Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

Define anti-phospholipid syndrome.

A

The association of antiphospholipid antibodies with a variety of clinical features characterized by thromboses and pregnancy-related morbidity.

Antibodies:

  • Lupus anticoagulant
  • Anticardiolipin antibody
  • Anti-beta-2-glycoprotein I
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2
Q

Explain the aetiology/risk factors of anti-phospholipid syndrome.

A

Pregnancy morbidity is defined as the loss of 3 or more embryos before the 10th week of gestation and/or 1 or more otherwise unexplained fetal deaths beyond the 10th week of gestation, and/or the premature birth of a morphologically normal neonate before the 34th week of gestation because of eclampsia, severe pre-eclampsia, or placental insufficiency.

Female patients with antiphospholipid antibodies and a history of pregnancy-related morbidity but no history of thrombosis are considered to have obstetric APS.

Patients who have antiphospholipid antibodies but no thrombotic or related obstetric complications (i.e., do not fit criteria for APS) are considered to have incidental antiphospholipid antibodies (aPL). Such patients are at increased risk of thrombosis, but it is not possible to identify which specific patients are at risk.

Risk factors:
- History of SLE, autoimmune rheumatological diseases, autoimmune haematological disorders

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3
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of anti-phospholipid syndrome.

A

1-5% of healthy individuals have aPL antibodies.

It is estimated that the incidence of APS is approximately 5 cases per 100,000 persons per year, and the prevalence is approximately 40-50 cases per 100, 000 persons.

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4
Q

Recognize the presenting symptoms of anti-phospholipid syndrome.

A
  • History or current dx of vascular thrombosis
  • History of pregnancy loss
  • History of pregnancy associated morbidity
  • History of SLE
  • Features of thrombocytopenia
  • Arthralgia / arthritis
  • Livedo reticularis - mottled discolouration of the skin
  • History of other rheumatological disorders or connective tissue disorders
  • Cardiac murmur
  • Oedema
  • Seizure
  • Headache
  • Memory loss
  • Signs of transverse myelopathy
  • Limb discomfort, swelling
  • Skin discoloration
  • Ulcers
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5
Q

Recognize the signs of the anti-phospholipids syndrome on physical examination.

A
  • History or current dx of vascular thrombosis
  • History of pregnancy loss
  • History of pregnancy associated morbidity
  • History of SLE
  • Features of thrombocytopenia
  • Arthralgia / arthritis
  • Livedo reticularis - mottled discolouration of the skin
  • History of other rheumatological disorders or connective tissue disorders
  • Cardiac murmur
  • Oedema
  • Seizure
  • Headache
  • Memory loss
  • Signs of transverse myelopathy
  • Limb discomfort, swelling
  • Skin discoloration
  • Ulcers
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6
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for anti-phospholipid syndrome and interpret the results.

A

1st Line:

  • Lupus anticoagulant - positive on 2 occasions, 12 weeks apart
  • Anti-cardiolipin antibodies - elevated on 2 occasions, 12 weeks apart
  • Anti-beta-2-glycoprotein I antibodies - elevated on 2 occasions, 12 weeks apart
  • ANA, double-stranded DNA, and extractable nuclear antigen antibodies - elevated in SLE
  • FBC - thrombocytopenia (autoimmune or idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura)
  • Creatinine and urea - elevated if nephropathy is present

Think about:

  • Venous Doppler ultrasound - DVT
  • Venography or MRI - DVT
  • MRI of thrombosis - DVT
  • CT angiogram of the chest - PE
  • Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan - PE
  • Cranial MRI - ischaemic stroke
  • Echocardiography - valve vegetations
  • Thrombophilia - negative
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7
Q

Define aplastic anaemia.

A

Defined by pancytopenia with hypocellular marrow and no abnormal cells.

At least 2 of the following peripheral cytopenias must be present:

  • Hb <100 g/L
  • Platelets <50 x 10^9/L
  • Absolute neutrophil count <1.5 x 10^9/L

Bone marrow should show:

  • Hypocellularity
  • No evidence of dysplasia, blasts, fibrosis or abnormal infiltrate
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8
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of aplastic anaemia.

A

Most often idiopathic.

Risk factors:

  • Drug or toxin exposure
  • Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)
  • Recent hepatitis
  • Pregnancy
  • Autoimmune disease
  • Family history
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9
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of aplastic anaemia.

A

The overall incidence of aplastic anemia in the study area was 2.34 cases per million population per year, and the mortality at 2 years was nearly one death per million per year. Both increased with age. Survival rates were 73% at 3 months, 57% at 2 and 5 years, and 51% at 15 years

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10
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of aplastic anaemia.

A
  • Presence of risk factors
  • History of recurrent infection
  • Fatigue
  • History of bleeding or easy bruising
  • Premature hair loss / premature greying
  • Hyperhidrosis
  • Dysphagia
  • Extensive dental caries or tooth loss
  • Steatorrhoea
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11
Q

Recognise the signs of aplastic anaemia on physical examination.

A
  • Pallor
  • Conjunctival pallor
  • Ecchymoses
  • Tachycardia
  • Dyspnoea
  • Persistent warts

Uncommon:

  • Hearing loss or deafness
  • Short stature
  • Pigmentation abnormalities
  • Urogenital abnormalities
  • Nail malformations
  • Reticular rash
  • Oral leukoplakia
  • Epiphora
  • Osteoporosis
  • Skeletal dysplasia
  • Monocytopenia
  • Non-TB mycobacterial infections
  • Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
  • Congenital lymphoedema
  • Emberger syndrome
  • Immunodeficiency
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12
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for aplastic anaemia and interpret the results.

A

1st Line:

  • FBC with differential - 2 cytopenias among WCC, RCC, platelets, macrocytosis = inherited (Fanconi, dyskeratosis congenita), monocytopenia (GATA2-related)
  • Reticulocyte count - low (hypoproductive - opposite to haemolytic anaemia which would be high)
  • Bone marrow biopsy and cytogenetic analyses - hypocellular marrow with abnormal cell population

To consider:

  • Serum B12 and folate levels - alternative cause of pancytopenia
  • HIV testing - alternative cause of pancytopenia
  • LFTs - abnormal = inherited (dyskeratosis congenita, Schwachman-Diamond), recent hepatitis, exposure to toxins
  • Autoantibody screen - autoimmmune cause
  • Flow cytometry for glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI) - anchored proteins
  • CXR - if suspect malignancy, infection, lung fibrosis
  • Ab USS - malignancy, Fanconi anaemia, telomeropathy
  • Genetic tests - chromosomal breakage testing (diepoxybutane [DEB] test) for Fanconi anaemia; relevant genetic sequencing for other disorders, such as TERC, TERT, TINF2, DKC1 (for dyskeratosis congenita), SBDS (for Shwachman-Diamond syndrome), and GATA2 (for inherited GATA2-related disorder), telomere length (telomeropathies)
  • CT - if telomeropathies or dyskeratosis congenita suspected

Dyskeratosis congenita = lung fibrosis, cirrhosis, non-cirrhotic portal hypertension

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13
Q

Define and discuss red cell transfusion, including indications and complications of transfusion.

A

Indications:

  • Hb < 6g/dL or <3.7 mmoL/L
  • Haematocrit < 18%
  • Symptomatic anaemia - shortness of breath, dizziness, congestive HF, decreased exercise tolerance
  • Acute sickle cell crisis
  • Acute blood loss >30% blood volume

Complications:

  • Allergic reactions
  • Febrile, non-haemolytic reactions
  • Immediate haemolytic reactions
  • Delayed haemolytic reactions
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14
Q

Define and discuss platelet transfusion, including indications and complications of transfusion.

A

Indications:

  • Thrombocytopenia or platelet function defect
  • Correction of coagulopathy - if <50 x 10^9/ml
  • Prophylactic transfusion - major surgery, invasive procedures, ocular surgery, neurosurgery, surgery with active bleeding

Examples:

  • Leukaemia
  • Aplastic anaemia
  • AIDS
  • Hypersplenism
  • Sepsis
  • Bone marrow transplant
  • Radiation treatment
  • Organ transplant or surgeries

Complications:

  • Bacterial contamination
  • Allergic reactions
  • Febrile reactons
  • VTE
  • TRALI = Transfusion related acute lung injury

Avoid in those with TTP because it can worsen neurologic symptoms and acute renal failure due to the creation of new thrombi as platelets are consumed.

Avoid in those with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) due to disseminated intravascular coagulation.

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15
Q

Define and discuss FFP transfusion, including indications and complications of transfusion.

A

Contents = ALL CLOTTING FACTORS:

  • Fibrinogen (400-900 mg/unit)
  • Plasma proteins - e.g. albumin
  • Electrolytes
  • Physiological anticoagulants - e.g. Protein C, Protein S, anti-thrombin, tissue factor pathway inhibitor
  • Added anticoagulants

Definitive Indications:

  • Factor deficiency
  • Warfarin reversal (Vit K deficiency associated with active bleeding, high INR)
  • Acute DIC
  • TTP

Conditional Use:

  • Massive transfusion
  • Liver disease
  • Cardio-pulmonary bypass
  • Paediatric indications
  • Deranged coagulation

No Justification:

  • Hypovolaemia
  • Plasma exchange
  • Formula replacement
  • Nutritional support
  • Immunodeficiency

Complications:

  • Disease transmission
  • Anaphylactoid reactions
  • Excessive intravascular volume = transfusion associated circulatory overload (TACO)
  • Transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI)
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16
Q

Define and discuss cryoprecipitate, including indications and complications of transfusion.

A

Contents:

  • Fibrinogen (Factor I)
  • Factor VIII
  • Factor XIII
  • VWF
  • Fibronectin

Indications:

  • Hypofibrinogenaemia
  • Dysfibrinogenemia
  • VW disease
  • Haemophilia A
  • Factor XIII deficiency
  • Management of bleeding related to thrombolytic therapy
  • DIC
  • Uraemic bleeding tendency
  • Reversing TPA with aminocaproic acid

DO NOT USE to prepare fibrin glue or treat sepsis

Complications:

  • Haemolytic transfusion reactions
  • Febrile, non-haemolytic reactions
  • Allergic reactions from urticaria to anaphylaxis
  • Septic reactions
  • Transfusion-related acute lung injury = TRALI
  • Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease
  • Post-transfusion purpura
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17
Q

Define and discuss prothrombin complex concentrate, including indications and complications of transfusion.

A

Contents:

  • Factor II
  • Factor IX
  • Factor X

May also contain:

  • Factor VII
  • Protein C
  • Protein S
  • Heparin - to stop early activation of factors

Indications:

  • Reversal of acquired coagulation factor deficiency - e.g. induced by Vit K antagonist (WARFARIN)
  • Acute major bleeding
  • Peri-operative prophylaxis of hemorrhage with congenital factor deficiency

Contraindications:

  • History of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
  • History of MI in last 3 months
  • History of unstable angina within last 3 months

Complications:

  • Embolism
  • thrombosis
  • Anxiety
  • Device thrombosis
  • Haemorrhage
  • Hepatic function abnormal
  • Hypertension
  • Respiratory disorders
  • Cardiac arrest
  • Chills
  • Circulatory collapse
  • DIC
  • Dyspnoea
  • Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
  • Hypotension
  • Nausea
  • Skin reactions
  • Tachycardia
  • Tremor
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18
Q

Define disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

A

An acquired syndrome characterized by activation of coagulation pathways, resulting in the formation of intravascular thrombi and depletion of platelets and coagulation factors.

May lead to:

  • Vascular obstruction
  • Ischaemia
  • Multi-organ failure
  • Spontaneous bleeding
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19
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

A

Triggered by:

  • Major trauma
  • Organ destruction
  • Sepsis or severe infection
  • Severe obstetric disorders
  • Some malignancies
  • Major vascular disorders
  • Severe toxic or immunological reactions

Risk factors:

  • Major trauma / burn / organ destruction or sepsis / severe infection
  • Severe obstetric disorders or complications
  • Solid tumours and haematological malignancies
  • Severe toxic or immunological reactions
  • Major vascular disorders - large AA or giant haemangiomas
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20
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

A

DIC may occur in 30-50% of patients with sepsis, and it develops in an estimated 1% of all hospitalized patients. DIC occurs at all ages and in all races, and no particular sex predisposition has been noted.

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21
Q

Recognise the signs of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) on physical examination.

A
  • Petechiae
  • Ecchymosis
  • Gangrene
  • Mental disorientation
  • Hypoxia
  • Hypotension
  • GI bleeding
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22
Q

Recognise the signs of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) on physical examination.

A
  • Petechiae
  • Ecchymosis
  • Gangrene
  • Mental disorientation
  • Hypoxia
  • Hypotension
  • GI bleeding
  • Tachycardia
  • Purpura fulminans
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23
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) and interpret the results.

A

Diagnosis:

  • Presence of >1 known underlying condition causing DIC
  • Abnormal global coagulation tests

Test results:

  • Decreased platelet count
  • Increased PT time
  • Elevaed fibrin-related maker (D-dimer / fibrin degradation products)
  • Decreased fibrinogen level

1st Line:

  • Platelet count - low
  • Prothormbin time - long
  • Fibrinogen - low
  • D-dimer / fibrin degradation products - high
  • Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) - unpredictable, long
  • Imaging studies or other tests - variable, dependent on underlying disorder and areas of thrombosis & haemorrhage

Investigations to consider:

  • Thrombin time - conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin, long
  • Protamine test - positive (detects fibrin monomers in plasma)
  • Factor V, VIII, X, XIII - low due to excessive consumption

Emerging tests:

  • Inflammatory cytokines
  • D-dimer (monoclonal antibody test)
  • Anti-thrombin III
  • FPA
  • Prothrombin Fragment 1 and 2
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24
Q

Define haemolytic anaemia.

A

A number of conditions that result in the premature destruction of RBCs.

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25
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of haemolytic anaemia.

A

Causes:

  • Autoantibodies
  • Medications - e.g. cephalosporins, dapsone, levodopa, levofloxacin, methyldopa, nitrofurantoin, NSAIDs, penicillins
  • Underlying malignancy
  • Hereditary conditions - e.g. hemoglobinopathies

Risk factors:

  • Autoimmune disorders
  • Lymphoproliferative disorders
  • Prosthetic heart valve (mechanical, ball-and-cage devices, bileaflet valves)
  • Family origin in Mediterranean, Middle East, Africa or Southeast Asia
  • Family history of haemoglobinopathy or RBC membrane defects
  • Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
  • Recent exposure to cephalosporins, penicillins, quinine derivatives, or NSAIDs
  • Recent exposure to naphthalene or fava beans
  • Thermal injury
  • Exceptional exertion
  • Recent exposure to nitrites, dapsone, ribavirin, phenazopyridine
  • Recent paraquat ingestion
  • Malaria
  • Babesiosis
  • Bartonellosis
  • Clostridium perfringens infection
  • Haemophilus influenzae Type B infection
  • Liver disease
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26
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of haemolytic anaemia.

A

Hemolytic anemia represents approximately 5% of all anemias. Acute AIHA is relatively rare, with an incidence of one to three cases per 100,000 population per year. Hemolytic anemias are not specific to any race.

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27
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of haemolytic anaemia.

A
  • Presence of risk factors
  • Fatigue
  • Shortness of breath
  • Dizziness
  • Dark urine
  • Active infections - e.g. malaria, Babesia, Bertonella, clostridial sepsis, pneumococci, E.coli, staphylococci
  • Triggered by exposure to cold
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28
Q

Recognise the signs of haemolytic anaemia on physical examination.

A
  • Pallor
  • Jaundice
  • Splenomegaly
  • Dark urine
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29
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for haemolytic anaemia and interpret the results.

A

1st Line:

  • FBC - low Hb
  • MCHC - high (presence of spherocytes, reticulocytes)
  • Reticulocyte count - high rectiulocyte percentage (>1.5%), absolute reticulocyte count, recticulocyte index
  • Peripheral smear - schistocytes, spherocytes, elliptocytes, spur cells, blister cells, bite cells, tear drops, RBC inclusions (malaria, babesiosis, Bartonella infection)
  • Unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin - high!
  • LDH - high!
  • Haptoglobin - low! - binds free Hb with low plasma values = increased free Hb
  • Urinalysis - dipstick positive for blood, no RBCs = haemoglobinuria

To consider:

  • Direct antiglobulin test (DAT or Coombs’) - positive = immune aetiology, negative = non-immune aetiology
  • Creatinine, urea = thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) or haemolytic uraemic syndrome
  • LFTs - high in liver disease
  • Donath-Landsteiner antibody - cold-immune disease
  • Hb electrophoresis - HbS = sickle cell, HbA2 and HbF = beta-thalassaemia
  • Flow cytometry for CD55 / CD59 - abnormal (test for paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria clone - dark urine)
  • G6PD fluorescent spot test and spectrophotometry - low G6PD activity
  • ANA - positive if SLE (10% of cases)
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30
Q

Define haemolytic uraemic syndrome.

A

Characterised by a triad of microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia and AKI.

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31
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of haemolytic uraemic syndrome.

A

HUS
- Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC)

Atypical HUS

  • Abnormalities in the alternative complement regulatory pathway
  • Endothelial cell damage
  • Microvascular thombosis

Risk factors:

  • Ingestion of contaminated food or water
  • Known community outbreak of Shiga toxin-producing E.coli
  • Exposure to infected individuals in institutional settings
  • Genetic predisposition to atypical HUS
  • Bone marrow transplant
  • Exposure to ciclosporin, chemotherapy, targeted cancer agents, quinine
  • Pregnancy or post-partum related
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32
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of haemolytic uraemic syndrome.

A

Ninety percent of HUS cases occur in the paediatric population, due to Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli(STEC)

Atypical HUS can occur in adults, and in some children.

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33
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of haemolytic uraemic syndrome on physical examination.

A
  • Diarrhoea
  • Bloody diarrhoea
  • Childhood (< 5 years)

Uncommon:

  • Known community outbreak of Shiga toxin-producing E-coli
  • History of ingestion of food that may have been contaminated with Shiga toxin-producing E-coli
  • Unusual side effect seen after treatment with ciclosporin, chemotherapy, quinine
  • Pregnancy or post-partum status
  • Unusual adverse effect seen after bone marrow transplant
  • Family history of possible HUS-like syndrome
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34
Q

Recognise the signs of haemolytic uraemic syndrome on physical examination.

A
  • Diarrhoea
  • Bloody diarrhoea
  • Childhood (< 5 years)

Uncommon:

  • Known community outbreak of Shiga toxin-producing E-coli
  • History of ingestion of food that may have been contaminated with Shiga toxin-producing E-coli
  • Unusual side effect seen after treatment with ciclosporin, chemotherapy, quinine
  • Pregnancy or post-partum status
  • Unusual adverse effect seen after bone marrow transplant
  • Family history of possible HUS-like syndrome
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35
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for haemolytic uraemic syndrome and interpret the results.

A

1st Line:

  • FBC - anaemia, thrombocytopenia
  • Peripheral blood smear - presence of schistocytes
  • Renal function / creatinine - increasing creatinine due to renal endothelial cell damage
  • Serum electrolytes - sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, calcium and phosphorus = high K+, low or high Na+, acidosis, high PO4, low HCO3
  • PT/PTT - normal to rule out DIC
  • LDH - high (released from destroyed RBC)
  • Haptoglobin - low (binds free Hb released by destroyed RBC)
  • Stool culture on sorbitol-MacConkey agar - Shiga toxin-producing E.coli cannot ferment sorbitol, appears as white colonies
  • PCR - positive
  • Protein involved in complement regulation - abnormal levels of complement in familial and atypical HUS

Consider:

  • Urinalysis - if renal involvement = haematuria, proteinuria or elevated creatinine level
  • ADAMTS13 level - normal in most cases
  • LFTs - transient transaminitis if hepatic involvement
  • Serum amylase, lipase, glucose - increased if pancreatic involvement
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36
Q

Define haemophilia.

A

A bleeding disorder, usually inherited with an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern, which results from the deficiency of a coagulation factor.

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37
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of haemophilia.

A

Haemophilia A
- Deficiency of clotting factor VIII

Haemophilia B
- Deficiency of clotting factor IX

Acquired haemophilia

  • Separate non-inherited condition
  • Much rarer than congenital haemophilia
  • Autoimmune-related aetiology
  • No genetic inheritance pattern

Risk factors:

  • Family history of haemophilia (congenital)
  • Male sex (congenital)
  • Age > 60 years (acquired)
  • Autoimmune disorders - e.g. IBD, diabetes, hepatitis, pregnancy, postnatal, malignancy (acquired)
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38
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of haemophilia.

A

Hemophilia A is seen in about 1 in every 4,000–5,000 males worldwide, compared with hemophilia B, which is estimated to be in 1 in every 20,000 men. Hemophilia C, a much rarer form of the disease, is estimated to occur in about 1 case per 100,000 people in the U.S.

Almost exclusively in males due to X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance.

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39
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of haemophilia.

A
  • Presence of risk factors
  • History of recurrent or severe bleeding
  • Bleeding into muscles
  • Prolonged bleeding following heel prick or circumcision
  • Mucocutaneous bleeding
  • Haemarthrosis
  • Intracranial bleeding
  • Fatigue
  • Menorrhagia and bleeding following surgical procedures or childbirth (female carriers)
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40
Q

Recognise the signs of haemophilia on physical examination.

A
  • Excessive bruising
  • Haematoma
  • Extensive cutaneous purpura (acquired)
  • GI bleeding (haematemesis or melena)
  • Haematuria
  • Distended and tender abdomen
  • Pallor
  • Tachycardia
  • Tachypnoea
  • Hypotension
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41
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for haemophilia and interpret the results.

A

1st Line:

  • aPTT - prolonged
  • Plasma Factor VIII and Factor IX assay - low (use to determine severity)
  • Mixing study - aPTT corrected by incubating patient plasma with normal plasma in congenital, not corrected if antibodies present in immune acquired
  • FBC - normal, low Hb if bleeding
  • PT - normal
  • Plasma vWF assay - normal
  • Plasma Factor V, VII, XI, XII assay - normal
  • Closure time/bleeding time and platelet aggregation studies - normal
  • Serum AST and ALT - normal (check for liver disease)
  • Plain XR of bony sites - demonstrate findings of acute joint bleeding (haemarthrosis)
  • Antenatal factor VIII or IX mutation analysis by amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling (CVS) - specific genetic mutation identified

Consider:

  • Head or neck CT
  • Head or neck MRI
  • Abdominal ultrasound or CT AP scan
  • OGD or colonoscopy
  • Blood factor VIII or IX mutation analysis
  • Plasma factor VIII or IX inhibitor screen
  • Bethesda assay / modified Bethesda assay on plasma sample - low-responder inhibitor
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42
Q

Define immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP).

A

Primary = a haematological disorder characterised by isolated thrombocytopenia (platelet count <100 x 10^9/L) in absence of identifiable cause

Secondary = all forms of ITP where associated medical conditions or precipitants can be identified.

Distinction clinically relevant due to different natural histories and treatments, including need to treat the underlying condition in secondary ITP.

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43
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP).

A

Primary = thrombocytopenia due to autoimmune destruction and involves antibody destruction of peripheral platelets.

Risk factors:

  • Women of childbearing age
  • Age <10 or >65 years
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44
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP).

A

Typically found in children often with a preceding viral illness and an abrupt onset. There is a female preponderance among adults, who may present with thrombocytopenia with or without bleeding.

The prevalence (how many adults have ITP at any time) is 9.5 cases per 100,000. The annual prevalence is estimated at 5.3 per 100,000 among children; because children with ITP usually recover, the number of children who have ITP at any one time is almost equal to those diagnosed annually.

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45
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP).

A
  • Presence of risk factors
  • Bleeding
  • Absence of systemic symptoms - e.g. fever, weight loss, arthralgia, skin rash, skin rash, alopecia, venous thrombosis
  • Absence of medicines that cause thrombocytopenia - e.g. heparin, alcohol, quinine / quinidine, sulfa drugs
  • Absent splenomegaly or hepatomegaly
  • Absent lymphadenopathy
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46
Q

Recognise the signs of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) on physical examination.

A
  • Presence of risk factors
  • Bleeding
  • Absence of systemic symptoms - e.g. fever, weight loss, arthralgia, skin rash, skin rash, alopecia, venous thrombosis
  • Absence of medicines that cause thrombocytopenia - e.g. heparin, alcohol, quinine / quinidine, sulfa drugs
  • Absent splenomegaly or hepatomegaly
  • Absent lymphadenopathy
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47
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) and interpret the results.

A

1st Line:

  • FBC - low platelets < 100 x 10^9/L
  • Peripheral blood smear - low platelets (distinguishes between true thrombocytopenia and pseudothrombocytopenia occuring when there is insufficient collection in 0.1% of adults)

Consider:

  • HIV serology
  • H.pylori breath test or stool antigen test
  • Hepatitis C serology
  • TFTs - both hyper and hypothyroidism cause thrombocytopenia
  • Quantitative immunoglobulins - reveal common variable immunodeficiency or selective IgA deficiency
  • Bone marrow biopsy / aspiration - increased megakaryocytes, no malignancy or cytometry or cytogenetic abnormalities
  • Pregnancy test
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48
Q

Define multiple myeloma.

A

A plasma cell dyscrasia characterized by terminally differentiated plasma cells, infiltration of bone marrow by plasma cells and the presence of monoclonal immunoglobulin (or immunoglobulin fragment) in serum and/or urine.

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49
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of multiple myeloma.

A

Risk factors:

  • Osteolytic bone disease
  • Anaemia
  • Renal failure
  • Abnormal free light-chain ratio
  • Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)
  • Family history
  • Radiation exposure
  • Petroleum products exposure
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50
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of multiple myeloma.

A

Myeloma incidence rates are projected to rise by 11% in the UK between 2014 and 2035, to 12 cases per 100,000 people by 2035. [1] This includes a larger increase for males than for females. It is projected that 8,888 cases of myeloma (5,229 in males, 3,659 in females) will be diagnosed in the UK in 2035.

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51
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of multiple myeloma.

A
  • Anaemia
  • Bone pain
  • Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)
  • Infections
  • Fatigue
  • Renal impairment
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52
Q

Recognise the signs of multiple myeloma on physical examination.

A
  • Anaemia
  • Bone pain
  • Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)
  • Infections
  • Fatigue
  • Renal impairment
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53
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for multiple myeloma and interpret the results.

A

1st Line:
- Serum / urine electrophoresis - paraprotein spike, hypogammaglobulinaemia

(IgG >35g/L or IgA >20g/L and light chain urinary excretion >1g/day)

  • Skeletal survey - osteopenia, osteolytic lesions, pathological fractures
  • Whole-body, low-dose computed tomography (WBLD-CT) - osteolytic lesions (>5mm in diameter), pathological fractures
  • Serum-free light-chain assay - increased concentrations of free light chain in serum
  • Bone marrow aspirate and biopsy - monoclonal plasma cel infiltration in bone marrow >10%
  • Serum calcium - hypercalcaemia
  • FBC - anaemia
  • Creatinine, urea - renal impairment (creatinin >176 mmol/L)
  • Serum beta-2-microglobulin - correlates with clinical stages, <3.5mgd/dL (stage 1), >5.5mgL (Stage 3)
  • Serum albumin - prognostic significance - >35g/L (stage I)

Consider:
- Whole body MRI - >1 focal lesions on MRI study, bone marrow infiltration

  • 18F-fluorodeoxyglucose-positron emission tomography (FDG-PET) - bone disease, bone marrow infiltration
  • CRP - high or increasing
  • LDH - higher = more extensive disease
  • Cytogenetics & fluorescence in situ hybridisation analysis - chromosomal trisomies or monosomies
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54
Q

Define Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

A

An uncommon haematological malignancy arising from mature B cells.

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55
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of Hodgkin’s lymphomas.

A

Characterized by the presence of Hodgkin’s cells and Reed-Sternberg cells.

Risk factors:

  • History of EBV infection
  • Family history
  • Young adults from higher socio-economic class
  • HLA types
  • Jewish ancestry
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56
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Hodgkin’s lymphomas.

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a rare cancer of the lymphatic system that affects the B-lymphocytes and leaves a patient susceptible to infection. Estimates suggest that around 1 in 25,000 people are affected by this cancer every year and the condition accounts for just under 1% of all cancers that occur worldwide.

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57
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

A

B-Symptoms:

  • Fevers
  • Night sweats
  • Weight loss

Common presentation:

  • Painless
  • Cervical and/or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy
  • Young adult

Uncommon factors:

  • Unexplained fevers
  • Night sweats
  • Weight loss
  • Dyspnoea
  • Cough
  • Chest pain
  • SVC syndrome - due to extensive mediastinal adenopathy causing dyspnoea, cough, orthopnoea, facial and upper extremity oedema and dilated neck veins
  • Abdominal pain
  • Generalised pruritus
  • Alcohol-induced pain at involved sites
  • Hepatomegaly and / or splenomegaly
  • Tonsillar enlargement
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58
Q

Recognise the signs of Hodgkin’s lymphoma on physical examination.

A

B-Symptoms:

  • Fevers
  • Night sweats
  • Weight loss

Common presentation:

  • Painless
  • Cervical and/or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy
  • Young adult

Uncommon factors:

  • Unexplained fevers
  • Night sweats
  • Weight loss
  • Dyspnoea
  • Cough
  • Chest pain
  • SVC syndrome - due to extensive mediastinal adenopathy causing dyspnoea, cough, orthopnoea, facial and upper extremity oedema and dilated neck veins
  • Abdominal pain
  • Generalised pruritus
  • Alcohol-induced pain at involved sites
  • Hepatomegaly and / or splenomegaly
  • Tonsillar enlargement
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59
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Hodgkin’s lymphoma and interpret the results.

A
  • FBC - low Hb and platelets, WBC may be high or low
  • Metabolic panel - normal
  • ESR - elevated
  • CXR - mediastinal mass, large mediastinal adenopathy (negative prognostic factor)
  • PET-CT scan - involved sites appear FDG-avid (bright)
  • Gallium scan - bright involved sites
  • Contrast CT neck, chest and AP - enlarged lymph nodes
  • Excisional lymph node biopsy - Hodgkin’s cells
  • Immunohistochemical studies - CD30-positive, CD15-positive, CD45-negative, CD20 positive

Investigations to consider:

  • Bone marrow biopsy - Hodgkin’s cells
  • TFTs - abnormal in patients who receive radiotherapy to neck
  • Echo or multi-gated acquisition (MUGA) scan
  • Pulmonary function tests
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60
Q

Define non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

A

A heterogeneous group of malignancies of the lymphoid system.

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61
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

A
  • Malignant lymphoid cells retain many qualities of their normal counterparts - e.g. defending organism from external and internal (neoplastic) threats
  • Boundaries between leukaemias and lymphomas are blurred - e.g. acute alymphocytic leukaemia and acute lymphoblastic lymphoma, chronic lymphocytic leukaemia and small lymphocytic lymphoma
  • Depends on relative presence of solid phase (lymphoma) versus circulating phase (leukaemia)

Risk factors:

  • Age > 50 years
  • Male
  • Immunocompromised host
  • Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
  • HTLV-1 virus
  • Herpes Virus-8
  • H.pylori
  • Coeliac disease
  • HIV
  • Hepatitis C virus
  • Sjogren’s syndrome
  • Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
  • Ataxia - Telangiectasia
  • Organ transplant
  • Borrelia burgdoferi
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • SLE
  • Common veriable immunodeficiency
  • Chediak-Higashi syndrome
  • Klinefelter’s syndrome
  • Pesticides
  • Phenoxyherbicides
  • Breast implants
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62
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

A
  • 4% of total cancer cases
  • 80-84 years peak rate
  • Increase by 39% incidence rate since 1990s
63
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

A
  • Night sweats
  • Weight loss
  • Fatigue / malaise
  • Fever
  • Shortness of breath
  • Cough
  • Abdominal discomfort
  • Headache
  • Change in mental status
  • Dizziness
  • Ataxia
  • Chest pain
  • Bone pain
  • Back pain
  • Jaundice
  • Pallor
  • Purpura
  • Skin lesions
64
Q

Recognise the signs of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma on physical examination.

A
  • Fever
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Splenomegaly
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Abdominal discomfort
  • Change in mental status
  • Jaundice
  • Pallor
  • Purpura
  • Skin lesions
  • Neuological abnormalities on examination
65
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and interpret the results.

A

1st Line:

  • FBC - thrombocytopenia, pancytopenia, lymphocytosis from bone-marrow / liver involvement
  • Blood smear - nucleated red blood cells, left shift
  • Lymph node biopsy - positive
  • Skin biopsy - positive
  • Bone marrow biopsy - positive
  • Basic metabolic panel - normal or deranged kidney, electorlyte and glucose function
  • LFTs - elevated due to liver involvement
  • LDH - elevated

Consider:

  • Flow cytometry - tumour surface markers determined, type of lymphoma
  • Immunohistochemistry - tumour surface markers determined, type of lymphoma
  • PCR for tumor markers - BCL1 and BLC2, TCR
  • Ig gene rearrangement studies - detection of rearrnaged genes
  • Cytogenetics studies with or without FISH - chromosomal translocations
  • Hep B and C serology - negative, if positive then risk of reatcivation, need to determine prior to chemo
  • HIV - positive or negative
  • LP - presence of abnormal cells, low glucose, high protein, high pressure (for Burkitt’s lymphoma, primary CNS lymphoma, AIDS-related B-cell lymphoma, CNS relapse risk high)
  • Colonoscopy - micropolyps
  • CT - staging tool
  • Multiple-gated acquisition scan - cardiac baseline function
  • Echo - cardiac baseline function
  • PET scan - involved sites brightness
66
Q

Define acute myeloid leukaemia.

A

The clonal expansion of myeloid blasts in the bone marrow, peripheral blood or extramedullar tissue.

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APML) - form of AML with normal WBC, bi-lobed nuclei, hypergranulated blasts, bundles of Auer rods.

67
Q

Define acute lymphocytic leukaemia.

A

A malignant clonal disease that develops when a lymphoid progenitor cell becomes genetically altered through somatic changes and undergoes uncontrolled proliferation.

68
Q

Define chronic myeloid leukaemia.

A

The malignant clonal disorder of haematopoietic stem cell that results in marked myeloid hyperplasia of the bone marrow.

69
Q

Define chronic lymphocytic leukaemia.

A

NB: The main difference between lymphocytic leukemias and lymphomas is that in leukemia, the cancer cells are mainly in the bone marrow and blood, while in lymphoma they tend to be in lymph nodes and other tissues.

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia:
An indolent lymphoproliferative disorder in which monoclonal B lymphocytes are found in peripheral blood.

(if found in lymph nodes = small lymphocytic lymphoma).

70
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of leukaemia (AML, ALL, CML, CLL).

A

Leukaemia incidence rates are projected to rise by 5% in the UK between 2014 and 2035, to 19 cases per 100,000 people by 2035. [1] This includes an increase for males and a drop for females. It is projected that 13,758 cases of leukaemia (8,714 in males, 5,044 in females) will be diagnosed in the UK in 2035.

71
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of acute myeloid leukaemia.

A
  • Pallor
  • Ecchymoses or petechiae
  • Fatigue
  • Dizziness
  • Palpitations
  • Dyspnoea
  • Infections or fever
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Mucosal bleeding
72
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of chronic myeloid leukaemia.

A

Dysregulation of haematopoiesis due to BCR-ABL fusion gene.

Abnormal expansion of myeloid cells in bone marrow and peripheral blood.

Chronic phase may transform to accelerated or blast phase in 5-10% of patients despite tyrosine kinase inhibitor treatment = acute myeloid or acute lymphoblastic leukaemia.

Risk factors:

  • Age 65-74 years
  • Ionising radiation exposure
  • Male
73
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia.

A

Risk factors:

  • Age over 60 years
  • Male sex
  • White ethnicity
  • Family history of CLL
74
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for leukaemia (AML, ALL, CML and CLL) and interpret the results.

A

AML:

  • FBC - anaemia, macrocytosis, leukocytosis, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia
  • Peripheral blood smear - blasts on blood film, presence of Auer rods
  • Coagulation panel - if abnormal = DIC
  • Serum electrolytes - elevated calcium, potassium, phosphorus, uric acid, lactic acid
  • Renal function - elevated urea
  • LFTs - normal or elevated
  • Serum lactic dehydrogenase - elevated
  • Bone marrow biopsy or aspiration - hypercellularity, infiltration
  • Immunophenotyping and molecular studies - specific lineage of blasts
  • Lumbar puncture- malignant cells
  • HLA antigen typing
  • CXR - consolidation, pulmonary infiltrates, cardiomegaly due to leukostasis
  • Echocardiogram
  • Multi-gated acquisition scan

ALL:

  • FBC - anaemia, leukocytosis, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia
  • Peripheral blood smear - leukaemic lymphoblasts
  • Serum electrolytes - elevated calcium, potassium, phosphorus, uric acid, lactic acid
  • Renal function - elevated or normal urea
  • Liver function - elevated or normal
  • Lactic dehydrogenase - elevated
  • Coagulation profile
  • Bone marrow aspiration and trephine biopsy - hypercellularity, lymphoblastic infiltration
  • Immunophenotyping
  • TPMT phenotype -
  • Cytogenetics
  • Molecules studies - Philadelphia chromosome?
  • HLA-typing
  • CXR - mediastinal mass, pleural effusion, LRTI
  • LP - leukaemic lymphoblasts
  • Pleural tap - leukaemic lymphoblasts
  • CT / MRI brain
  • CT
  • Minimal residual disease molecular samples
75
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of chronic myeloid leukaemia.

A
  • Presence of risk factors
  • Splenomegaly
  • Shortness of breath
  • Left upper quadrant discomfort or fullness
  • Epistaxis
  • Arthralgia
  • Sternal tenderness
  • Weight loss
  • Excessive sweating
  • Fever
  • Pallor
  • Bruising
  • Retinal haemorrhages
76
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of chronic myeloid leukaemia.

A
  • Presence of risk factors
  • Splenomegaly
  • Shortness of breath
  • Left upper quadrant discomfort or fullness
  • Epistaxis
  • Arthralgia
  • Sternal tenderness
  • Weight loss
  • Excessive sweating
  • Fever
  • Pallor
  • Bruising
  • Retinal hemorrhages
77
Q

Reocgnise the presenting symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia.

A
  • Shortness of breath and fatigue
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Splenomegaly
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Presence of risk factors
  • B-symptoms
  • Recurrent infections
  • Petechiae
78
Q

Define macrocytic anaemia.

A

MCV >100 femtolitres [fL]

Megaloblastic: a deficiency of DNA production or maturation resulting in the appearance of large immature RBCs (megaloblasts) and hypersegmented neutrophils in the circulation.

Non-megaloblastic: encompasses all other causes of macrocytic anaemia in which DNA synthesis is normal. Megaloblasts and hypersegmented neutrophils are absent.

79
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of macrocytic anaemia.

A

MEGALOBLASTIC CAUSES:
- VIT B12 DEFICIENCY - deficient intake, deficient IF (pernicious anaemia, gastrectomy), biological competition for B12 (diverticulosis, fistula, intestinal anastomosis, achlorhydria, infection by Diphylobothrium latum), selective B12 malabsorption (congenital and drug-induced), chronic pancreatitis, ileal resection

  • FOLATE DEFICIENCY - deficient intake, alcoholism, increased needs (pregnancy, infant, cirrhosis), malabsorption (congenital and drug-induced), intestinal and jejunal resection
  • TOXINS & DRUGS - amobarbital sodium, cycloserine, cytarabine, ethotoin, folic acid antagonist (methotrexate), pergolide, purine antagonist (6-mercaptopurine), pyrimidine antagonists (cytosine arabinoside), phenobarbital, pyrimethamine, secobarbital sodium, trimethoprim, erythroleukaemia

NON-MEGALOBLASIC CAUSES:

  • Myelodysplasia
  • CLD
  • Reticulocytosis
  • Hypothyroidism

Risk factors for MEGALOBLASTIC ANAEMIA:

  • Folate deficiency
  • Nutritional deficiency - e.g. strict vegan diet, malabsorption (bacterial overgrowth, sprue, Whipple’s, Crohn’s) , diphilobothrium lactum infection (competes for B12 absorption)
  • Elderly age
  • Alcohol use
  • Narcotic abuse
  • Pregnancy
  • Infancy
  • Low grade haemolysis
  • Malignancy
  • Chornic haemodialysis
  • Autoimmune disease - e.g. Hashimoto’s, vitiligo, DM, adrenal insufficiency
80
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of macrocytic anaemia.

A

Macrocytosis affects 2% to 4% of the population, 60% of whom have anemia

81
Q

Recognise the signs of macrocytic anaemia on physical examination.

A
  • Weight loss
  • Brittle nails
  • Tachycardia
  • Pallor
  • Confusion

Myelodysplasia

  • Pallor
  • Petechiae
  • Purpura
82
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of macrocytic anaemia.

A
  • Appetite loss
  • Diarrhoea
  • Fatigue
  • Shortness of breath
  • Poor concentration

Myelodysplasia

  • History of prior exposure to petroleum distillates, chemotherapy, radiotherapy
  • Fever
  • Chills
  • Fatigue
  • Weakness
  • Recurrent infection
  • Anorexia
  • NIght sweats
  • Shortness of breath
  • Easy bruising
83
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for macrocytic anaemia and interpret the results.

A

VitB12 Deficiency

  • FBC with peripheral smear - megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia, basophilic stippling
  • Serum Vit B12 levels - low
  • Serum methylmalonic acid levels - high
  • Anti-IF antibodies- positive in pernicious anaemia
  • Anti-parietal cell antibodies - positive in pernicious anaemia

Folate deficiency

  • FBC with peripheral smear - megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia, basophilic stippling
  • Serum folate - low
  • Serum Vit B12 levels - normal, low in combined deficiency
  • Serum homocysteine levels - high

Toxins & Drugs

Myelodysplasia

  • FBC - macrocytic anaemia with leukopenia, macro-ovalocytes, cytopenias (neutropenia, thrombocytopenia)
  • Reticulocyte count - <2%
  • Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy - myeloblasts with immature precursors
  • Cytogenetics of bone marrow biopsy - multiple chromosomal translocations possible (5q-, 7q- or trisomy 8)
  • Serum vitB12 - normal
  • Folate - normal

CLD

  • FBC - non-megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia
  • PT - decreased
  • LFTs - abnormal
  • Ab USS, CT, MRI - liver surface nodularity, small liver, possible hypertrophy of left /caudate lobe, evidence of ascites or collateral circulation
  • Liver biopsy - diagnosis of underlying cause or cirrhosis

Hypothyroidism

  • FBC - non-megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia
  • Serum TSH - high
  • Serum T4 - reduced
  • Reticulocyte count - <2%
84
Q

Define microcytic anaemia.

A

MCV <80 femtolitres [fL]

85
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of microcytic anaemia.

A

Children & Adolescents

  • Iron deficiency anaemia
  • Thalassemia trait
  • Othe hemoglobinopathies
  • Lead toxicity
  • Chronic inflammation
  • Sideroblastic anaemia

Menstruating Women

  • Iron deficiency anaemia
  • Thalassaemia trait
  • Prgenancy
  • Anaemia of chronic disease
  • Sideroblastic anaemia

Men and Non-Menstruating Women

  • Iron deficiency anaemia
  • Anaemia of chronic disease
  • Unexplained anaemia
  • Thalassaemia trait
86
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of microcytic anaemia.

A

According to epidemiologic data from World Health Organization (WHO), 24.8% of the human population is currently suffering from anemia out of which a major portion is due to iron deficiency anemia. Hypochromic microcytic anemia is more common in premenopausal females because they lose blood with each menstrual cycle. Among the female population, almost 41% of all pregnant females suffer from anemia while among nonpregnant pre-menopausal females 30% females are struggling with anemia. The male population is usually resistant to anemia due to circulating testosterone levels. However, 12.7% adult males are also globally afflicted with anemia. After the female population, pre-school aged children suffer the most from anemia because of lack of iron in their primary diet. Human milk contains 0.3 mg/L iron which does not provide enough iron. On the other hand, cow milk contains double the amount of iron, but that iron has poor bioavailability

87
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of microcytic anaemia.

A

History indicates:

  • Reduced dietary intake of iron
  • Increased blood loss in menstrual flow
  • Bleeding from git, particularly from gastric and duodenal ulcers
  • Malignancy or large gut
  • Major trauma after which iron stores become depleted

Plummer-Vinson Syndrome

  • Complaining of food stuck inside chest
  • Due to oesophageal webs
  • Swollen tongue (glossitis)
  • Microcytic anemia

?PICA
- Preference to eat non-nutritious substances - e.g. clay, ice, flour

88
Q

Recognise the signs of microcytic anaemia on physical examination.

A
  • Pallor - hands, conjunctivita
  • Tachycardia
  • Increased RR
  • Exhaustion
  • Koilonychia - spoon-shaped nails
  • Signs and symptoms of angina due to decreased delivery of oxygen to cardiac myocytes
89
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for microcytic anaemia and interpret the results.

A
  • FBC - low MCV, low MCHC
  • Iron studies - high TIBC, low transferrin saturation, ferritin <12ng/ml + no scurvey = iron deficiency
  • Pierpheral smear - small RBC, pencil cells, central pallor, peripheral rim of haemoglobin

Low or normal ferritin level does not exclude diagnosis of iron deficiency anaemia as ferritin is an acute-phase reactant protein and levels increase during infection.

90
Q

Generate a management plan for microcytic anaemia.

A

Treat underlying cause.

IF HYPOCHROMIC MICROCYTIC ANAEMIA:

After the diagnosis of hypochromic microcytic anemia is established, iron replacement therapy can be commenced. Therapy includes 325 mg of ferrous sulfate three times a day orally. Of this, up to 10 mg of iron can be absorbed from the gut and is the preferred initial treatment. Nausea and constipation are the side effects which limit the compliance of this therapy. Compliance can be increased by gradually increasing the dose of the treatment while monitoring the patient for side effects. The maximum tolerable dose is usually selected for the replacement of lost iron. The impact of this treatment usually appears after 3 weeks, while the full effects will be evident by 2 months.

Parenteral iron products may be used when:

  • Oral drugs produce unrelenting side effects
  • The anemia is resistant to oral therapy
  • There is some git disease preventing proper absorption of iron
  • There is continued blood loss which cannot be corrected by oral supplementation.

The iron preparation with sorbitol is slowly infused over 5 minutes at a dose of 50 mg/kg body weight in males and 35 mg/kg body weight in females. The parenteral dose is usually the iron deficit plus one extra gram of iron to replenish the iron reserves of the body.

91
Q

Identify the possible complications of microcytic anaemia and its management.

A
  • Fatigue
  • Weakness
  • Tiredness
  • Loss of stamina
  • Shortness of breath
  • Dizziness
  • Pale skin
  • Tissue hypoxia
  • Shock
  • Hypotension
  • Coronary or pulmonary insufficiency
  • Increased risk of infections
  • Motor or cognitive development delays in children
  • Pregnancy complications - e.g. preterm delivery, giving birth to baby with low birth weight
92
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with microcytic anaemia.

A

Depends on the cause and pathway through clinical treatment.

93
Q

Define myelodysplasia.

A

A group of clonal stem cell disorders, characterised by ineffective and dysplastic haematopoiesis resulting in 1 or more cytopenias, and a varying predilection to develop AML.

94
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of myelodysplasia.

A

Can arise primarily without any inciting event or may be related to previous treatment with either chemotherapy or radiation.

Risk factors:

  • Age >70 years
  • Alkylating agents
  • Topoisomerase inhibitors
  • Prior haematopoietic stem cell transplantation
  • DNA repair deficiency syndromes
  • Ionising radiation
  • Tobacco
  • Benzene
  • Aplastic anaemia
  • Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)
  • Down’s Syndrome (trisomy 21)
  • Congenital neutropenia
95
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of myelodysplasia.

A

The incidence of MDS increases markedly with age, and the disease is most prevalent in individuals who are white and male. It is conservatively estimated that >10,000 new cases of MDS occur in the United States annually, and that ≥60,000 individuals with MDS currently reside in the country.

96
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of myelodysplasia.

A
  • Older age
  • Asymptomatic
  • Fatigue
  • Exercise intolerance
  • Bacterial infection
  • Presence of risk factors
  • Autoimmune disorders
97
Q

Recognise the signs of myelodysplasia on physical examination.

A
  • Pallor
  • Petechiae
  • Purpura
  • Splenomegaly
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Lymphadenopathy
98
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for myelodysplasia and interpret the results.

A

1st Line:

  • FBC with differential - one or more cytopenias
  • Reticulocyte count - normal or low
  • RBC folate - normal (rule out folate deficiency)
  • Serum B12 levels - normal
  • Iron studies - normal
  • HIV testing - negative
  • Bone marrow aspiration with iron stain - single or multilineage dysplasia, bone marrow blasts <20%
  • Bone marrow core biopsy - hypercellular marrow
  • Bone marrow cytogenetic analysis - chromosomal abnormalities e.g. deletion 5q31, monosomy 7, 11q23, deletion 17p, deletion 20q, abnormal 12p

Investigations to consider:

  • Serum erythropoietin - high, or low in renal failure
  • HLA typing - varies
  • Flow cytometry - clonal population
99
Q

Define myelofibrosis.

A

A reactive and reversible process common to many malignant and benign bone marrow disorders.

It is characterized by the abnormal production of RBCs, WBCs and platelets, in association with marrow fibrosis (scarring) and extramedullary haematopoiesis.

100
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of myelofibrosis.

A

Primary Myelofibrosis

  • Chronic progressive myeloproliferative disorder with origin in a multipotent haematopoietic progenitor cell
  • Aetiology unknown
  • Specific clonal marker not identified
  • Leukerythroblastosis + splenomegaly
  • Median survival 5.5 years but very heterogeneous - range from <1 year to >30 years

Secondary or Reactive Myelofibrosis

  • When bone marrow fibrosis is due to a known diagnosis
  • E.g. leukaemia, hypoparathyroidism, drugs

Risk factors:

  • Radiation exposure
  • Industrial solvents exposure
  • Age >65 years
101
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of myelofibrosis.

A

The annual incidence of primary myelofibrosis (PMF) is approximately 1 case per 100,000 individuals, although an increased prevalence is noted in Ashkenazi Jews.

102
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of myelofibrosis.

A
  • Presence of risk factors
  • Weight loss
  • Night sweats
  • Low-grade fever
  • Cachexia
  • Fatigue
  • Pruritis -
103
Q

Recognise the signs of myelofibrosis on physical examination.

A
  • Splenomegaly
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Features of extramedullary hematopoiesis
  • Features of portal hypertension
  • Symptoms of pulmonary hypertension
  • Joint and bone pain
  • Hearing loss
  • Bleeding
  • Infections
104
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for myelofibrosis and interpret the results.

A

1st Line:

  • FBC with differential - anaemia, normal or abnormal cell counts (leukocyte, platelet)
  • Peripheral blood smear - teardrop-shaped RBCs, metamyelocytes, myelocytes, promyelocytes, myeloblasts, nucleated RBCs in circulation
  • Bone marrow aspiration - unable to aspirate marrow
  • Bone marrow biopsy - marrow fibrosis (scarring)

To consider:

  • Genetic mutation analysis
  • Breakpoint cluster region-abelson PCR
  • Chromosomal assessment in bone marrow examination
  • CD34+ cell count
  • Anti-nuclear antibodies
  • Rheumatoid factor titre
  • Complement levels
  • Coombs’ test
  • Echo
  • USS of suspected site
  • Technetium-99 Scan
  • CT
  • MRI
  • Serum uric acid
105
Q

Name features of portal hypertension.

A

Increased splenoportal blood flow and decreased hepatic vascular compliance.

  • Ascites
  • Oesophageal and gastric varices
  • GI bleeding
  • Hepatic encephalopathy
  • Hepatic or portal vein thrombosis
106
Q

Name features of pulmonary hypertension.

A
  • Shortness of breath
  • Fatigue
  • Presyncope
107
Q

Define normocytic anaemia.

A

MCV 80-100 femtolitres [fL]

108
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of normocytic anaemia.

A

HYPERPROLIFERATIVE

  • Reticulocyte count >2%
  • The proportion of circulating reticulocytes increases as part of a compensatory response to increased destruction or loss of RBCs.
  • The cause is usually acute blood loss or haemolysis.

HYPOPROLIFERATIVE

  • Reticulocyte count <2%
  • These are primarily disorders of decreased RBC production, and the proportion of circulating reticulocytes remains unchanged
109
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of normocytic anaemia.

A

Its prevalence increases with age, reaching 44 percent in men older than 85 years. Normocytic anemia is the most frequently encountered type of anemia. Anemia of chronic disease, the most common normocytic anemia, is found in 6 percent of adult patients hospitalized by family physicians.

110
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of normocytic anaemia.

A
  • Fatigue
  • Pallor
  • Dizziness
  • Light-headedness
  • Shortness of breath
111
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of normocytic anaemia.

A
HYPOPROLIFERATIVE - exclude haematological malignancies, aplastic anaemia
- Bleeding 
- Easy bruising 
- Night sweats
- Weight loss 
? Haematological malignancy
? Aplastic anaemia 
  • Symptoms and risk factors for infections that can cause self-limiting pure red cell aplasia
  • E.g. parvovirus infection, infectious mononucleosis, viral hepatitis, malaria, respiratory infections, gastroenteritis, mumps
  • Phenytoin, carbamazephine, sodium valproate, azathioprine, sulfonamides, isoniazide, procainamide = pure red cell aplasia
  • Benzene, penicillamine, gold= aplastic anaemia
  • Chloramphenicol = aplastic anaemia or pure red cell aplasia
  • Chemotherapy = pancytopenia
  • Autoimmune disease, chronic hepatitis = pure red cell aplasia
  • CKD or hypothryoidism symptoms

HYPERPROLIFERATIVE - looking for haemorrhage & haemolytic anaemias

  • Drugs causing haemolysis - e.g. penicillin, methyldopa, levodopa, quinidines, cephalosporins, NSAIDs
  • Drugs causing haemolytic uraemic syndrome - e.g. cyclosporine, tacrolimus, clopidogrel, oral contraceptive pills, chemo drugs
  • Triggers of DIC - e.g. severe infection, sepsis, malignancy, obstetric emergency, trauma, burns, pancreatitis, liver failure, envenomation, drug overdose, endothelial damage
  • TTP - headache, confusion, focal weakness, seizures, coma, menorrhagia
  • Malignant hypertension - sudden-onset dizziness, headache, mental status changes, loss of sensation or motor strength, chest pain, pressure, dyspnoea, oedema
  • Prosthetic valve replacement - haemolysis induced by prosthesis
  • Bloody diarrhoea - suspicion of E.coli infection, haemolytic uraemic syndrome
  • SCA - pain in skeleton, chest, abdomen
  • Family history of sickle cell anaemia, hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency
  • History of autoimmune disease or lymphoproliferative disorders - can result in autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
  • Recent blood transfusion history
  • Occupational or home exposure - lead toxicity?
112
Q

Recognise the signs of normocytic anaemia on physical examination.

A
HYPOPROFILERATIVE 
- Ecchymoses
- Petechiae
? Haematological malignancy 
? Myelodysplastic syndrome 
? Aplastic anaemia
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Fever
    ? Malignancy ? Infection
  • Splenomegaly
    ? Haematological malignancy

HYPERPROLIFERATIVE

  • Purpura
  • Ecchymoses
  • Bleeding
  • Systolic BP >210 mmHg, Diastolic BP >130mmHg = malignant hypertension?
  • S3, new murmurs, JVP raised, oedema, oliguria, polyuria, focal neurological signs, hypertensive retinopathy = malignant hypertension?
  • Cutaneous reddish-brown or violaceous vascular lesions = haemangioma?
  • Splenomegaly = hereditary spherocytosis?
  • Autoimmune disease clinical features
  • Lymphadenopathy = ?infectious mononucleosis, ?leukaemia, ? lymphoma, ?autoimmune disease
113
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for normocytic anaemia and interpret the results.

A

HYPOPROLIFERATIVE

  • FBC - cytopenia (?haematological malignancy), pancytopenia (?aplastic anaemia, chemotherapy, radiotherapy), isolated anaemia (pure red cell aplasia, anaemia due to CKD)
  • Bone marrow biopsy - acute leukaemia, chronic myelogenous leukaemia, aplastic anaemia, bone marrow mets
  • Anti-parvovirus antibodies - positive in parvovirus infection (pure red cell aplasia)
  • Consider: hepatitis serology, monospot test, EBV antibodies, peripheral smear (malaria), TFTs, anti-nuclear antibodies (SLE, scleroderma), RF (RA), serum CK (dermatomyositis), erythropoietin levels (low in CRF), calcium & PTH (2ndary hyperparathyroidism), CXR (pneumonia, smooth mass in thymona)

HYPERPROLFERATIVE

  • FBC
  • Peripheral smear
  • If suspect haemolytic anaemia, test serum LDH, haptoglobin, bilirubin

Thrombocytopenia + schistocytes = microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia

Spherocytes = autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, hereditary spherocytosis

High MCH = hereidtary spherocytosis

Sicked RBC = SCA

Heinz bodies + eccentrocytes + bite cells = C6PD deficiency

High LDH, high bilirubin, low haptoglobin = haemolytic anaemia

Tests to consider in suspected microangiopathic haemolytic anaemias:

  • Serum creatinine, which may be elevated in patients with haemolytic uraemic syndrome or malignant hypertension.
  • Urine dipstick, which may show haematuria and/or proteinuria in haemolytic uraemic syndrome
  • Stool tests: culture, polymerase chain reaction for enterohaemorrhagic E. coli genes, or enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay for Shiga toxin in haemolytic uraemic syndrome.[67]
  • Prothrombin time and activated partial prothrombin time, which are prolonged in DIC but normal in other microangiopathic haemolytic anaemias.
  • DIC panel shows elevated D-dimers and fibrin degradation products with low fibrinogen in patients with DIC.
  • X-rays and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scanning of suspected regions reveal internal haemangiomas.

Tests to consider in other haemolytic anaemias

  • Direct antiglobulin (Coombs’) test, which is positive in autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.
  • Tests to identify hereditary causes. Sickle cell anaemia is diagnosed on FBC. Osmotic fragility test is positive in hereditary spherocytosis; cells lyse on exposure to hypo-osmotic solution. G6PD assays identify deficiencies of the enzyme.
  • Tests to identify infection. Monospot test or viral capsid antigen IgM is positive in infectious mononucleosis. CMV IgM is positive in CMV infection. Double-sandwich IgM enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) or IgG avidity test is positive for IgM in acute toxoplasmosis. Splenic or bone marrow aspirate shows amastigotes of the parasite in leishmaniasis.
  • Blood lead levels, which are elevated in lead toxicity.
114
Q

Define polycythaemia.

A

POLYCYTHAEMIA / ERYTHROCYTOSIS
- An abnormally high Haematocrit and Hb concentration

ABSOLUTE ERYTHROCYTOSIS

  • Increase in total number of red blood cells in circulation
  • Increased red cell mass
  • Classified as primary, secondary and idiopathic

PRIMARY ERYTHROCYTOSIS
- Caused by polycythaemia vera

SECONDARY ERYTHROCYTOSIS

  • Caused by increased production of erythropoietin
  • Due to chronic tissue hypoxia caused by chronic lung disease
  • Due to kidney disorders, renal tumours and hepatomas

APPARENT ERYTHROCYTOSIS

  • Increased Haematocrit and Hb concentration with NORMAL red-cell mass
  • Caused by low plasma volume most commonly occurs in people taking thiazides, heavy smokers or heavy alcohol users

POLYCYTHAEMIA VERA

  • A clonal haematopoietic disorder characterised clinically by erythrocytosis, thrombocytosis, leukocytosis and splenomegaly.
  • Increased risk of thrombosis and haemorrhage.
  • Belongs to the group of Philadelphia chromosome-NEGATIVE myeloproliferative neoplasms - NB: JAK2 V617F mutation
115
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of polycythaemia.

A

POLYCYTHAEMIA / ERYTHROCYTOSIS
- An abnormally high Haematocrit and Hb concentration

ABSOLUTE ERYTHROCYTOSIS

  • Increase in total number of red blood cells in circulation
  • Increased red cell mass
  • Classified as primary, secondary and idiopathic

PRIMARY ERYTHROCYTOSIS
- Caused by polycythaemia vera

SECONDARY ERYTHROCYTOSIS

  • Caused by increased production of erythropoietin
  • Due to chronic tissue hypoxia caused by chronic lung disease
  • Due to kidney disorders, renal tumours and hepatomas
  • Risk factors - cardiac and respiratory symptoms or disease, smoking, potential exposure to carbon monoxide, excessive daytime sleepiness, snoring, sleep disturbances, previous renal transplantation

APPARENT ERYTHROCYTOSIS

  • Increased Haematocrit and Hb concentration with NORMAL red-cell mass
  • Caused by low plasma volume most commonly occurs in people taking thiazides, heavy smokers or heavy alcohol users
  • Risk factors - obesity, smoking, alcohol excess, hypertension, thiazide diuretics, testosterone, anabolic steroids

POLYCYTHAEMIA VERA

  • A clonal haematopoietic disorder characterised clinically by erythrocytosis, thrombocytosis, leukocytosis and splenomegaly.
  • Increased risk of thrombosis and haemorrhage.
  • Belongs to the group of Philadelphia chromosome-NEGATIVE myeloproliferative neoplasms.
  • Risk factors: Age > 40 years, Budd-Chiari Syndrome, affected family member
116
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of polycythaemia.

A

The prevalence of polycythaemia vera has been estimated to be approximately 22 cases per 100,000 population[4]. It is believed to occur more frequently among Jews of Eastern European descent than other Europeans and Asians.

117
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of polycythaemia.

A

Hyperviscosity Symptoms:

  • Chest and abdominal pain
  • Myalgia and weakness
  • Fatigue
  • Headache
  • Tinnitus
  • Blurred vision, temporary loss of vision in one or both eyes
  • Paresthesia
  • Slow mentation, sense of depersonalisation
  • Bruising
  • Pruritis - contact with warm water
  • Abdominal discomfort - relating to splenomegaly
  • Hyperhidrosis
  • Tenderness or painful burning and/or redness of fingers, plams, heels or toes
118
Q

Reocgnise the signs of polycythaemia on physical examination.

A
  • Ruddy complexion
  • Conjunctival plethora
  • Splenomegaly (polycythaemia vera)
  • Abdominal masses - e.g. benign and malignant uterine, renal and hepatic tumours which may be palpable and secreting erythropoietin
  • Oxygen saturation <92% in room air
  • Clubbing of digits
  • Abnormal heart or breath sounds
119
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for polycythaemia and interpret the results.

A
  • Urine dipstick - identify renal causes of secondary erythrocytosis
  • Hb
  • MCV
  • Haematocrit
  • WCC
  • Platelets
  • LFTs
  • U&E
  • eGFR

Erythrocytosis = Hb > 185g/L, Haematocrit > 0.52 (M) 0.48 (F).

Polycythaemia vera = high WCC, high platelet, high Haematocrit, low MCV, normal LFTs

Budd-Chiari Syndrome = high LFts

Abnormal LFTs - ?secondary erythrocytosis, ?hepatic tumour

Abnormal renal function - ?secondary erythrocytosis, ?renal cause

ADDITIONAL INVESTIGATIONS

  • Serum erythropoietin — high = secondary erythrocytosis, low = polycythaemia vera
  • Serum ferritin — low MCV = iron deficiency?
  • JAK2 V617F mutation — positive = polycythaemia vera
  • Serum uric acid — high = polycythaemia vera.
  • Abdominal ultrasound -splenomegaly = polycythaemia vera
120
Q

Define sickle cell disease.

A

Caused by an autosomal-recessive single gene defect in the beta chain of haemoglobin, which results in the production of sickle cell haemoglobin (HBS).

Other forms may occur if HbS is inherited from one parent and another abnormal haemoglobin, or beta thalassaemia, is inherited from the other parent - e.g.HbSC or HbSB thalassaemia.

Sickle cell trait occurs if HbS is inherited from one parent and normal HbA from the other.

121
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of sickle cell disease.

A

Risk factors:
- Genetic - autosomal recessive pattern

When both parents carry the recessive sickle gene, there is a 1 in 4 chance that their offspring will inherit two recessive alleles, causing sickle cell anaemia.

122
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of sickle cell disease.

A

SCD affects approximately 100,000 Americans. SCD occurs among about 1 out of every 365 Black or African-American births. SCD occurs among about 1 out of every 16,300 Hispanic-American births. About 1 in 13 Black or African-American babies is born with sickle cell trait (SCT)

123
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of sickle cell disease.

A
  • Parent diagnosed with sickle cell anaemia, other sickle cell diseases, or sickle cell trait
  • Persistent pain in skeleton, chest and/or abdomen
  • Dactylitis
  • Bone pain
  • Visual floaters
  • Lethargy
124
Q

Recognise the signs of sickle cell disease on physical examination.

A
  • High temperature
  • Pneumonia-like syndrome
  • Tachypnoea
  • Failure to thrive
  • Pallor
  • Jaundice
  • Tachycardia
  • Maxillary hypertrophy with an overbite
  • Protuberant abdomen, often with an umbilical hernia
  • Cardiac systolic flow murmur
  • Shock
125
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for sickle cell disease and interpret the results.

A

1st Line:

  • DNA based assays - replacement of both beta haemoglobin subunits with HbS, 1 normal and 1HbS is sickle cell trait
  • Haemoglobin isoelectric focusing (Hb IEF)
  • Cellulose acetate electrophoresis - 75-95% HbS, absent HbA for sickle cell anaemia
  • High-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)
  • Haemoglobin solubility testing - >10-15% HbS
  • Peripheral blood smear - presence of nucleated red blood cells, sickle-shaped cells, Howell-Jolly bodies
  • FBC and reticulocyte count - degree of anaemia occurs in most patients
  • Iron studies - normal or elevated serum iron, transferrin, ferritin levels, serum iron-binding capacity

Consider:

  • Pulse oximetry - oxygen desaturations in acute chest syndrome
  • Plain XR of long bones - infarctions seen by irregular margins or moth-eaten destruction with overlying periosteal new bone formation
  • Bacterial cultures - bacterial pathogen culture may confirm infection
  • CXR - pulmonary infiltrates (acute chest syndrome)
126
Q

Generate a management plan for sickle cell disease.

A

Vaso-Occlusive Crisis

  • Analgesia
  • Supportive care + correction of cause - e.g. cold exposure, acidosis
  • Antihistamines - diphenhydramine
  • Hydration
  • Antibiotics
  • Blood transfusion

Acute Chest Syndrome

  • Oxygen and incentive spirometry (prevent atelectasis)
  • Analgesia
  • Broad-spectrum antibiotics
  • Antihistamines - diphenhydramine
  • Blood transfusion
  • Hydration

Chronic Disease

SCA

  • Supportive care + prevention of complications
  • Hydroxycarbamide
  • L-glutamine
  • Crizanlizumab
  • Voxelotor
  • repeated blood transfusions
  • Bone marrow transplantation

Variant SCD

  • Supportive care + prevention of complications
  • Hydroxycarbamide
  • Crizanlizumab
  • Repeated blood transfusions
  • Bone marrow transplantation
127
Q

Identify the possible complications of sickle cell disease and its management.

A
  • Painful crises - obstruction of small blood capillaries
  • Anaemia (varying degrees)
  • Red cell haemolysis
  • Damage to major organs
  • Increased vulnerability to severe injections
  • Stroke
  • Acute chest syndrome
  • Vaso-occlusive crisis
128
Q

Summarise the prognosis for patients with sickle cell disease.

A

Although people with sickle cell anemia tend to have a shorter life expectancy than is seen in the general population, advances in treatments — such as the approval of hydroxyurea and Endari (L-glutamine) — have improved survival and patients’ quality of life. Potential new therapies are also being developed.

129
Q

Define Vit B12 and folate deficiency.

A

Folate - found in green vegetables, nuts, yeast and liver
Synthesised by the gut bacteria
Body stores last for 4 months
Maternal folate deficiency causes foetal neural tube defects.
Is absorbed by duodenum and proximal jejunum.

130
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of VitB12 and folate deficiency.

A

Causes:

  • Poor diet - e.g. poverty, alcoholics, elderly
  • Increased demand - e.g. pregnancy, high cell turnover - seen in haemolysis, malignacy, inflammatory disease, renal dialysis
  • Malabsorption - e.g. coeliac disease, tropical sprue
  • Alcohol
  • Drugs - anti-epileptics (phenytoin, valproate), methotrexate, trimethoprim

Risk factors:

  • Low dietary folate intake
  • Age >65
  • Alcoholism
  • Pregnant or lactating
131
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Vit B12 and folate deficiency.

A

Lower income economies - >20%

Higher income economies - <5%

132
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of VitB12 and folate deficiency.

A
  • Presence of risk factors
  • Prolonged diarrhoea
  • Headache
  • Loss of appetite
  • Weight loss
  • Fatigue
133
Q

Recognise the signs of VitB12 and folate deficiency on physical examination.

A
  • Presence of risk factors
  • Prolonged diarrhoea
  • Headache
  • Loss of appetite
  • Weight loss
  • Fatigue
134
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for VitB12 and folate deficiency and interpret the results.

A
  • Bloods - peripheral blood smear, FBC, reticulocyte count, serum folate, red blood cell folate, vitB12, LDH
135
Q

Define thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP).

A

A clinical syndrome characterised by microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenic purpura.

136
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of TTP.

A

Absence of von Willebrand factor cleaving enzyme (ADAMTS-13) - 33% of idiopathic patients.

Results in unusually large von Willebrand multimers.

Leads to platelet aggregation and thrombocytopenia & microthrombi.

Risk factors:

  • Black ethnicity
  • Female gender
  • Obesity
  • Pregnancy
  • Cancer therapies
  • HIV infection
  • Bone marrow transplantation
  • Anti-platelet agents
  • Quinine
137
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of TTP.

A

TTP is a rare disease; the exact prevalence is not clear. Studies cite incidences between 1 and 13 cases per million people depending on geographic location. TTP most often occurs after 40 years of age, but congenital forms can occur in children.

138
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of TTP.

A

PENTAD:

  • Fever
  • Renal failure
  • Haemolytic anaemia
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Neurological changes

Signs & Symptoms:

  • Non-specific prodrome
  • Severe neurological symptoms - e.g. coma, focal abnormalities, seizures
  • Mild neurological symptoms - e.g. headache, confusion
  • Age 30-50
  • Digestive symptoms - e.g. N&V, diarrhoea, abdominal pain
  • Weakness
  • Bleeding symptoms - purpura, ecchymosis, menorrhagia
139
Q

Reocgnise the signs of TTP on physical examination.

A

PENTAD:

  • Fever
  • Renal failure
  • Haemolytic anaemia
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Neurological changes

Signs & Symptoms:

  • Non-specific prodrome
  • Severe neurological symptoms - e.g. coma, focal abnormalities, seizures
  • Mild neurological symptoms - e.g. headache, confusion
  • Age 30-50
  • Digestive symptoms - e.g. N&V, diarrhoea, abdominal pain
  • Weakness
  • Bleeding symptoms - purpura, ecchymosis, menorrhagia
140
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for TTP and interpret the results.

A

1st Line:

  • Platelet count - LOW
  • Haemoglobin - < 8g/L
  • Haptoglobin - LOW
  • Peripheral smear - microangiopathic blood film with schistocytes
  • Reticulocyte count - HIGH
  • Urinalysis - proteinuria
  • Urea and Creatinine - HIGH
  • Direct Coombs’ test - NEGATIVE (rule out autoimmune haemolytic anaemia)

Consider:
- ADAMTS-13 activity assay and inhibitor titres - decreased activity

141
Q

Define thalassaemia.

A

Beta-Thalassaemia
- An inherited microcytic anaemia caused by the mutation of the beta-globin gene leading to decreased or absent synthesis of beta-globin, resulting in ineffective erythropoiesis

Alpha Thalassaemia

  • A group of disorders of haemoglobin synthesis, caused by mutations or deletions in at least 1 of the 4 alpha-globin genes, leading to variably impaired alpha-globin chain production
  • Accumulation of the now excess and unpaired beta-globin chains
142
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of thalassaemia.

A

Beta-Thalassaemia

The genotypic spectrum includes homozygous and heterozygous defects, which result in a phenotypic spectrum ranging from transfusion dependence to the asymptomatic carrier state. Compound heterozygosity of beta-thalassaemia with haemoglobin E mutations results in a phenotype more severe than either beta-thalassaemia trait or haemoglobin E mutations alone, similar to beta-thalassaemia major or intermedia.

Risk factors:
- Positive family history

Alpha Thalassaemia

There are at least 4 different and distinct alpha-thalassaemias: silent carrier (1 affected alpha-globin gene), alpha-thalassaemia trait (2 affected alpha-globin genes), Hb H disease (typically 3 affected alpha-globin genes), and Hb Bart hydrops fetalis syndrome (typically deletion of all 4 alpha-globin genes).

Risk factors:

  • Ethnicity from a geographic malarial area
  • Positive family history
143
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of thalassaemia.

A

BETA

The total annual incidence of symptomatic individuals is estimated at 1 in 100,000 throughout the world and 1 in 10,000 people in the European Union. Beta-thalassemia is prevalent in Mediterranean countries, the Middle East, Central Asia, India, Southern China, and the Far East as well as countries along the north coast of Africa and in South America. The highest carrier frequency is reported in Cyprus (14%), Sardinia (10.3%), and Southeast Asia. The high gene frequency of beta-thalassemia in these regions is most likely related to the selective pressure from Plasmodium falciparum malaria.

ALPHA

The incidence of HbH disease in these countries is approximately 4-20 individuals per every 1,000 births. Some studies have estimated that as much as 5% of the world’s population carries an alpha-thalassemia variant (i.e., a mutation in one of the two pairs of genes associated with alpha thalassemia).

Alpha-thalassaemia is found in malarial regions of the world (Mediterranean, South-east Asia, Indian sub-continent, Middle East, Sub-Saharan Africa) and should be suspected in patients with these ethnic backgrounds and with microcytosis and/or anaemia.

144
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of thalassemia.

A

BETA

  • Country of origin or ancestry
  • Family history
  • Asymptomatic
  • Lethargy
  • Abdominal distension
  • Failure to gain weight
  • Low height and weight
  • Pallor
  • Spinal changes
  • Large head
  • Chipmunk facies
  • Misaligned teeth
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Jaundice

ALPHA

  • Presence of risk factors
  • Family history of alpha-thalassaemia
  • Symptoms of anaemia
  • Splenomegaly
  • Childhood or young adulthood
  • Symptoms of gallstones
  • Growth retardation
  • History of prior iron supplementation
  • Jaundice
  • Mild dysmorphic facial features
  • Extramedullary haematopoiesis
145
Q

Recognise the signs of thalassaemia on physical examination.

A

BETA

  • Country of origin or ancestry
  • Family history
  • Asymptomatic
  • Lethargy
  • Abdominal distension
  • Failure to gain weight
  • Low height and weight
  • Pallor
  • Spinal changes
  • Large head
  • Chipmunk facies
  • Misaligned teeth
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Jaundice

ALPHA

  • Presence of risk factors
  • Family history of alpha-thalassaemia
  • Symptoms of anaemia
  • Splenomegaly
  • Childhood or young adulthood
  • Symptoms of gallstones
  • Growth retardation
  • History of prior iron supplementation
  • Jaundice
  • Mild dysmorphic facial features
  • Extramedullar haematopoiesis
146
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for thalassemia and interpret the results.

A

BETA

  • FBC - microcytic anaemia, Normal /HIGH WCC, Normal /HIGH platelets
  • Peripheral smear - microcytic red cells, tear drops, microspherocytes, target cells, some fragments, large number of nucleated red cells
  • Reticulocyte count - HIGH
  • Haemoglobin analysis - major (no HbA, high HbF, high HbA2), intermedia (low HbA, high HbF, high HbA2), trait (HbA, high HbF, high HbA2)
  • LFTs - elevated total and unconjugated bilirubin, high LDH
  • Plain X Rays of Skull - widening of the diploeic space, facial deformity
  • Abdominal ultrasonography - liver and spleen enlargement
  • Plain X-Rays of long bones - widening of diploeic space, osteopenia
  • Genetic testing
  • HLA typing - degree of match between patient and siblings

ALPHA

1st Line:

  • Hb - normal to low
  • MCV - LOW
  • MCH - LOW
  • RBC - HIGH
  • Peripheral smear - abnormal shape and size of cells
  • Reticulocyte percentage - HIGH
  • Serum iron - normal to HIGH
  • Serum ferritin - normal to HIGH

Investigations to Consider:

  • Brilliant cresyl blue staining of red blood cells - Hb H inclusions in peripheral blood red cells
  • Haemoglobin electrophoresis - presence of HbH, HbBart and concomitant haemoglobinpathies
  • Hb fractionation by high-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) - presence of HbH, HbBart and concomitant haemoglobinpathies
  • Gap-PCR - detect specific deletions
  • Multiplex ligation-dependent probe amplification (MLPA) - detect deletion alleles
  • Direct sequencing - detect non-deletional alpha-thalassaemia mutations
  • MRI (hepatic or cardiac) - hepatic or cardiac iron in patients with iron overload demonstrated by difference in organ-to-muscle signal intensity
  • Superconducting quantum interference devices (SQUID) - hepatic iron in iron overload
  • Liver biopsy - liver iron >5mg/gram dry weight on liver biopsy = need for iron chelation therapy
147
Q

Define von Willebrand’s disease.

A

The most common inherited bleeding disorder.

148
Q

Explain the aetiology / risk factors of von Willebrand’s disease.

A

Due to either a quantitative or qualitative abnormality of VWF.

VWF provides the critical link between platelets and exposed vascular subendothelium, and also binds and stabilises coagulation factor VIII.

Most patients have Type 1, more severe are in Type 2 and 3.

Autosomal inheritance with variable penetrance and phenotypic expression.

Risk factors:

  • Positive family history
  • Consanguineous relationships
  • Lymphoproliferative disorders
  • Aortic stenosis
  • Myeloproliferative disorders
  • Hypothyroidism
149
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of Von Willebrand’s disease.

A

Prevalence. Von Willebrand disease (VWD) occurs with equal frequency among men and women, affecting up to 1% of the general population. However, women are more likely to experience symptoms of VWD because of the increased bleeding it causes during their menstrual periods, during pregnancy, and after childbirth.

150
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of Von Willebrand’s disease.

A
  • Presence of risk factors
  • Bleeding from minor wounds
  • Post-operative bleeding
  • Family history of bleeding
  • Easy and excessive bruising
  • Menorrhagia
  • GI bleeding
  • Epistaxis
  • Blood transfusions
  • Haemarthrosis
  • CNS bleeding
  • Haematuria
151
Q

Recognise the signs of Von Willebrand’s disease on phyiscal examination.

A
  • Presence of risk factors
  • Bleeding from minor wounds
  • Post-operative bleeding
  • Family history of bleeding
  • Easy and excessive bruising
  • Menorrhagia
  • GI bleeding
  • Epistaxis
  • Blood transfusions
  • Haemarthrosis
  • CNS bleeding
  • Haematuria
152
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for Von Willebrand’s disease and interpret the results.

A

1st Line

  • PT - within the reference range
  • APTT - prolonged if Factor VIII activity is < 35% of normal
  • FBC - normal (except in Type 2B which may show a low platelet count)
  • VWF antigen - diagnostic if < 0.30 IU/mL
  • VWF function assay - ristocetin cofactor and collagen binding assays - diagnostic if VWD < 0.30 iu/mL, ratio of function to antigen <0.6 diagnoses Type 2 VWD
  • Factor VIII activity - frequently higher than vWF antigen level in Type 1, Type 2 factor VIII < vWF antigen activity level

To consider:

  • VWF multimer analysis - type 1: all multimers present, decreased in intensity; type 2A, loss of medium- and high-molecular-weight multimers; type 2B, loss of high-molecular-weight multimers; type 2M, normal multimers
  • Platelet aggregometry - aggregation to low conc of ristocetin (< 0.7mg/ml) = Type 2B VWD
  • Factor VIII - VWF binding assay - decreased binding in Type 2N
  • TFTs - acquired VWD in hypothyroidism
  • Serum protein electrophoresis - monoclonal gammopathy consistencies

Emerging Tests

  • Mutation analysis- mutations consistent with diagnosis of VWD
  • PFA-100 and other platelet function analysers - specific abnormla results
153
Q

State differentials (common and uncommon) for anaemia.

A

COMMON

  • Trauma - normal/low Hct, low Hb, reactive leukocytosis, reactive thrombocytosis, thrombocytopenia (dilution of transfusion), normal PT/APTT
  • Acute GI bleeding - normal/low Hct, low Hb, reactive leukocytosis, reactive thrombocytosis, >2% reticulocyte count, normal PT/APTT, high PT/APTT in cirrhosis etc, high urea
  • Rupture of vascular aneurysm - normal/low Hct, low Hb, reactive leukocytosis, reactive thrombocytosis, >2% reticulocyte count
  • Surgery - normal/low Hct, low Hb, reactive leukocytosis, reactive thrombocytosis
  • Menorrhagia - microcytic anaemia, normal WBC, reactive thrombocytosis (if iron def), normal PT/APTT
  • Iron deficiency - microcytic anaemia, thrombocytosis, low serum iron, high TIBC, low ferritin, high solule transferrin receptor
  • Vitamin B12 def - megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia, basophilic stippling, low B12, high methylmalonic acid, high anti-IF / pariteal cell antibodies in pernicious anaemia
  • Folate B12 def - megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia, basophilic stippling, low folate, normal B12, high homocysteine levels
  • Myelodysplastic syndrome - macrocytic anaemia, leukopenia, macro-ovalocytes, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, <2% reticulocyte count, myeloblasts, immature precursors, chromosomal translocations
  • ALL - pancytopenia, >20% blasts, normocytic anaemia, hypereosinophilia, <2% reticulocyte count
  • AML - pancytopenia, >20% blasts, normocytic anaemia, hypereosinophilia, <2% reticulocyte count
  • CML - normocytic anaemia, myeloid maturing cells, high basophils, high eosinophils, <2% reticulocyte count, hypercellular with granulocytic hyperplasia (bone marrow), Philadelphia chromosome (BCR-ABL translocation t(19;22)), high uric acid
  • Hairy cell leukaemia - pancytopenia, normocytic anaemia, <2% reticulocyte count, hairy cells on bone marrow
  • Acquired aplastic anemia - pancytopenia, macrocytosis, normocytic anaemia, <2% reticulocyte count, hypocellular bone marrow (decrease in all elements), replaced by fat cells, no infiltration by fibrosis or malignant cells
  • Infiltration by secondary malignancy - pancytopenia, teardrop cells, poikilocytes, normocytic anaemia, <2%, infiltration of marrow space by malignant cells
  • Pure red cell aplasia - normocytic anaemia, <2%
  • Drug toxicity - normocytic anaemia, inhibitors of DNA synthesis/folate/B12 produces megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia, <2% if suppress bone marrow, >2% if drugs produce haemolysis, high bilirubin (haemolysis)
  • Anaemia of chronic disease - normocytic anaemia, low/normal iron, low TIBC, normal/high ferritin, high erythropoietin (low in CKD)
  • CKD - normocytic or microcytic anaemia, thrombocytosis, <2%, high creatnine, haematuria, proteinuria, low iron, high ferritin, high TIBC (iron def), normal or low erythropoietin level, low calcium and high PTH (hyperPTH secondary)
  • CLD - non-megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, low PT, abnormal LFTs
  • Pregnancy - microcytic anaemia with thrombocytosis (iron def), megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia (folate def)

UNCOMMON

  • Generalised malnutrition - microcytic anaemia (iron def), megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia (vitB12, folate def), normocytic anaemia (vit & min def)
  • Cytotoxic chemotherapy - pancytopenia with normocytic anaemia, <2%
  • Radiotherapy - anaemia (pancytopenia)
  • Alcohol abuse - macrocytic anaemia
  • Lead toxicity - normocytic anaemia, basophilic stippling, >2%, high blood lead level
  • Hypothyroidism - non-megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia, high TSH, low T4, <2%
  • Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA) - normocytic anaemia, spherocytes, >2% (4%), high LDH, low haptoglobin, positive Coombs’, high bilirubin
  • Transfusion reaction
  • Malaria - normocytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, >2% (4%), intracellular parasites with Wright’s or Giemsa staining, high bilirubin
  • Viral hepatitis - normocytic anaemia, <2%, high ALT/AST
  • Toxoplasmosis - normocytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, leukocytosis, eosinophilia, >2% (4%), IgM in acute infection, IgG chronic infection or previous infection
  • Leishmaniasis - normocytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, erythroblastosis, positive for Leishmania antibodies, >2%,
  • Parvovirus B19 infection - normocytic anaemia, <2%, positive anti-parvovirus B19 antibodies
  • Infectious mononucleosis - normocytic anaemia, spherocytes, atypical lymphocytes, >2% (4% if haemolytic), <2% if pure red cell aplasia, high LDH, low haptoglobin
  • Cytomegalovirus (CMV) - normocytic anaemia, >2%, high LDH, low haptoglobin
  • Sickle cell anaemia - normocytic anaemia, sickle cells, 2%, high HbS/A ratio, high LDH, high bilirubin
  • Thalassaemias - microcytic anaemia with MCV close to 70, low MCHb, target cells, high HbF, high ferritin in overload
  • Hereditary spherocytosis - normocytic anaemia, high MCHb, spherocytes, >2%, positive osmotic fragility test
  • Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD) - normocytic anaemia, Heinz bodies, eccentrocytes, bite cells, >2%, low haptoglobin, high LDH, high bilirubin
  • Bone marrow failure syndromes - pancytopenia with normocytic or macrocytic anaemia, <2%
  • Haemolytic uraemic syndrome - normocytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, schistocytes, >2%, normal PT/APTT, low haptoglobin, high LDH, high creatinine, high bilirubin
  • Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) - normocytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, schistocytes, high PT, varied APTT, high d-dimer & fibrin degradation products, low fibrinogen
  • Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura - normocytic anaemia, schistocytes, >2%
  • Haemangioma - normocytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, >2%, soft-tissue shadows in XR, phleboliths
  • Malignant hypertension - normocytic anaemia with schistocytes, >2%, ischaemia or infarct on ECG, high creatinine (renal failure)
  • Prosthetic valves and surfaces - normocytic anaemia with schistocytes, >2%
  • Cutaneous burns - normocytic anaemia with thrombocytopenia, schistocytes from peripheral destruction on blood smear,>2%