Pain, any location
  • Compromised vision
  • Compromised social interactions

NEUROLOGICAL

  • Gross motor delay
  • General inco-ordination
  • School performance problems
  • Autosim spectrum disorder

SKIN

  • Cafe au lait
  • Axillary freckling
  • Cuteanous juvenile xanthogranuhlomas
  • Neurofibromas

HEAD & NECK

  • Unilateral diffuse plexiform neurofibroma divisions of trigeminal nerve
  • Visual compromise
  • Optic disc pallor
  • Iris Lisch nodules

CNS

  • Signs of hydrocephalus
  • Brain tumours
  • Cerebellar abnormalities

PNS

  • Palpable mass about neck
  • Brachial plexuses
  • Groin
  • Hunter’s canal
  • Popliteal fossae

SKELETAL

  • Tibial dysplasia
  • Pseudoarthrosis
  • Sphenoid wing dysplasia
  • Pectus excavatum or carinatum
  • Genu valgum or varum
  • Ankle valgus
  • Pes planus

GI

  • Severe constipation
  • Obstipation
  • Abdominal pain
  • GI bleeding

Vascular

  • Neurological problems
  • Abdominal pain
  • Haemorrhage
143
Q

Recognise the signs of neurofibromatosis on physical examination.

A
  • Family history of NF1
  • Pain, any location
  • Compromised vision
  • Compromised social interactions

NEUROLOGICAL

  • Gross motor delay
  • General inco-ordination
  • School performance problems
  • Autosim spectrum disorder

SKIN

  • Cafe au lait
  • Axillary freckling
  • Cuteanous juvenile xanthogranuhlomas
  • Neurofibromas

HEAD & NECK

  • Unilateral diffuse plexiform neurofibroma divisions of trigeminal nerve
  • Visual compromise
  • Optic disc pallor
  • Iris Lisch nodules

CNS

  • Signs of hydrocephalus
  • Brain tumours
  • Cerebellar abnormalities

PNS

  • Palpable mass about neck
  • Brachial plexuses
  • Groin
  • Hunter’s canal
  • Popliteal fossae

SKELETAL

  • Tibial dysplasia
  • Pseudoarthrosis
  • Sphenoid wing dysplasia
  • Pectus excavatum or carinatum
  • Genu valgum or varum
  • Ankle valgus
  • Pes planus

GI

  • Severe constipation
  • Obstipation
  • Abdominal pain
  • GI bleeding

Vascular

  • Neurological problems
  • Abdominal pain
  • Haemorrhage
144
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for neurofibromatosis.

A

1st Line;

  • MRI and/or CT scans - optic pathway gliomas, brain tumours, hydrocephalus, paraspinal neurofibromas, MPNSTs
  • PET scan - optic pathway gliomas, brian tumours, hydrocephalus, paraspinal neurofibromas, MPNSTs
  • Biopsy - features of neurofibroma or MPNST
  • Genetic testing to confirm NF1 mutation - identify NF1 locus
145
Q

Define Parkinson’s disease.

A

A neurodegenerative disorder.

  • Resting tremor
  • Rigidity
  • Bradykinesia
  • Postural instability
146
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of Parkinson’s disease.

A

Loss of darkly pigmented area in substantia nigra pars compacta (SNpc) and locus coeruleus.

Death of dopaminergic neuromelanin-containing neurones in SNpc.

Death of noradrenergic neurones in locus coeruleus.

Denervation of nigrostriatal pathway, resulting in diminished dopamine levels in striatum.

Risk factors:

  • Increasing age
  • History of familial PD in younger-onset disease
  • Mutation in gene eoncoding glucocerebrosidase
  • 1-methyl-4-phenyl-1,2,3,6-tetrahydropyridine (MPTP) exposure
  • Chronic exposure to metals (manganese, iron)
  • Male sex
  • Genetic risk factors
  • Head trauma
  • Geographic influence (rural living)
  • Toxin exposure
  • Occupation as a teacher, healthcare provider, construction worker, carpenter or cleaner
147
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Parkinson’s disease.

A

Insidious, often asymmetrical, onset.

Parkinson’s disease (PD) affects 1-2 per 1000 of the population at any time. PD prevalence is increasing with age and PD affects 1% of the population above 60 years.

148
Q

Recognize the presenting symptoms of Parkinson’s disease.

A

BRADYKINESIA
RESTING TREMOR
RIGIDITY
POSTURAL INSTABILITY

Others:

  • Masked facies - loss of sponatenous facial movement and expressivity
  • Hypophonia
  • Hypokinetic dysarthria
  • Micrographia
  • Stooped postrue
  • Shuffling gait
  • Conjugate gaze disorders
  • Fatigue
  • Constipation
  • Depression
  • Anxiety
  • Dementia
149
Q

Recognise the signs of Parkinson’s disease on physical examination.

A

BRADYKINESIA
RESTING TREMOR
RIGIDITY
POSTURAL INSTABILITY

Others:

  • Masked facies - loss of sponatenous facial movement and expressivity
  • Hypophonia
  • Hypokinetic dysarthria
  • Micrographia
  • Stooped postrue
  • Shuffling gait
  • Conjugate gaze disorders
  • Fatigue
  • Constipation
  • Depression
  • Anxiety
  • Dementia
150
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Parkinson’s disease and interpret the results.

A

1st Line:
- Dopaminergic agent trial - improvement in symptoms after levodopa

Consider:

  • MRI brain - age-related changes (mild small vessel disease), advanced changes (cortical atrophy, no dorsolateral nigral hyperintensity - swallow-tail-sign absent)
  • Functional neuroimaging - decreased basal ganglia (putaminal) pre-synaptic dopamine uptake
  • Olfactory testing -hyposmia or anosmia
  • Genetic testing
  • Neuropsychometric testing - executive dysfunction in PD with dementia
  • Serum ceruloplasmin - low in Wilson’s (if patient < 40 years)
  • 24-hour urine copper - high in Wilson’s (if patient < 40 years)
  • Brain pathology (postmortem) - nigrostriatal degeneration, Lewy bodies
151
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of raised ICP.

A

CAN BE ACUTE OR CHRONIC.

CAUSED BY:

  • Localised mass lesions
  • Disturbance of CSF circulation
  • Obstruction to major venous sinuses
  • Diffuse brain oedema or swelling
  • Idiopathic

DIFFERENTIALS:

  • Trauma - extradural, subdural, intracerebral
  • Subarachnoid haemorrhage
  • Neoplasms - glioma, meningioma, mets
  • Abscess
  • Focal oedema (trauma, infarction, tumour)
  • Obstructive hydrocephalus
  • Communicating hydrocephalus
  • Depressed fractures overlying major venous sinuses
  • Central venous thrombosis
  • Encephalitis
  • Meningitis
  • Reye’s syndrome
  • Lead encephalopathy
  • Water intoxication
  • Near drowning
  • Benign intracranial hypertension

The skull is considered as an enclosed and inelastic container. An increase in the volume of any one of the intracranial contents must be offset by a decrease in one or more of the others or be associated with a rise in ICP. Intracranial blood (especially in the venous compartment) and CSF are the two components whose volume can adapt most easily to accommodate an increase in the volume of intracranial contents. Once these compensatory mechanisms are exhausted, further increases in volume result in large rises in ICP.

152
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of raised ICP.

A

HEADACHE
PAPILLOEDEMA
VOMITING

Headache

  • Throbbing or bursting
  • Worsened by coughing, sneezing, recumbency or exertion
  • Worse in the morning

Papilloedema
- Several days to develop

Vomiting

  • Late feature
  • After waking
  • Accompanies morning headache

LOC

  • Progressive deterioration
  • Consequence of caudal displacement of diencephalon and midbrain
153
Q

Recognise the signs of raised ICP on physical examination.

A
  • Progressive loss of consciousness
  • Papilloedema
  • Pupillary dilatation
  • Bilateral ptosis
  • Impaired upgaze
  • Extension to pain
  • Respiratory irregularity
  • Diplopia

(Mainly due to tentorial or tonsillar herniation)

  • Tensed cranial fontanelle
  • Seizures
  • Hypertension
  • Bradycardia
  • Respiratory depression
154
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for raised ICP and interpret the results.

A
  • CT/MRI - determine lesion
  • Blood glucose
  • Renal function
  • Electrolytes
  • Osmolality
  • ICP monitoring - if GCS 3-8 after CPR + abnormal head CT
155
Q

Define spinal cord compression (including cauda equina).

A

Results from processes that compress or displace arterial, venous and CSF spaces, as well as the cord itself.

ACUTE SPINAL CORD COMPRESSION IS A MEDICAL EMERGENCY.

156
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of spinal cord compression (including cauda equina).

A

EXTRINSIC OR INTRINSIC.

E.g.

  • Trauma or tumour affecting cord substance
  • Lesions that compromise cord function emanating from surrounding elements or vascular sources
  • Vertebral compression fracture
  • Intervertebral disc herniation
  • Primary or mets spinal tumour
  • Infection

MAY BE ACUTE, SUB-ACUTE OR CHRONIC.

  • Due to direct cord damage
  • Due to compression
  • Due to infiltration
  • Due to compromise of vascular supply to cord

Symptoms due to spinal cord injury or root dysfunction.

Risk factors:

  • Between 16-30 years
  • Male
  • Trauma
  • Tumour
  • Osteoporosis
  • High-risk occupation - e.g. construction, agricultural, seamen, bricklayers, road menders, vehicle drivers, military, law enforcement, firefighters
  • High-risk recreational activities - vehicle racing, mountaineering, diving, horse riding, gymnastics
  • IV drug use
  • Immunosuppression
157
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of spinal cord compression (including cauda equina).

A

The annual incidence rates of spinal cord compression due to trauma is estimated approximately to be 8-246 cases per 100,000 population. The annual incidence rates of spinal cord compression due to cancer-related in the US is approximately 20,000.

158
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of spinal cord compression (including cauda equina).

A

AGE GROUP

  • 16-30 = trauma
  • 30-50 = disc disease
  • 40-75 = malignancy

Symptoms:

  • Acute or chronic onset and duration of symptoms
  • Back pain
  • Numbness or paraesthesias
  • Weakness or parlysis
  • Bladder or bowel dysfunction
  • Hyper-reflexia (UMN)
  • Sensory loss
  • Muscle weakness or wasting
  • Loss of tone below level of suspected injury (spinal shock)
  • Hypotension and bradycardia - neurogenic shock

COMPLETE CORD TRANSECTION SYNDROME

  • Quadriplegia
  • Respiratory insufficiency
  • Loss of bladder and bowel function
  • Anaesthesia below affected level
  • Neurogenic shock - hypotension and hypothermia
  • Horner’s - miosis, anhidrosis, ipsilateral ptosis
  • Lower cervical transection spares respiratory muscles

CAUDA EQUINA SYNDROME

  • Disc compression and stenosis of spinal canal
  • Saddle (perineal) anaesthesia
  • Bladder retention
  • Leg weakness

CENTRAL CORD SYNDROME

  • Hyperextension injury association
  • More in older people
  • Loss of upper limb function compared to lower limbs - includes vestibulospinal tract
159
Q

Recognise the signs of spinal cord compression (including cauda equina)n physical examination.

A

AGE GROUP

  • 16-30 = trauma
  • 30-50 = disc disease
  • 40-75 = malignancy

Symptoms:

  • Acute or chronic onset and duration of symptoms
  • Back pain
  • Numbness or paraesthesias
  • Weakness or parlysis
  • Bladder or bowel dysfunction
  • Hyper-reflexia (UMN)
  • Sensory loss
  • Muscle weakness or wasting
  • Loss of tone below level of suspected injury (spinal shock)
  • Hypotension and bradycardia - neurogenic shock

COMPLETE CORD TRANSECTION SYNDROME

  • Quadriplegia
  • Respiratory insufficiency
  • Loss of bladder and bowel function
  • Anaesthesia below affected level
  • Neurogenic shock - hypotension and hypothermia
  • Horner’s - miosis, anhidrosis, ipsilateral ptosis
  • Lower cervical transection spares respiratory muscles

CAUDA EQUINA SYNDROME

  • Disc compression and stenosis of spinal canal
  • Saddle (perineal) anaesthesia
  • Bladder retention
  • Leg weakness

CENTRAL CORD SYNDROME

  • Hyperextension injury association
  • More in older people
  • Loss of upper limb function compared to lower limbs - includes vestibulospinal tract
160
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for spinal cord compression (including cauda equina) and interpret the results.

A

1st Line:

  • MRI spine - disc displacement, epidural enhancement, mass effect, T2 cord signal
  • Gadolinium-enhanced MRI spine - infection (epidural space and bone involvement), mets (visualise tumour)
  • Plain spine XR - decreased disc space height (disc compression), loss of bony detail (tumour, infection), misalignment of vertebral elements (trauma), loss of end-plate definitions (infection)
  • CT spine - cord compression from tumour expansion into canal or bony fragments from pathological fracture
  • CT myelography - classical hour-glass constriction shape of dye column

Consider:

  • FBC with differential - high WCC with neutrophilia in infection
  • ESR/ CRP - high in infection or inflammation (osteomyelitis, epidural abscess)
  • Blood or CSF cultures - positive in epidural abscess, discitis or osteomyelitis
  • Tumour biopsy and histopathology - tissue diagnosis of malignancy
  • Urodynamic studies - reduced bladder contractility sphincter dysfunction
  • PET scan - areas of hypermetabolism detected
161
Q

Define trigeminal neuralgia.

A

A facial pain syndrome in the distribution of >1 divisions of the trigeminal nerve.

162
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of trigeminal neuralgia.

A

Causes:

  • Paraneoplastic aetiologies
  • Vascular causes - e.g. pontine infarct, AV malformation, aneurysm
  • Inflammatory causes - MS, sarcoidosis, Lyme disease neuropathy

Risk factors:

  • Increased age
  • MS
  • Female
  • Hypertension
163
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of trigeminal neuralgia.

A

Trigeminal neuralgia (TN) has a prevalence of 0.1-0.2 per thousand and an incidence ranging from about 4-5/100,000/year up to 20/100,000/year after age 60. The female-to-male ratio is about 3:2.

164
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia.

A
  • Paroxysms of sharp, stabbing, intense pain
  • Last up to 2 minutes
  • Can be constant component of facial pain
  • Without associated neurological deficit
  • Pain precipitated by trigger areas or factors
  • Repeated attacks are typically stereotyped in the individual
165
Q

Recognise the signs of trigeminal neuralgia on physical examination.

A
  • Paroxysms of sharp, stabbing, intense pain
  • Last up to 2 minutes
  • Can be constant component of facial pain
  • Without associated neurological deficit
  • Pain precipitated by trigger areas or factors
  • Repeated attacks are typically stereotyped in the individual
166
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for trigeminal neuralgia and interpret the results.

A

1st Line:
- No first test

Consider:

  • Intra-oral XR - no dental cause of pain found - e.g. dental caries, dental fracture, osteomyelitis
  • MRI - may demonstrate presence of abnormal vessel loop in association with trigeminal nerve, or tumour, infarct, MS plaque
  • Trigeminal reflex testing - early blink reflex or early masseter inhibitory reflex
167
Q

Define Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

A

A neurological emergency resulting from thiamine deficiency with varied neurocognitive manifestations, typically involving mental status changes and gait and oculomotor dysfunction.

168
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

A

Caused by acute deficiency of thiamine in a susceptible host.

Risk factors:

  • Alcohol dependence
  • AIDS
  • Cancer and treatment with chemotherapeutic agents
  • Malnutrition
  • History of GI surgery
  • Genetics
  • Bone marrow transplantation
  • Infants who have been fed formula milk deficient in thiamine
  • Male sex
169
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

A

Although easily preventable, Wernicke’s encephalopathy (WE) remains a regrettably frequent and largely undiagnosed disorder in alcoholics. Unselected autopsy materials from the United States and Australia give prevalence figures of 2%. In Oslo, Norway, the corresponding figures are somewhat lower, 0.6%-0.8%.

170
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

A

TRIAD:

  • CONFUSION
  • ATAXIA
  • NYSTAGMUS - OPTHALMOPLEGIA

Diagnostic factors:

  • History of GI surgery
  • Mental slowing
  • Impaired concentration
  • Apathy
  • Frank confusion
  • Ocular motor findings - gaze palsies, 6th nerve palsies, impaired vestibulo-ocular reflexes
  • Mental status changes
  • Opthalmoplegia
  • Gait dysfunction
  • Mild irritability
  • Delirium
  • Acute psychosis
171
Q

Recognise the signs of Wernicke’s encephalopathy on physical examination.

A

TRIAD:

  • CONFUSION
  • ATAXIA
  • NYSTAGMUS - OPTHALMOPLEGIA

Diagnostic factors:

  • History of GI surgery
  • Mental slowing
  • Impaired concentration
  • Apathy
  • Frank confusion
  • Ocular motor findings - gaze palsies, 6th nerve palsies, impaired vestibulo-ocular reflexes
  • Mental status changes
  • Opthalmoplegia
  • Gait dysfunction
  • Mild irritability
  • Delirium
  • Acute psychosis
172
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Wernicke’s encephalopathy and interpret the results.

A

1st line:

  • Trial of parenteral thiamine - clinical response to treatment (thiamine level obtained before administration)
  • Finger-prick glucose - normal unless co-existent conditions (alcoholic liver disease, acute alcohol intoxication, sepsis, hypotension)
  • FBC - normal unless WCC due to infection
  • Serum electrolytes - normal, abnormal if not treated or in late-presenting disease
  • Renal function -normal, abnormal if not treated or in late-presenting disease
  • LFTs- elevated if history of chronic alcohol misuse or hypotension
  • Urinary and serum drug screen - negative
  • Serum ammonia - normal unless decompensation of co-existent alcoholic liver disease
  • Blood alcohol level - high if alcohol misuse
  • Blood thiamine and its metabolites - while the blood thiamine levels are usually low, the critical blood concentrations of thiamine for treating the condition have not been determined
  • Serum magnesium - may be low in alcohol misuse

Consider:

  • LP - normal (exclude other pathology)
  • MRI - involvement of mammillary bodies, dorsomedial nucleus of thalami, periaqueductal grey matter, floor of 4th ventricle, cerebellar vermis
  • CT - bilateral low-density thalamic lesions, low density areas around aqueduct / 3rd ven / fornices
173
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of tension headache.

A

Episodic or chronic.

Stress and mental tension are common triggers.

Usually do not seek medical care, self-treat.

Risk factors:

  • Mental tension
  • Stress
  • Missing meals
  • Fatigue
  • Somatisation
  • Female
  • Age 20-39 years
  • Lower socioeconomic status
  • Analgesic overuse
174
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of tension headache.

A

Most common type of headache.

175
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of tensions headache.

A
  • Dull
  • Non-pulsatile
  • Bilateral
  • Constricting pain (not severe)
  • Pericranial tenderness
  • Frontal and occipital regions
  • Tight band around the head
  • Doesn’t worsen with routine physical activity (unlike migraine)
  • No N&V
176
Q

Recognise the signs of tension headache on physical examination.

A

Normal neurological examination.

Pericranial tenderness. 
Sternocleidomastoid muscle tenderness. 
Trapezius muscle tenderness.
Temporalis muscle tenderness. 
Lateral pterygoid muscle tenderness. 
Masseter muscle tenderness.
177
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for tension headache and interpret the results.

A

1stline:
- Clinical diagnosis

Consider:

  • CT sinus- normal - exclude sphenoid sinusitis
  • MRI brain - normal - exclude brain tumour
  • Lumbar puncture - normal - consider excluding infective causes, sinus venous thrombosis, pseudotumour cerebri
178
Q

Generate a management plan for tension headache.

A

ACUTE ATTACK
- Simple analgesics - aspirin, paracetmol, ibuprofen, naproxen

CHRONIC - 7-9 headache days / months

  • Antidepressants - amitriptyline, doxepin, venlafaxine, mirtazapine
  • Non-drug therapies - EMG biofeedback, relaxation training, CBT, myofascial trigger point-focused massage, acupuncture, spinal manipulation, physiotherapy, hypnosis
  • Muscle relaxants - tizanidine
179
Q

Identify the possible complications of tension headache and its management.

A
  • Overreliance on non-prescription caffeine containing analgesics
  • Dependence on narcotic analgesics
  • GI bleed or peptic ulcer from NSAIDs
  • Risk of epilepsy x4 than general population
  • Medication overuse headache
180
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with tension headache.

A

Tension-type headaches (TTH) may be painful, but are not harmful. Most cases are intermittent and do not interfere with work or normal life span. However, they may become chronic if life stressors are not changed.

181
Q

Define TIA.

A

A transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord or retinal ischaemia without acute infarction.

182
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of TIA.

A

Risk factors:

  • Atrial fibrillation
  • Valvular disease
  • Carotid stenosis
  • CHF
  • Hypertension
  • DM
  • Cigarette smoking
  • Alcohol-use disorder
  • Advanced age
  • Hyperlipidaemia
  • Patent foramen ovale
  • Inactivity
  • Obesity
  • Hypercoagulability
183
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of TIA.

A

The incidence likely mirrors that of stroke. The incidence of TIAs increases with age, from 1-3 cases per 100,000 in those younger than 35 years to as many as 1500 cases per 100,000 in those older than 85 years. Fewer than 3% of all major cerebral infarcts occur in children

184
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of TIA.

A
  • Sudden onset
  • Few minutes to 24 hours
  • Usually complete resolution of symptoms and signs within 1 hour
  • Patient / witness report of focal neurological deficit
  • Vertigo
  • Loss of balance
  • Sudden transient loss of vision in one eye - amaurosis fugax
185
Q

Recognise the signs of TIA on physical examination.

A
  • Unilateral weakness or paralysis
  • Dysphasia
  • Ataxia
  • Homonymous hemianopia
  • Diplopia
  • Risk factors
186
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for TIA and interpret the results.

A

1st line:

  • Blood glucose - exclude hypoglycaemia
  • FBC - exclude infection
  • Platelet count - exclude infection
  • PT time - normal unless already on anticoagulation, liver disease or antiphospholipid antibodies
  • INR - normal unless already on anticoagulation, liver disease or antiphospholipid antibodies
  • Partial thromboplastin time - normal unless already on anticoagulation, liver disease or antiphospholipid antibodies
  • Fasting lipid profile - baseline measure, evaluate atherosclerotic factors
  • Serum electrolytes - exclude electrolyte disturbance cause
  • ECG - may show atrial fibrillation, arrythmias or MI

Consider:
- URGENT CT scan - in patients taking anticoagulant or with bleeding disorder to exclude haemorrhage

187
Q

Generate a management plan for TIA.

A

SUSPECTED

  • Antiplatelet therapy - aspirin, clopidogrel 300mg orally as loading dose
  • PPI given if dyspepsia
  • Specialist assessment

CONFIRMED

  • Antiplatelet therapy - clopidogrel (better for long-term secondary prevention), aspirin 75mg orally OD
  • PPI given if dyspepsia
  • High intensity statin - atorvastatin
  • Anticoagulant for AFib after excluding intracranial bleeding - e.g. LMWH or direct thrombin inhibitor or factor Xa inhibitor (non-valvular AFib)
188
Q

Identify the possible complications of TIA and its management.

A

Suspect a stroke if sudden-onset, focal neurological deficit persists for longer than 24 hours and cannot be explained by another condition such as hypoglycaemia.

Generally do not cause permanent brain damage, but are a serious warning sign.

189
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with TIA.

A

Recurrent risk of stroke is high in first 7 days following a TIA.

With passive reporting, the early risk of stroke after TIA is approximately 4% at 2 days, 8% at 30 days, and 9% at 90 days. When patients with TIA are followed prospectively, however, the incidence of stroke is as high as 11% at 7 days. The probability of stroke in the 5 years following a TIA is reported to be 24-29%