Neuroscience Flashcards

1
Q

What is Bell’s palsy?

A

An acute unilateral peripheral facial nerve palsy, consisting of deficits affecting all facial zones equally that fully evolve within 72 hours

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2
Q

What is the aetiology of Bell’s palsy?

A

Viral aetiology which is strongly associated with the herpes simplex virus (type 1)

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3
Q

What are the risk factors for Bell’s palsy?

A

Pregnancy (x3)
Diabetes (x5)
Intranasal influenza vaccination (no longer in clinical use)

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4
Q

What is the epidemiology of Bell’s palsy?

A

Bell’s palsy is the most common aetiology of unilateral facial palsy among those 2 years of age or older
Affects 15–40/100 000/yr
It is most prevalent in people between 15 and 45 years of age and equal in men and women

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5
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Bell’s palsy?

A

Complete unilateral facial weakness
Quick onset (e.g. overnight or after a nap)
Ipsilateral numbness or pain around the ear
Reduced taste - anterior 2/3rds (ageusia)
Hyperacusis- hypersensitivity (from stapedius palsy)
Unilateral sagging of the mouth
Drooling of saliva
Food trapped between gum and cheek
Speech difficulty
Failure of eye closure may cause a watery or dry eye

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6
Q

What are the signs of Bell’s palsy on physical examination?

A

Unable to complete or resist on facial nerve actions

Unable to wrinkle their forehead (no forehead sparing which occurs in UMN lesions e.g. stroke) confirming LMN pathology

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7
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Bell’s palsy?

A

1st Line:
-Clinical diagnosis: acute, unilateral facial palsy, with an otherwise normal physical examination
Rule out other causes:
-Blood: ESR; glucose; raised Borrelia antibodies in Lyme disease, raised VZV antibodies in Ramsay Hunt syndrome
- CT/MRI: Space-occupying lesions; stroke; MS
-CSF: (Rarely done) for infections.

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8
Q

What are the other causes of 7th nerve palsy?

A

Infective: Ramsay Hunt syndrome, Lyme disease, meningitis, TB, viruses (HIV, polio)
Brainstem lesions: Stroke, tumour, MS. Cerebellopontine angle tumours: Acoustic neuroma, meningioma
Systemic disease: DM, sarcoidosis, Guillain–Barré
Local disease: Orofacial granulomatosis, parotid tumours, otitis media or cholesteatoma, skull base trauma

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9
Q

What differentiates Lyme disease, Guillain–Barré, sarcoid, and trauma from Bell’s palsy?

A

They all often present with bilateral weakness

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10
Q

What is the management for Bell’s palsy?

A

Drugs:
-If given within 72h of onset, prednisolone speeds recovery, with 95% making a full recovery.
-Antivirals (eg aciclovir) can be used in the cases associated with HSV-1
Protect the eye:
-Dark glasses and artificial tears (eg hypromellose) if evidence of drying
-Encourage regular eyelid closure by pulling down the lid by hand
-Use tape to close the eyes at night
Surgery: Consider if eye closure remains a long-term problem (lagophthalmos) or ectropion is severe (eyelid turns outward)

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11
Q

What are the possible complications of Bell’s palsy?

A

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca: dry eye
Ectropion: sagging eyelid
Synkinesis: increased neural irritability and aberrant regeneration of motor axons e.g. eye blinking causes synchronous upturning of the mouth
Gustatory hyperlacrimation: (crocodile tears) misconnection of parasympathetic fibres can produce crocodile tears (gusto–lacrimal reflex) when eating stimulates unilateral lacrimation, not salivation

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12
Q

What is the prognosis for patient’s with Bell’s palsy?

A

Incomplete paralysis: without axonal degeneration usually recovers completely within a few weeks.
Complete paralysis: ~80% make a full spontaneous recovery, but ~15% have axonal degeneration in which case recovery is delayed

  • Some evidence suggests pregnancy-associated Bell’s palsy is associated with worse long-term outcomes
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13
Q

What are central nervous system tumours?

A

Primary tumours arising from any of the brain tissue types

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14
Q

What is the aetiology of CNS tumours?

A

Children: most likely embryonic errors in development
Adults: unknown

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15
Q

What is the pathology of a meningioma?

A

Benign and most common primary CNS tumour

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16
Q

What is the pathology of a pituitary adenoma?

A

Benign, space-occupying and endocrine effects

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17
Q

What is the epidemiology of CNS tumours?

A

Annual incidence of primary tumours 5–9 in 100000 Two peaks of incidence (children and the elderly)

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18
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of CNS tumours?

A

Headache or vomiting (raised intracranial pressure)
Epilepsy (focal or generalized)
Focal neurological deficits (dysphagia, hemiparesis, ataxia, visual field defects, cognitive impairment)
Personality change

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19
Q

What are the signs of CNS tumours on physical examination?

A

Papilloedema / false localising signs (raised intracranial pressure)- bilateral hemianopia, anosmia, ophthalmoplegia
Focal neurological deficits (visual field defects, dysphasia, agnosia, hemianopia, hemiparesis, ataxia, personality change)

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20
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for CNS tumours?

A

CT-head: Usual initial investigation.
MRI-brain: Higher sensitivity.
Chest X-ray or CT (thorax, abdomen, pelvis): To determine if the lesion is secondary or primary.
Blood: CRP, ESR, consider HIV screen, toxoplasma serology (consider hormone profile-pituitary)
Brain biopsy: Type and grading (degree of differentiation of tumour)
*Lumbar puncture: contraindication if there is evidence of
raised intracranial pressure, may cause coning (herniation).

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21
Q

What is a cluster headache?

A

An attack of severe pain localised to the UNILATERAL orbital/supra-orbital and/or temporal areas.
Lasts between 15 minutes to 3 hours
Occurs from once every other day to 8 times per day

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22
Q

What is the aetiology of a cluster headache?

A

Unknown

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23
Q

What are the associated factors for a cluster headache?

A

History of head trauma
Heavy cigarette smoking
Heavy alcohol intake

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24
Q

What is the epidemiology for cluster headaches?

A

Affects men predominantly 2.5-3.5:1

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25
Q

What are the presenting symptoms for a cluster headache?

A

Repeated attacks of unilateral pain
Most patients are agitated and restless (only 7% can lie still during an attack)
Nausea and vomiting
Photophobia and phonophobia
Migraine type aura
Lacrimation, rhinorrhoea and partial Horner’s syndrome (ptosis and miosis: sympathetic features)

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26
Q

What are the signs of a cluster headache on physical examination?

A

Signs of Horner’s syndrome (ptosis and miosis)

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27
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for cluster headaches?

A
1st line: 
Brain CT scan or MRI
Bloods-ESR
Pituitary function tests
Consider: ECG, polysomnogram (for sleep apnoea)
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28
Q

What is Encephalitis?

A

Inflammation of the brain parenchyma

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29
Q

What is the aetiology for Encephalitis?

A

In the majority of cases encephalitis is the result of a viral infection. Most common in the UK is HSV.
Other: bacteria (syphilis, staph A), immunocompromised (Cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis, Listeria)

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30
Q

What is the epidemiology of Encephalitis?

A

Annual UK incidence is 7.4 in 100,000

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31
Q

What are the presenting symptoms for Encephalitis?

A

Usually encephalitis is a mild self-limiting illness.
Subacute onset (hours to days) headache
Fever
Vomiting
Neck stiffness, photophobia, i.e. symptoms of meningism (meningoencephalitis) with behavioural changes
Drowsiness and confusion
There is often a history of seizures
Focal neurological symptoms (e.g. dysphasia and hemiplegia) may be present
It is important to obtain a detailed travel history

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32
Q

What are the signs of Encephalitis on physical examination?

A

Reduced level of consciousness with deteriorating GCS, seizures, pyrexia.
Signs of meningism: Neck stiffness, photophobia, Kernig’s test positive.
Signs of raised intracranial pressure: hypertension, bradycardia, papilloedema.
Focal neurological signs.
Minimental examination may reveal cognitive or psychiatric disturbances.

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33
Q

What is Kernigs sign?

A

Positive when the thigh is flexed at the hip and knee at 90 degree angles, and subsequent extension in the knee is painful (leading to resistance)- indicating the presence of meningitis or subarachnoid haemorrhage

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34
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Encephalitis?

A

Blood: FBC (raised lymphocytes), U&E (SIADH may occur), glucose (compare with CSF glucose), viral serology, ABG.
MRI/CT: Excludes mass lesion. HSV produces characteristic oedema of the temporal lobe on MRI.
Lumbar puncture: raised Lymphocytes,monocyte and protein, glucose usually normal. Viral PCR is first line.
EEG: May show epileptiform activity, e.g. spiking activity in temporal lobes

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35
Q

What is Epilepsy?

A

A chronic disorder that causes unprovoked, recurrent seizures (Paroxysmal synchronised cortical electrical discharges)

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36
Q

What are the two types of seizures?

A

Focal seizure:
-Seizure localised to specific cortical regions, such as temporal lobe seizures, frontal lobe seizures, occipital seizures, complex partial seizures
Generalised seizure:
Seizures which affect consciousness typically tonic-clonic, absence attacks, myoclonic, atonic (drop attacks) or tonic seizures

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37
Q

What is the aetiology of Epilepsy?

A

*The majority of cases are idiopathic
Primary epilepsy syndromes (e.g. idiopathic generalised epilepsy, temporal lobe epilepsy, juvenile myoclonic epilepsy)
Secondary seizures (symptomatic epilepsy):
-Tumour
-Infection (e.g. meningitis, encephalitis, abscess)
-Inflammation (vasculitis, rarely multiple sclerosis)
-Toxic/metabolic (sodium imbalance, hyper- or hypoglycaemia, hypocalcaemia, hypoxia, porphyria, liver failure)
-Drugs (e.g. including withdrawal e.g.alcohol, benzodiazepines)
-Vascular (haemorrhage, infarction)
-Congenital anomalies (e.g. cortical dysplasia)
-Neurodegenerative disease (e.g. Alzheimer’s disease)
-Malignant hypertension or eclampsia
-Trauma

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38
Q

What are common seizure mimics?

A

Syncope
Migraine
Non-epileptiform seizure disorder (e.g. dissociative disorder)

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39
Q

What is the epidemiology of Epilepsy?

A

Common
Prevalence in 1% of general population
Peak age of onset is in early childhood or in the elderly

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40
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Epilepsy?

A

Seizures result from an imbalance in the inhibitory and excitatory currents (e.g. Na+ or K+ ion channels) or neurotransmission (i.e. glutamate or GABA neurotransmitters) in the brain

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41
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Epilepsy: Focal seizures?

A

Frontal lobe focal motor seizues:
Motor convulsions
May demonstrate Jacksonian march (spasm spreading from mouth or digit)
There may be post-ictal flaccid weakness (Todd’s paralysis)- on one side

Temporal lobe seizures:
Aura (visceral and psychic symptoms: fear or deja-vu sensation)
Hallucinations (olfactory, gustatory)

Frontal lobe complex partial seizures:
Loss of consciousness with associated automatisms and rapid recovery

May be postictal aphasia seen after focal-onset seizures

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42
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Epilepsy: Generalised seizures?

A

Tonic-clonic (grand mal):
Vague symptoms before an attack (e.g. irritability), followed by tonic phase (generalised muscle spasm), followed by a clonic phase (repetitive synchro- nous jerks), and associated faecal or urinary incontinence, tongue biting
After a seizure, there is often impaired consciousness, lethargy, confusion, headache, back pain, stiffness

Absence (petit mal):
Usual onset in childhood
Characterized by loss of consciousness but maintained posture (patient stops talking and stares into space for seconds), blinking or rolling up of eyes with other repetitive motor actions (e.g. chewing)
No postictal phase.

Non-convulsive status epilepticus:
Acute confusional state
Often fluctuating
Difficult to distinguish from dementia.

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43
Q

What are the signs of Epilepsy on physical examination?

A

Depends on aetiology, usually normal between seizures

Look for focal abnormalities indicative of brain lesions

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44
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Epilepsy?

A

Bloods:

  • FBC: if raised WCC, may indicate an infectious cause
  • U&E: electrolyte imbalance can lead to a provoked generalised tonic-clonic seizure
  • Glucose: extreme hypoglycaemia or hyperglycaemia can cause provoked generalised tonic-clonic seizures
  • Toxicology screen: identify cause
  • Prolactin, helps to distinguish a generalised tonic-clonic seizure (GTCS) from a non-epileptic event (transient increase shortly after a ‘true’ seizure)
  • Creatinine Kinase (Elevated in true seizures)

EEG:

  • Indicated after any unprovoked seizure event
  • Helps confirm or refute the diagnosis; assists in classifying the epileptic syndrome: generalised epileptiform activity or focal, localising abnormality
  • Usually performed inter-ictally and often normal and does not rule out epilepsy

CT/MRI:
For structural, space-occupying and vascular lesions

Other investigations: Particularly for secondary seizures according to suspected aetiology e.g.
lumbar puncture (infections), HIV serology
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45
Q

What is the management of Epilepsy?

A

Only start anti-convulsant therapy after >2 unprovoked seizures:

  • Lamotrigine: newer agent
  • Topiramate: newer agent
  • Oxcarbazepine
  • Carbamazepine: reasonable choice
  • Levetiracetam
  • Valproic acid* contraindicated in pregnant women or women of a child bearing age
  • Other medications: Phenytoin and Gabapentin

Patient education:

  • Avoid triggers (e.g. alcohol)
  • Encourage seizure diaries
  • Recommend supervision for swimming or climbing, driving is only permitted if seizure free for 6 months
  • Women of childbearing age should be counseled regarding possible teratogenic effects of AEDs and should consider taking supplemental folate to limit the risk
  • Drug interactions: e.g. enzyme-inducing AEDs can limit the effectiveness of oral contraception

Surgery: limited for refractory epilepsy: Removal of definable epileptogenic focus

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46
Q

What is Status Epilepticus?

A

A life-threatening neurological condition defined as 5 or more minutes of either continuous seizure activity or repetitive seizures without regaining consciousness

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47
Q

What is the management for Status Epilepticus?

A

Treatment is often initiated in 5–10 minutes as early treatment has higher treatment success (definition is >30 mins)
1. Resuscitate and protect airway, breathing and circulation
2. Check glucose and give if hypoglycaemic- consider thiamine
3. IV lorazepam or IV or PR diazepam (repeat once after 15 min if needed)
If seizures recur or fail to respond, IV phenytoin (15mg/kg) under ECG monitoring
Alternative IV agents include phenobarbitone, levetiracetam or sodium valproate
4. If these measures fail, consider general anaesthesia. This requires intubation and mechanical ventilation
5. Treat the cause: e.g. correct hypoglycaemia or hyponatraemia
6. Check plasma levels of all anticonvulsants

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48
Q

What are the complications of Epilepsy?

A

Fractures with tonic-clonic seizures
Behavioural problems
Sudden death in epilepsy (SUDEP)
Complications of AEDs (e.g. neutropenia or osteoporosis with carbamazepine)

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49
Q

What is the prognosis of Epilepsy?

A

50% remission at 1 year

Mortality 2 in 100 000/year, directly related to seizure or secondary to injury

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50
Q

What is an Extradural Haemorrhage?

A

An acute bleed between the dura mater and the inner surface of the skull- also known as haematomas

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51
Q

What is the aetiology of Extradural Haemorrhage?

A

Most commonly caused by skull trauma in the temporoparietal area, usually following falls, assaults or sporting injuries
The pterion is vulnerable to trauma as it is the fusion point between the parietal, frontal, sphenoid and temporal bones: the middle meningeal artery is involved in 75% of EDH as it lies underneath the pterion, which leads to a high risk of arterial rupture

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52
Q

What is the epidemiology of Extradural Haemorrhage?

A

Patients most commonly affected are adult males between 20-30 years old because they are more likely to experience a traumatic injury

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53
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Extradural Haemorrhage?

A

Early signs:

  • Severe headache: occurs after the initial impact and can persist
  • Initial loss or fluctuance in consciousness: may present vaguely as tiredness or confusion

-Period of lucidity after initial loss of consciousness: usually lasts between 6 and 8 hours but may last for days depending on the speed of the haematoma growth

Late signs:
Rapid deterioration and loss of consciousness:GCS score will begin to drop as intracranial pressure rises and the brainstem begins to herniate

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54
Q

What are the signs of Extradural Haemorrhage on physical examination?

A

Eyes:

  • Focal neurological deficits become apparent in the eyes due to compression of the cranial nerves
  • E.g. CNIII (oculomotor nerve) palsy may result in fixed dilation of the ipsilateral pupil. This is colloquially known as a “blown pupil”

Muscle weakness:

  • Hemiparesis typically begins on the contralateral side to the EDH due to compression of the ipsilateral motor cortex
  • Hemiparesis may become bilateral as the ICP increases and the brainstem becomes compressed
  • Ipsilateral hemiparesis can also occur through Kernohan’s phenomenon (extensive midline shift of the brain due to mass effect from the growing extradural haematoma)

Upper motor neuron signs:
-Positive Babinski’s sign (upgoing toes), hyperreflexia and spasticity (hypertonia)
(signs are not specific to EDH)

Cushing’s triad:
A physiological response to critically high ICP
This is characterised by bradycardia, hypertension and deep/irregular breathing

Persisting unconsciousness: deep coma and very low GCS

Death: often by respiratory arrest
due to compression of the respiratory centres in the brainstem so they are unable to function

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55
Q

What are the appropriate investigations of Extradural Haemorrhage?

A

Non-contrast CT: FIRST LINE

  • Show characteristic bi-convex mass within the skull if there is an EDH is present (“lemon-shaped” )
  • Occurs as because the dura attaches to the skull more tightly across the suture lines and the pressure of the haematoma is not enough to overcome these sutures
  • Secondary features on CT head can include midline shift and brain stem herniation, both of which are indications for early surgical intervention

MRI/X-ray: can also be performed but not as sensitive as CT. Show bone fractures and MRI can help differentiate between extradural and subdural haemorrhages through looking at the displaced dura

*Lumbar punctures are absolutely contraindicated for extradural haematomas, as they result in a drop in CSF pressure, which may speed up brain herniation

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56
Q

What is Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A

A type of acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy

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57
Q

What is the aetiology of Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A

An inflammatory process where antibodies after a recent infection reacts with self-antigen on myelin or neurons. Often no aetiological trigger is identified (idiopathic in about 40%), in other cases:

  • Post-infection (1–3 weeks): bacterial (e.g. Campylobacter jejuni ), HIV, herpes viruses (e.g. zoster, CMV)
  • Malignancy (lymphoma, Hodgkin’s disease)
  • Post-vaccination
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58
Q

What is the epidemiology of Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A

nnual UK incidence is 1–2 in 100,000
Affects all age groups but rarely infants
Slight male predominance

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59
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A

Progressive symptoms of 􏰅1 month duration of:

  • Ascending symmetrical limb weakness (lower > upper)
  • Ascending paraesthesia

Cranial nerve involvement (e.g. dysphagia, dysarthria and facial weakness)
In severe cases, the respiratory muscles may be affected

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60
Q

What are the signs of Guillain-Barré syndrome on physical examination?

A

General motor examination:
-Hypotonia
-Flaccid paralysis
-Arreflexia (typically ascending upwards from feet to head)
General sensory examination:
-Impairment of sensation in multiple modalities (typically ascending upwards from feet to head)

Cranial nerve palsies (less frequently):
Facial nerve weakness (lower motor neurone pattern)
Abnormality of external ocular movements
Signs of bulbar palsy

Autonomic function: Assess for postural BP change and arrhythmias

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61
Q

What is a severe sign of Guillain-Barré syndrome on physical examination?

A

Type II respiratory failure:
Important to identify early (e.g. CO2 flap, bounding pulse, drowsiness)
This can be insidious, and needs regular assessment

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62
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Guillain-Barré syndrome?

A

Nerve conduction study:
Reduced conduction velocity or conduction block, but can be normal in the early phase of the disease
Lumbar puncture: elevated CSF protein, cell count and glucose normal
Blood: LFTs: elevation in hepatic enzymes
-Anti-ganglioside antibodies: present in 85% to 90% of patients with Miller-Fisher syndrome and 25% of
Guillain–Barre syndrome cases
Spirometry: reduced fixed vital capacity indicates ventilatory weakness, may also show reduced maximal inspiratory pressure, or maximal expiratory pressure
ECG: Arrhythmias may develop

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63
Q

What is Horner’s syndrome?

A
A disorder characterised by 
-pupillary miosis (constricted pupil)
-ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid)
-facial anhydrosis (absence of sweating)
This is due to the interference of the sympathetic trunk supplying the eye
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64
Q

What is the aetiology of Horner’s syndrome?

A

Usually due to the disruption of the sympathetic chain because of a lesion or a growth
Variety of factors:
-Carotid artery dissection
-Tumour in neck or chest cavity, particularly a neuroblastoma and a tumour of the upper part of the lung (Pancoast tumor)
-Lesion in midbrain, brain stem, upper spinal cord, neck, or eye orbit
-Inflammation or growths affecting the lymph nodes of the neck
-Surgery or other forms of trauma to the neck or upper spinal cord

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65
Q

What is the epidemiology of Horner’s syndrome?

A

Relatively rare disorder
The congenital, and more rare, form of Horner syndrome is present at birth
Affects everyone equally

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66
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Horner’s syndrome?

A
Unilateral symptoms:
Drooping upper eyelid
Constriction of the pupil
Dryness (lack of sweating) on the same side of the face (ipsilateral) as the affected eye
Retraction of the eyeball
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67
Q

What are the signs of Horner’s syndrome on physical examination?

A
Pupillary miosis (constricted pupil)
Ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid)
Facial anhydrosis (absence of sweating)
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68
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Horner’s syndrome?

A

Drops e.g. tropicamide which will cause significant dilation of the healthy eye and little dilation of the affected eye if Horner syndrome is caused by a third-order neuron abnormality — a disruption somewhere in the neck or above

Imaging: locate the site of a probable abnormality causing Horner syndrome:
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI): tumour in neck/lesion in brain
Carotid ultrasound: dissection
Chest X-ray: pancoast tumour at apex
CT: brain lesion/space occupying
Bloods: CRP/ESR inflammatory markers

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69
Q

What is the management for Horner’s syndrome?

A

No specific treatment, often resolves when an underlying medical condition is treated
In some cases surgical removal of the lesion or growth may be appropriate. Radiation and chemotherapy may be beneficial to patients with malignant tumours

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70
Q

What are the complications/prognosis of Horner’s syndrome?

A

Dependent on the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome and it’s treatment

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71
Q

What is Huntington’s disease?

A

An autosomal dominant neurodegenerative disorder characterised by progressive chorea and dementia, typically commencing in middle age

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72
Q

What is the aetiology of Huntington’s disease?

A

Caused by an expanded CAG (extended trinucleotide repeat expansion) repeat at the N-terminus of the gene that codes for the huntingtin protein which results in toxic gain of function
The disease exhibits anticipation (earlier age of onset in each successive generation)

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73
Q

What is the epidemiology of Huntington’s disease?

A

Worldwide prevalence eight in 100 000
Average age onset 30–50 years, duration of disease is approximately 20 years from time of diagnosis to time of death
Affects men and women equally
Rare in East Asian populations (particularly Japan)

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74
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Huntington’s disease?

A

FH of Huntington’s disease
Insidious onset in middle-age:
-Progressive fidgeting and clumsiness/restlessness
-Developing into involuntary, jerky, dyskinetic movements often accompanied by grunting and dysarthria
In late disease: the patient may become rigid, akinetic and bed-bound
Early cognitive, emotional and behavioural changes are dominated by lability (exaggerated changes in mood), dysphoria, mental inflexibility, anxiety, leading on to dementia

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75
Q

What are the signs of Huntington’s disease on physical examination?

A

Classically, patient presents with chorea and dysarthria
Slow voluntary saccades (quick simultaneous movement of both eyes) and supranuclear gaze restriction
Other presentations include:
-Parkinsonism and dystonia, muscles contract involuntary (especially in juvenile-onset disease)
-Mental state examination reveals cognitive and emotional deficits

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76
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Huntington’s disease?

A

Genetic analysis:
Diagnostic if >39 CAG repeats in the HD gene
Imaging:
Brain MRI or CT may show symmetrical atrophy of the striatum (particularly the caudate nuclei) and butterfly dilation of the lateral ventricles
-not specific as it is seen in other conditions
Bloods:
May be necessary to exclude other pathology: anti-nuclear antibodies blood film (acanthocytes), TFT, ESR

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77
Q

What is Hydrocephalus?

A

The enlargement of the cerebral ventricular system (accompanied by raised CSF pressure)
Divided into:
Obstructive and non-obstructive
(or communicating or non-communicating)

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78
Q

What is the aetiology of Hydrocephalus?

A

Abnormal accumulation of CSF in the ventricles can be caused by:

(1) Impaired outflow of the CSF from the ventricular system (obstructive)
- lesions of the third ventricle, fourth ventricle, cerebral aqueduct
- posterior fossa lesions (e.g. tumour, blood) compressing the fourth ventricle
- cerebral aqueduct stenosis
(2) Impaired CSF resorption in the subarahnoid villi (non-obstructive)
- tumours;
- meningitis (typically tuberculosis)
- Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) is the idiopathic chronic ventricular enlargement
* The long white matter tracts (corona radiata, anterior commisure) are damaged causing gait and cognitive decline

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79
Q

What is the epidemiology of Hydrocephalus?

A

Bimodal age distribution
In the young: congenital malformations and tumours
In the elderly: tumours and strokes

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80
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Hydrocephalus?

A
Obstructive hydrocephalus: 
-Acute drop in conscious level
-Diplopia (double vision)
Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH): 
Chronic cognitive decline
-Falls
-Urinary incontinence
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81
Q

What are the signs of Hydrocephalus on physical examination?

A
Obstructive hydrocephalus: 
-Impaired GCS
-Papilloedema
-VI nerve palsy (‘false localizing sign’ of increased ICP)
-In neonates, the head circumference may enlarge, and ‘sunset sign’ (downward conjugate deviation of eyes)
NPH: 
-Cognitive impairment
-Gait apraxia (shuffling)
-Hyper-reflexia
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82
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Hydrocephalus?

A

CT head:
*-First-line investigation to detect hydrocephalus (ventricular enlargement)
-May also detect the cause (e.g. tumour in the brainstem)
CSF:
-Obtained from ventricular drains or lumbar puncture
-May indicate an underlying pathology (e.g. tuberculosis)
Check for MC&S, protein, glucose (CSF and plasma)
Lumbar puncture:
This is contra-indicated in obstructive hydrocephalus as it can cause tonsilar herniation and death
Others:
-Levodopa challenge: suspected Parkinsons due to gait apraxia

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83
Q

What is a lumbar puncture?

A

Also known as a spinous tap inserted between two vertebrae to remove a sample of cerebrospinal fluid

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84
Q

What are the indications for a lumbar puncture?

A

Diagnosis of CNS conditions/infections
Inject medications – such as painkillers, antibiotics or chemotherapy
Inject a spinal anaesthetic (epidural) – to numb the lower part of your body before an operation
Remove some fluid to reduce pressure in the skull or spine

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85
Q

What are the possible complications of a lumbar puncture?

A

A lumbar puncture is generally a safe procedure and serious side effects are uncommon.
Headaches
Swelling and lower back pain where the needle was inserted
Potential infections at site of insertion

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86
Q

What is Meningitis?

A

Inflammation of the meninges (pia mater and arachnoid) (coverings of the brain) most commonly caused by infection

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87
Q

What is the aetiology of Meningitis?

A

Infection:
Bacterial:
-Neonates: Group B streptococci, Escherichia coli, Listeria monocytogenes
-Children: Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae
-Adults: Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus), Streptococcus pneumoniae, TB
-Elderly: Streptococcus pneumoniae, Listeria monocytogenes
Viral: Enteroviruses, mumps, Herpes simplex V, HIV
Fungal: Cryptococcus (associated with HIV infection)

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88
Q

What are the risk factors for Meningitis?

A
Close communities (e.g. dormitories)
Basal skull fractures
Mastoiditis
Sinusitis
Inner ear infections
Alcoholism
Immunodeficiency
Splenectomy
Sickle cell anaemia
CSF shunts
Intracranial surgery
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89
Q

What is the epidemiology of Meningitis?

A

Variation according to geography, age, social conditions

Viral meningitis is one of the most common infections of the CNS

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90
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Meningitis?

A
ASK ABOUT TRAVEL HISTORY
*Severe headache
*Photophobia
*Neck stiffness or backache
Irritability
Drowsiness
Vomiting
Fever
Clouding of consciousness
High-pitched crying or fits (common in children)
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91
Q

What are the signs of Meningitis on physical examination?

A
Signs of meningism: 
-Photophobia
-Neck stiffness
Signs of infection: 
-Fever
-Tachycardia 
-Hypotension
-Skin rash (petechiae with meningococcal septicaemia)
-Altered mental state
92
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Meningitis?

A

Blood: Two sets of blood cultures (do not delay antibiotics)
Imaging:
-CT scan to exclude a mass lesion or increased intracranial pressure before LP, (may lead to cerebral herniation during subsequent CSF removal)
*A CT scan of the head must be done before LP in patients with:
-Immunodeficiency
-History of CNS disease
-Reduced consciousness
-Fit
-Focal neurologic deficit
-Papilloedema
Lumbar puncture: Send CSF for MCS and Gram staining (Streptococcus pneumoniae: Gram-positive diplococcic, Neisseria Meningitidis: gram-negative diplococcic)

Bacterial: Cloudy CSF, raised neutrophils, raised protein, reduced glucose (CSF: serum glucose ratio of <0.5)
Viral: raised Lymphocytes, raised protein BUT normal glucose
*TB: Fibrinous CSF, raised lymphocytes, raised protein, reduced glucose

93
Q

What is the management for Meningitis?

A

Immediate IV/IM antibiotics if meningitis suspected (before lumbar puncture or CT)

Antibiotics:
Benzylpenicillin may be given as initial ‘blind’ therapy
Amoxicillin + gentamicin
Add vancomycin and if necessary rifampicin
If anaphylaxis to penicillin or cephalosporins- use chloramphenicol

Steroids:
IV (10 mg for 4 days) given shortly before or with first dose of antibiotics to reduce complications
Avoid dexamethasone in patients with HIV

Resuscitation: Patient is best managed in ITU

Prevention (only applicable to meningococcal meningitis): Notify public health services and consult a consultant in communicable disease control, vaccination for meningococcal serogroups A and C

94
Q

What are the complications for Meningitis?

A
Septicaemia 
Shock
DIC-disseminated intravascular coagulation, which is the inappropriate clotting of blood within the vessels
Renal failure
Fits
Peripheral gangrene
Cerebral oedema
Cranial nerve lesions
Cerebral venous thrombosis
Hydrocephalus
Water- house–Friderichsen syndrome (bilateral adrenal haemorrhage)
95
Q

What is the prognosis of Meningitis?

A

Mortality rate from bacterial meningitis is high (10–40% with meningococcal sepsis)
In developing countries mortality rate often higher
Viral meningitis self-limiting

96
Q

What is a Migraine?

A

A severe episodic headache that may have a prodrome of focal neurological symptoms (aura) and is associated with systemic disturbance. Usually presents early to mid life.
Can be subclassified as:
-Migraine with aura (classical migraine)
-Migraine without aura (common migraine)
-Migraine variants (familial hemiplegic, opthalmoplegic and basilar)

97
Q

What is the aetiology of Migraine?

A

Precise pathophysiological mechanism poorly understood
Early aura of cortical spreading depression associated with intracranial vasoconstriction resulting in localized ischaemia
This is followed by meningeal and extracranial vasodilation mediated by 5-HT, bradykinin and the trigeminovascular system
Initiating event: neuronal depolarisation, triggered more easily

98
Q

What is the epidemiology of Migraine?

A

Usual onset in adolescence or early adulthood, but can occur in middle age
Females are more commonly affected with 15–20% and 6% in males (3:1)

99
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Migraine?

A
Headache: 
-Pulsating
-Often unilateral 
Duration 4–72 h
(Most migraine attacks are episodic and chronic daily headache lasting many weeks suggest either analgesia-overuse headache or secondary headaches)

Associated symptoms:

  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Photophobia
  • Phonophobia
  • May be preceded by aura that may include:
  • visual disturbance: flashing lights, spots, blurring, zigzag lines (fortification spectra), blindspots (scotomas)
  • Other sensory symptoms such as tingling or numbness in limbs
100
Q

What are some of the triggers/risk factors for a Migraine?

A
Stress
Exercise
Lack of sleep
Oral contraceptive pill
Certain foods (e.g. caffeine, alcohol, cheese, chocolate)
101
Q

What are the signs of Migraine on physical examination?

A

*Usually no specific physical findings

Examination of mental state, neurological examination, funduscopy, sinuses, cervical spine, general examination to exclude secondary causes
Secondary causes include:
-Meningoencephalitis (meningitis)
-Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
-Subarachnoid haemorrhage
-Space-occupying lesion
-Temporal arteritis
102
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Migraine?

A

*Diagnosis based on history

Investigations may be needed to exclude other diagnoses.
Blood: FBC, ESR (temporal arteritis)
CT/MRI: If suspicion of secondary headache disorders
Lumbar puncture: If suspicion of meningitis. Do not perform until space-occupying lesion excluded for risk of herniation

103
Q

What is the management of Migraines?

A
Migraine is a chronic condition
Acute: 
-NSAID (e.g. naproxen)
-Paracetamol
-Codeine 
-Antiemetics (e.g. metoclopramide) 
-Triptans’ (5-HT1 agonists):sumatriptan and zolmitriptan (orally, nasally or subcutaneously)

Prophylaxis (if > 2/month, 50% patients benefit):

  • b-blockers
  • Amitriptyline (TCA)
  • Topiramate and sodium valproate (anti-epileptics)
  • Pizotifen (5-HT2 antagonist)
  • Calcium-channel blocker

*Menstrual migraine can be controlled by the oral contraceptive pill

Advice: Encourage regular meals and sleep, caffeine restriction, measures to reduce stress, avoid triggers, symptom diary. Rest in quiet dark room during episode.

104
Q

What are the complications of Migraines?

A

Disruption of daily activities
Can progress onto analgesia-overuse headache due to chronic use of analgesics
Gastric ulcers (overuse of NSAIDs)

105
Q

What is the prognosis of Migraine?

A

Usually chronic, but majority of cases can be managed well by preventative/ early treatment measure

106
Q

What is Motor Neurone Disease?

A

A progressive neurodegenerative disorder of cortical, brainstem and spinal motor neurons (lower and upper motor neuron)

107
Q

What are the four different types of Motor Neurone Disease?

A
  1. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) : combined degeneration of upper and lower motor neurones producing a mix of UMN and LMN neurones
  2. Progressive bulbar palsy variant: Dysarthria and dysphagia with wasted fasciculating tongue (LMN) and brisk jaw jerk (UMN)
  3. Primary lateral sclerosis variant: UMN pattern of weakness, brisk reflexes, extensor plantar responses, without LMN signs
  4. Progressive muscular atrophy variant: Only LMN signs, e.g. flail arm or flail foot syndrome. Better prognosis
108
Q

What is the aetiology of Motor Neurone Disease?

A

Unknown
Free radical damage and glutamate excitotoxicity have been implicated as mutations
Pathology: Progressive motor neuron degeneration and death with gliosis (proliferation or hypertrophy of several different types of glial cells) replacing lost neurons

109
Q

What is the epidemiology of Motor Neurone Disease?

A

Rare, annual incidence is 2 per 100,000
Mean age of onset is 55 years
5–10% have family history with autosomal dominant inheritance

110
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Motor Neurone Disease?

A
Weakness of limbs (focal or asymmetrical)
Speech disturbance (slurring or reduction in volume)
Swallowing disturbance (e.g. choking on food, nasal regurgitation)
There may be behavioural changes (e.g. disinhibition, emotional lability-mood changes)
111
Q

What are the signs of Motor Neurone Disease on physical examination?

A
Combination of upper motor neuron (UMN) and lower motor neuron (LMN) signs often affecting several regions asymmetrically
LMN features: 
-Muscle wasting
-Fasciculations
-Flaccid weakness
-Depressed or absent reflexes 
UMN features: 
-Spastic weakness
-Brisk reflexes
-Extensor plantars (Babinski reflex)
*Sensory examinaiton: Should be normal
112
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Motor Neurone Disease?

A

Investigations aimed to confirm the clinical diagnosis by providing evidence of combined UMN and LMN loss and excluding other causes

Blood:

  • CK (mild elevation), ESR
  • Consider testing for anti-GM1 ganglioside antibodies (present in multifocal motor neuropathy)

Electromyography (EMG):
Features of acute and chronic denervation with giant motor unit action potentials in more than 1 limb and/or paraspinals

Nerve conduction studies: Most often normal

MRI: To exclude cord or root compression, and brainstem lesion in progressive bulbar palsy variant. May show high signal in motor tracts on T2 imaging

113
Q

What is Multiple Sclerosis?

A

An inflammatory demyelinating disease characterised by the presence of episodic neurological dysfunction in at least two areas of the central nervous system (brain, spinal cord, and optic nerves) separated in time and space

114
Q

What are the different types of Multiple Sclerosis?

A
  1. Relapsing-remitting MS: Commonest form
    -Characterised by clinical attacks of demyelination
    with complete recovery in between attacks
  2. Clinically isolated syndrome: Single clinical attack of demyelination; (does not qualify as MS), 10–50% progress to developing MS
  3. Primary progressive MS: Steadily accumulation of disability with no clear relapsing-remitting
    pattern
115
Q

What is the aetiology of Multiple Sclerosis?

A

Unknown
Inflammatory and degenerative components that may be triggered by an environmental factor or factors in persons who are genetically susceptible
Immune-mediated damage to CNS myelin results in impaired conduction along axons
There is also associated grey and white matter involvement-atrophy

116
Q

What are the risk factors for Multiple Sclerosis?

A
Female sex
Genetic factors 
Smoking (weak)
PMH and FH of autoimmune diseases
EBV exposure 
Prenatal and childhood vitamin D deficiency
117
Q

What is the epidemiology of Multiple Sclerosis?

A

The most common cause of neurological disability among young adults
Prevalence in UK is 1 in 1000 (rare in Far East)
Female to male ratio of around 3:1
Usually presents at 20–40 years
A geographic gradient, with higher incidence at latitudes closer to the poles, has been linked with MS

118
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Multiple Sclerosis?

A
Optic neuritis (commonest): 
-Unilateral deterioration in visual acuity and colour perception
-Pain on eye movement
Sensory system: 
-Pins and needles
-Numbness
-Burning
Motor: 
-Limb weakness
-Spasms
-Stiffness
-Heaviness
Autonomic: 
-Urinary urgency
-Hesitancy
-Incontinence
-Bowel dysfunction 
-Impotence
Psychological: 
Depression, psychosis

*Uhthoff’s phenomenon: Transient increase or recurrence of symptoms due to conduction block precipitated by a rise in body temperature e.g. in the bath

119
Q

What are the signs of Multiple Sclerosis on physical examination?

A

Optic neuritis:

  • Fundoscopy, in active disease, there is a swollen optic nerve head, in chronic disease, there may be optic atrophy
  • Visual field testing: Central scotoma (optic nerve affected) or field defects (optic radiations affected)
  • Relative afferent pupillary defect: Tested with a swinging torch test. Both pupils contract when light is shone on the unaffected side, both pupils dilate when light is ‘swung’ to the diseased (eye)
  • Internuclear opthalmoplegia: Lateral horizontal gaze produces a failure of adduction of the contralateral eye

Sensory:
-Paraesthesia (vibration and joint position sense loss more common than pain and temperature)

Motor:

  • UMN signs (e.g. spastic weakness, brisk reflexes)
  • Cerebellar: Limb ataxia (intention tremor, past-pointing and dysmetria on finger-nose test and heel-shin test), dysdiadochokinesis, ataxic wide-based gait (foot dragging), scanning speech

Lhermitte’s phenomenon: Electric shock-like sensation in arms and legs precipitated by neck flexion

120
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Multiple Sclerosis?

A

Diagnosis based on two or more CNS lesions with corresponding symptoms, separated in time and space (McDonald criteria)

MRI-brain: inflammation and degeneration, typical lesions seen in MS in the periventricular regions
MRI-spinal cord: demyelinating lesions in the spinal cord, particularly the cervical spinal cord

Bloods: exclude differentials, FBC, TFTs, Vitamin B12

Evoked potentials: prolongation of conduction, particularly asymmetrical prolongation in the visual evoked potentials (delayed in 􏰄90% of patients with MS)

Others:

  • CSF electrophoresis:unmatched oligoclonal bands
  • Lumbar puncture: Microscopy to exclude other infective or inflammatory causes
121
Q

What is Myasthenia Gravis?

A

An autoimmune disease affecting the neuromuscular junction producing weakness of skeletal muscles (muscle fatiguability)

122
Q

What is the aetiology of Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Impairment of neuromuscular junction transmission, most commonly (80-90%) due to auto-antibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (nAChR)
Myasthenia gravis is associated with other autoimmune conditions (e.g. pernicious anaemia) and thymoma development (75%)- FH*

123
Q

What is the epidemiology of Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Uncommon disease

More common in females at younger ages (child bearing age), but equal gender distribution in middle age

124
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Muscle weakness that worsens with repetitive use or towards end of day
Ocular symptoms: Drooping eyelids, diplopia
Bulbar symptoms:
-Facial weakness (‘myasthenic snarl’)
-Disturbed hypernasal speech
-Difficulty in smiling, chewing or swallowing (nasal regurgitation of fluids)

125
Q

What are the signs of Myasthenia Gravis on physical examination?

A

Can be generalized (affecting many muscle groups), bulbar (affecting bulbar muscles) or ocular (affecting only the eyes)

Eyes:
Bilateral/unilateral ptosis
Complex opthamoplegia
*Test for ocular fatiguability by ask patient to sustain upward gaze for 1 min and watch for progressive ptosis
-‘Ice on eyes’ test: Placing ice-packs on closed eyelids for 2 min can improve neuromuscular transmission, reducing ptosis= considered positive when ptosis improves by 􏰃2 mm from baseline
Bulbar:
Reading aloud may provoke dysarthria or nasal speech after 3 min
Limbs:
Test the power of a muscle before and after repeated use of the muscle (e.g. 20 repetitions)

126
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Bloods:

  • *Serum acetylcholine receptor antibody (positive in 80%)
  • Muscle specific tyrosine kinase (anti-MUSK) antibody (positive in up to 70%)

Serial pulmonary function tests: If suspected Myasthenia Gravis crisis, low forced vital capacity (FVC) and negative inspiratory force (NIF)

Repetitive nerve stimulation: >10% decline in compound muscle action potential (CMAP) amplitude

EMG: Single-fibre EMG may demonstrate ‘jitter’ (variability in latency from stimulus to muscle potential) indicating fluctuation in neuromuscular conduction

CT chest: thymoma (which occurs in about 15% of patients with MG) or thymic hyperplasia (which occurs in 75%), malignancies in the lung

127
Q

What is Neurofibromatosis?

A

An autosomal dominant genetic disorder affecting cells of neural crest origin, resulting in the development of multiple neurocutaneous tumours

128
Q

What are the two types of Neurofibromatosis?

A

Type 1 NF:
-Characterized by peripheral and spinal neurofibromas
-Multiple cafe au lait spots- painless, coffee coloured patches
-Freckling (axillary/inguinal)
-Optic nerve glioma
-Lisch nodules (on iris)
-Skeletal deformities
-Phaeochromocytomas
-Renal artery stenosis
Type 2 NF:
-Characterized by schwannomas, e.g. bilateral vestibular schwannomas (acoustic neuromas), peripheral/spinal schwannomas, meningiomas, gliomas, cataracts

*Schwannoma: tumor that grows in the sheaths of nerves in your peripheral nervous system

129
Q

What is the aetiology of Neurofibromatosis?

A

Multiple mutations have been described in tumour suppressor genes NF1 (encodes neurofibromin resulting in excessive activity of the proto-oncogene p21-ras) and NF2 respectively (encodes merlin (or schwannomin))

130
Q

What is the epidemiology of Neurofibromatosis?

A

Incidence is 1 in 3000 births for type 1 NF and 1 in 40000 for type 2 NF
No gender or racial predilection

131
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Neurofibromatosis?

A
Positive family history (but 50% are caused by new mutations)
Type 1 NF: 
-Skin lesions (cafe au lait spots)
-Learning difficulties (in 40%)
-Headaches
-Disturbed vision (optic gliomas, in 􏰄15%)
-Precocious puberty (may indicate lesions of the pituitary from optic glioma involving the chiasm)
Type 2 NF: 
-Hearing loss
-Tinnitus
-Balance problems
-Headache
-Facial pain 
-Numbness
132
Q

What are the signs of Neurofibromatosis on physical examination?

A

Type 1 NF:
>5 cafe au lait macules of >5mm (pre-pubertal individuals) or >15mm (post-pubertal individuals)
Neurofibromas (appear as cutaneous nodules or complex plexiform neuromas)
Freckling in armpit or groin
Lisch nodules (hamartomas on iris)
Spinal scoliosis

Type 2 NF:
Few or no skin lesions
Sensorineural deafness with facial nerve palsy or cerebellar signs if schwannoma large (Acoustic neuroma)

133
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Neurofibromatosis?

A

Ophthalmological assessment and audiometry
MRI brain and spinal cord: For vestibular schwannomas, meningiomas and nerve root neurofibromas, other brain tumours, hydrocephalus
Skull X-ray: Sphenoid dysplasia in type 1 NF
Genetic testing: identifiable mutation involving the NF1 locus and NF2

134
Q

What is Parkinson’s disease?

A

Neurodegenerative disease of the dopaminergic neurones of the substantia nigra, characterized by:

  • Bradykinesia
  • Rigidity
  • Tremor
  • Postural instability
135
Q

What is the aetiology of Parkinson’s disease?

A

Sporadic and idiopathic (most common): Unknown Environmental toxins and oxidative stress have been proposed (e.g. pesticides, wood pulp)
Secondary:
-Neuroleptic therapy (e.g. in schizophrenia).
-Vascular insults (e.g. basal ganglia or midbrain strokes).
-MPTP (neurotoxin) from illicit drug contamination
-Post-encephalitis (e.g. influenza)
-Repeated head injury (e.g. boxing)

136
Q

What is the epidemiology of Parkinson’s disease?

A

Very common: 1–2% of >60-year-olds
Mean age of onset is 􏰄57 years
Annual incidence is 20 in 100,000

137
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?

A
Insidious onset
Tremor at rest, usually noticed in hands
Stiffness and slowness of movements
Difficulty initiating movements (e.g. getting out of chair, rolling in bed)
Frequent falls
Smaller hand writing (micrographia)
Insomnia
Mental slowness (bradyphenia)
138
Q

What are the signs of Parkinson’s disease on physical examination?

A

Tremor: Classically ‘pill rolling’ rest tremor, decreased on action or flexed posture, usually asymmetrical
Rigidity: Lead pipe rigidity of muscle tone, with superimposed tremor (cogwheel rigidity)
Gait: Stooped, ‘simian’, shuffling, small-stepped gait with reduced arm swing (difficulty in initiation of walking)
Postural instability: Falls easily with little pressure from the back (propulsion) or the front (retropulsion)
Psychiatric: Depression is very common. Cognitive problems and dementia may occur in late disease
Others:
-Bradykinesia
-Frontalis overactivation (furrowing of the brow)
-Expressionless face (hypomimia)
-Soft monotonous voice (hypophonia)
-Impaired olfaction on formal testing
-Mmild impairment of up-gaze and tendency to drool (sialorrhoea)
-Involuntary movements in one part of the face associated with voluntary movement in another part of the face (synkinesis)

139
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Parkinson’s disease?

A

Diagnosis is clinical
Levodopa trial:
-Timed walking and clinical assessment after levodopa may be informative
-Antiemetic (domperidone) may be needed.
Bloods: Exclude other causes, serum ceruloplasmin (excludes Wilson’s disease in young onset)
CT or MRI brain: Useful for excluding other causes of gait decline (e.g. hydrocephalus, vascular disease)
*(DAT-scan): Reduction in striatum and putamen. May be
necessary for distinguishing from essential tremor

140
Q

What is the The Monro-Kellie hypothesis?

A

The sum of volumes of brain, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and intracerebral blood is constant
Therefore an increase in one should cause a reciprocal decrease in either one or both of the remaining two

141
Q

What is raised intracranial pressure?

A

Raised intracranial pressure (ICP) can arise as a consequence of intracranial mass lesions, disorders of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) circulation and more diffuse intracranial pathological processes
Its development may be acute or chronic

142
Q

What is the aetiology of raised intracranial pressure?

A
  • Localised mass lesions: traumatic haematomas (extradural, subdural, intracerebral)
  • Neoplasms: glioma, meningioma, metastasis
  • Abscess
  • Focal oedema secondary to trauma, infarction, tumour
  • Disturbance of CSF circulation: obstructive hydrocephalus, communicating hydrocephalus
  • Obstruction to major venous sinuses: depressed fractures overlying major venous sinuses, cerebral venous thrombosis
  • Diffuse brain oedema or swelling: encephalitis, meningitis, diffuse head injury, subarachnoid haemorrhage, encephalopathy, water intoxication
  • Idiopathic intracranial hypertension.
143
Q

What is the epidemiology of raised intracranial pressure?

A

Most common cause is head injury

144
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of raised intracranial pressure?

A

Headache
Early changes in mental state include lethargy, irritability, slow decision making and abnormal social behaviour
*Untreated, this can deteriorate to stupor, coma and death
Vomiting (in early stages without nausea)
Pupillary changes, including irregularity or dilatation in one eye

145
Q

What are the signs of raised intracranial pressure on examination?

A

Fundoscopy shows: blurring of the disc margins, loss of venous pulsations, disc hyperaemia and flame-shaped haemorrhages. In later stages, obscured disc margins and retinal haemorrhages may be seen
Unilateral ptosis or third and sixth nerve palsies
In later stages, ophthalmoplegia and loss of vestibulo-ocular reflexes
Late signs include motor changes (hemiparesis), raised blood pressure, widened pulse pressure and slow irregular pulse

146
Q

What can happen in acute situations associated with raised intracranial pressure?

A
  • Head injury and obtundation: bleeding can form a rapidly expanding haematoma leading to rapidly rising ICP if not treated promptly
  • Syncope, headache and meningismus: abrupt onset of headache with these symptoms suggests ruptured cerebral aneurysm or vascular lesion
  • Focal deficit followed by seizures: focal deficit can be associated with a mass lesion and when there is oedema or haemorrhage. Intracranial compartment shift can cause increased ICP within minutes or hours; status epilepticus can cause decompensation of cerebral volume regulation
  • ‘Talk and deteriorate’: patients typically talk recognisably following head injury, then go into coma in the first two days. The usual cause is an intracranial haematoma
147
Q

What are the three characteristic features of raised intracranial pressure?

A

Headache
Papilloedema
Vomiting

148
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for raised intracranial pressure?

A

CT/MRI scanning to determine any underlying lesion: haematoma, space occupying lesion, thrombosis
Check and monitor blood glucose, renal function, electrolytes and osmolality

149
Q

What is spinal cord compression?

A

Results from processes that compress or displace arterial, venous, and cerebrospinal fluid spaces, as well as the cord itself
This can occur as a result of extrinsic causes and lesions, or intrinsic aetiologies of the cord substance

150
Q

What is the aetiology of spinal cord compression?

A

Can occur as a result of spine trauma, vertebral fracture, intervertebral disc herniation, primary or metastatic spinal tumour (CNS, multiple myeloma, lung, breast) or infection (TB, abscess)
*Trauma is a leading cause of acute SCC
Vertebral compression fractures are usually due to low-energy trauma in weakened bone and are seen in older people (with conditions such as osteoporosis, osteomalacia, osteomyelitis)

151
Q

What is the epidemiology of spinal cord compression?

A

A devastating condition affecting people across all age groups worldwide
Trauma is the main cause of acute SCC
Age < 29: most common cause are sport and recreation injury
Age > 65: Falls are the leading cause

152
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of spinal cord compression?

A

Back pain with sensory, motor, or autonomic symptoms:
-Numbness or paraethesias
-Weaknessor paralysis
-Bladder or bowel dysfunction
Age affected:
16-30: trauma
30-50: disc disease
40-75: malignancy
-Acute symptoms are commonly associated with traumatic cord compression or disc herniation
-Chronic symptoms are associated with osteoporosis, osteomyelitis, or malignancy

153
Q

What is Cauda Equina syndrome?

A

Due to disc compression and stenosis of the spinal canal The syndrome consists of:

  • Saddle (perineal) anaesthesia (numbness around the anus)
  • Back pain which radiates down leg
  • Bladder retention
  • Leg weakness

The reported incidence of cauda equina syndrome resulting from herniated lumbar disc varies from 1% to 15% and commonly affects males aged 40 to 60 years

Bladder dysfunction may present as incontinence but often presents earlier as difficulty starting or stopping a stream of urine. Urinary incontinence is on the basis of overflow

154
Q

What are the signs of spinal cord compression on physical examination?

A

Hyper-reflexia: an early sign of spinal cord compression and is more commonly associated with malignancy
Sensory loss: loss of pinprick, temperature, position, and vibratory sensation occurs early in cord compression, especially when due to malignancy
Muscle weakness or wasting

155
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for spinal cord compression?

A

*MRI spine: (the imaging study of choice for suspected cord compression of any aetiology)
-Disc displacement
-Epidural enhancement
-Mass/lesion
Gadolinium enhanced MRI spine:
-imaging modality of choice in infection including osteomyelitis and epidural abscess
-Infection: epidural space and bone involvement
-Malignancy: visualisation of tumour (and metastatic disease)
Plain spine X-ray: (of limited value)
-Decreased disc space height (disc compression)
-Loss of bony detail (tumour, infection)
-Misalignment of vertebral elements (trauma)
-Loss of end-plate definition (infection)
CT spine: (used when MRI is unavailable/planning surgery)
-Cord compression from tumour expansion into the canal or bony fragments from pathological fracture
CT Myelograhpy: (allows imaging of the degree of cord compression in flexion and extension)
-classical hour-glass constriction shape of the dye column

Identify cause:
-Bloods: FBC(WCC), ESR/CRP
-Blood/CSF cultures
Tumour biopsy and histopathology
-Urodynamic studies: evaluate the degree and cause of sphincter dysfunction
-PET scan of spine: identify lesions/areas of hypermetabolism

156
Q

What is radiculopathy?

A

When intervertebral discs become damaged and cause compression or irritation of a nearby nerve root

157
Q

What is the aetiology of radiculopathy?

A

Can be caused by a variety of conditions and injuries:

  • a herniated disc
  • sciatica
  • degenerative disc disease
  • tumors of the spine
  • osteoarthritis or spinal arthritis
  • spinal stenosis
  • compression fractures
  • spondylolisthesis
  • scoliosis caused by an abnormal curve
  • diabetes
  • cauda equina syndrome
158
Q

What are the risk factors for radiculopathy?

A
Aging
Overweight 
Poor posture 
Improper lifting techniques 
Repetitive motions 
FH of degenerative bone conditions
159
Q

What is the epidemiology of radiculopathy?

A

More common in 40-50 year olds

May be more common in men

160
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of radiculopathy?

A

Different symptoms, depending on the nerve compressed:
Cervical: pain in the neck, shoulder, upper back, or arm
Thoracic: burning or shooting pain in the rib, side, or abdomen
Lumbar: sharp pain starting in the back, extending to the foot (or numbness/tingling/hypersensitivity)

161
Q

What are the signs of radiculopathy on physical examination?

A

Physical examination: neurological and limbs

162
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for radiculopathy?

A

Physical examination
Radiological imaging: x-ray, MRI, CT
EMG: test nerve function

163
Q

What is a Stroke?

A

The rapid permanent neurological deficit from cerebrovascular insult
Also defined clinically, as focal or global impairment of CNS function developing rapidly and lasting >24 h

164
Q

What is a Transient Ischaemic Attack (TIA)?

A

A transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischaemia, without acute infarction, fully resolving within 24h

165
Q

What can Stroke be divided into?

A

Ischaemic (caused by vascular occlusion or stenosis)

Haemorrhage (caused by vascular rupture, resulting in intraparenchymal and/or subarachnoid haemorrhage)

166
Q

What is the aetiology of an Ischaemic Stroke?

A

87% of strokes are Ischaemic
Causes include:
Thrombosis:
-In the elderly, this arises from atherosclerosis within cerebral vessels affecting mainly small vessels (causing lacunar infarcts) and less commonly large vessels (e.g. middle cerebral artery)
-Can also arise from prothrombotic states (e.g. dehydration or thrombophilia).

Emboli:
-From intimal flap of carotid dissection, atheromatous plaques in the carotid arteries or from the heart (e.g. atrial fibrillation)

Hypotension:
-If below the autoregulatory range maintaining cerebral blood flow, infarction results in the ‘watershed’ zones between different cerebral artery territories

Others: Vasculitis, cocaine

167
Q

What is the aetiology of a Haemorrhagic Stroke?

A
Around 10% of cases
Hypertension
-Charcot–Bouchard microaneurysm rupture
Amyloid angiopathy
Arteriovenous malformations
Less commonly: trauma, tumours, arteriovenous malformations, vasculitis
168
Q

What is the epidemiology of Stroke?

A
Common
Annual incidence is 2 in 1000 
Third most common cause of death in industrialized countries (US, UK)
Most patients are in seventh decade
Young strokes (<50 years merit extensive investigation)
Ischaemic -87%
Haemorrhagic -10%
Subarachnoid haemorrhage -3%
169
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of a Stroke?

A

*Sudden onset (deterioration within seconds)
*Weakness, sensory, visual or cognitive impairment, impaired coordination, or consciousness
Unilateral
Head or neck pain (in carotid or vertebral artery dissection)
*Enquire time of onset (critical for emergency management if <4.5 h)
Enquire if history of atrial fibrillation, MI, valvular heart disease, carotid artery stenosis, recent neck trauma or pain

170
Q

What are the signs of an Ischaemic Stroke on physical examination?

A

Anterior circulation

  • Anterior cerebral: Lower limb weakness (motor cortex), confusion (frontal lobe)
  • Middle cerebral: Facial weakness, hemiparesis (motor cortex), hemisensory loss (somatosensory cortex), apraxia, hemineglect (parietal lobe), receptive or expressive dysphasia (language centres), quadrantanopia (superior or inferior optic radiations)

Posterior circulation

  • Posterior cerebral: Hemianopia (blindness over half the visual field)
  • Anterior inferior cerebellar artery: Vertigo, ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral deafness (or tinnitus), ipsilateral facial weakness
  • Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (lateral medullary syndrome of Wallenberg): Vertigo, ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome, ipsilateral hemifacial sensory loss, dysarthria and contralateral spinothalamic sensory loss
  • Basilar artery: Combination of cranial nerve pathology and impaired consciousness (emergency)
171
Q

What are the signs of Lacunar Infarcts on physical examination?

A

Disease in the deep perforating arteries:

  • Internal capsule or pons: Pure sensory or motor deficit (or combination of both)
  • Thalamus: Loss of consciousness, hemisensory deficit
  • Basal ganglia: Hemichorea, hemiballismus (movement disorder), Parkinsonism

Multiple lacunar infarcts:

  • Vascular dementia
  • Urinary incontinence
  • Gait apraxia (‘marche a petits pas’, shuffling small-stepped gait, with upright posture and often normal or excessive arm-swing)
172
Q

What are the signs of a Haemorrhagic Stroke on physical examination?

A
Headache
Meningism
Focal neurological signs
Nausea and vomiting
Signs of raised ICP (papilloedema)
Seizures
173
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Stroke?

A

Protect the airway: This avoids hypoxia/aspiration
Maintain homeostasis:
-Blood glucose: keep between 4–11 mmol/L

URGENT CT/MRI within 1h:
(1st)CT-head: For rapid detection of haemorrhages- often normal especially in lacunar infarcts or very early in the stroke (<6 h)
MRI-brain: Rarely available acutely, but much higher sensitivity for infarction
Diffusion-weighted imaging (DWI) can differentiate between recent strokes (<2 weeks) and old strokes
-
Essential if: thrombolysis considered, high risk of haemorrhage (reduced GCS, signs of high ICP, severe headache, meningism, progressive symptoms, bleeding tendency or anticoagulated)

Others:

  • ECG: exclude arrhythmia or ischaemia
  • Carotid Doppler ultrasound: Important to exclude carotid artery disease.
  • CT-cerebral angiogram: To detect artery dissections or intracranial stenosis
  • Cardiac enzymes: exclude concomitant MI
  • Prothrombin time: if no DH of anticoagulant use then thrombolysis does not need to be delayed for test results
174
Q

What does FAST stand for in an acute stroke setting?

A

F- facial dropping
A- arm weakness
S- speech difficulties
T- time (narrow therapeutic window as stroke is a permanent condition)

175
Q

What is the management for a hyperacute (<4.5h) Ischaemic Stroke?

A

*If haemorrhage excluded on CT-head:
Intravenous thrombolysis may be considered (Alteplase)
*best results are within 90 minutes

176
Q

What is the management for an Ischaemic Stroke?

A
  1. Aspirin or clopidogrel to prevent further thrombosis once haemorrhage excluded on CT-head.
  2. Heparin anti-coagulation may be considered in certain subgroups where there is a high risk of emboli recurrence or stroke progression (e.g. carotid dissection, recurrent cardiac emboli, critical carotid artery stenosis)
  3. Formal swallow assessment is essential (nasogastric tube may be required)
  4. Close nursing and GCS monitoring
  5. Thromboprophylaxis (graded compression stockings)
    - Hemicraniectomy may be indicated for mass effect from infarcted tissue in the first 48 h

*Multidisciplinary rehabilitation: Speech and language
therapy, occupational therapy, physiotherapy and neuropsychology.

177
Q

What is the management for a Haemorrhagic Stroke?

A

Control hypertension and seizures
IV mannitol and hyperventilation helps lower intracranial pressure
Evacuation of haematoma or ventricular drainage may be required

*Multidisciplinary rehabilitation: Speech and language
therapy, occupational therapy, physiotherapy and neuropsychology.

178
Q

What is the secondary prevention in Strokes?

A

Aspirin and dipyridamole, warfarin anticoagulation (if atrial fibrillation), stop smoking, control hypertension and hyperlipidaemia, treatment of carotid
artery disease

179
Q

What is the surgical treatment of Strokes?

A

Carotid endartectomy within 2 weeks of stroke or TIA reduces risk of further stroke although carries a significant peri-operative risk

  • symptomatic stenosis of 70–99% or
  • symptomatic stenosis of 50–99% or
  • crescendo TIAs not responding to medical treatment
180
Q

What are the complications of Stroke?

A

Cerebral oedema (raised ICP and local compression)
Immobility
Infections (e.g. pneumonia, UTI, from pressure sores) DVT
Cardiovascular events (arrhythmias, MI, cardiac failure)
Death

181
Q

What is the prognosis for Stroke?

A

10% mortality in first month
Up to 50% of those who survive remain dependent
10%have a recurrence in 1 year
Generally, poorer for haemorrhage than for ischameic.

182
Q

What is a Subarachnoid Haemorrhage?

A

Arterial bleeding into the subarachnoid space and is a medical emergency

183
Q

What is the aetiology of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage?

A

Rupture of an intracranial saccular aneurysm is the leading cause of non-traumatic SAH, accounting for approximately 80% of cases (usually at Circle of Willis)

The remaining 20% are attributed to non-aneurysmal perimesencephalic SAH, arteriovenous malformations, arterial dissections, use of anticoagulants, drug abuse (e.g. cocaine, amphetamines) and other rare conditions

184
Q

What is the epidemiology of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage?

A

Peak age of incidence in the fifth decade

3% of all cases of Stroke

185
Q

What are the risk factors/associations of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage?

A
Hypertension
Smoking
Excess alcohol intake
Saccular aneurysms are associated with:
-polycystic kidney disease
Marfan’s syndrome
-pseudoxanthoma elasticum (genetic disease that causes mineralization of elastic fibers in some tissues, can cause premature atherosclerosis)
-Ehlers–Danlos syndrome (connective tissue disorder)
186
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage?

A
Sudden onset severe headache (classically described ‘as 'THUNDERCLAP HEADACHE')
Nausea and vomiting
Neck stiffness
Photophobia
Reduced level of consciousness
187
Q

What are the signs of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage on physical examination?

A

Meningism:
-Neck stiffness
-Kernig’s sign (resistance or pain on knee extension when hip is flexed) because of irritation of the meninges by blood
-Pyrexia
Reduced GCS
Signs of increased intracranial pressure:
-Papilloedema
-IV or III cranial nerve palsy, ophthalmoplegia
-Hypertension and bradycardia.
Fundoscopy:
-Rarely subhyaloid haemorrhage (between retina and vitreous membrane)
Focal neurological signs:
Usually develop on second day and are caused by ischaemia from vasospasm and reduced brain perfusion

188
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Subarachnoid Haemorrhage?

A

*Order an emergency non-contrast CT head in all patients presenting with acute sudden, severe headache (thunderclap headache)- standard diagnostic test:
-Hyperdense areas in the basal regions of the skull (caused by blood in the subarachnoid space)
Bloods:
-FBC: Leukocytosis (cerebral vasospasm)
-U&E: Hyponatraemia is the most common electrolyte abnormality in SAH
-Troponin I: elevated during first 24h, associated with poorer outcomes
-Serum glucose: Hyperglycaemia develops in 1/3 of SAH
-clotting: coagulopathy may be present
ECG: arrhythmias, ischaemia
Angiography (CT or intra-arterial):
-To detect the source of bleeding if the patient is a
candidate for surgery or endovascular treatment
Lumbar puncture:
-Raised opening pressure, increased red cells, few white cells, xanthochromia (straw-coloured CSF, bloody CSF) because of breakdown of Hb, confirmed by spectrophotometry of CSF

189
Q

What is a Subdural haemorrhage?

A

A collection of blood that develops between the dural and arachnoid coverings of the brain
Acute: Within 72 h
Subacute: 3–20 days
Chronic: After 3 weeks

190
Q

What is the aetiology of a Subdural haemorrhage?

A

The primary aetiology of both acute and chronic subdural haematomas is trauma
-results in shearing forces which tear veins (‘bridging veins’) that travel from the dura to the cortex
Less commonly, subdural haematomas are associated with rupture of a cerebral aneurysm or vascular malformation
In children, non-accidental injury should always be considered

191
Q

What is the epidemiology of Subdural haemorrhages?

A

Acute: Tend to occur in younger patients/associated with major trauma (5–25% of cases of severe head injury)
More common than extradural haemorrhage
Chronic: More common in elderly, studies report incidence of 1–5 per 100 000

192
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of a Subdural haemorrhage?

A
Acute: 
-History of trauma with head injury
-Patient has reduced conscious level
Subacute: 
-Worsening headaches 7–14 days after injury, altered mental status
Chronic: 
-Can present with:
headache
confusion
cognitive impairment
psychiatric symptoms
gait deterioration
focal weakness
seizures
*There may not be a history of fall or trauma; hence have low index of suspicion especially in the elderly and alcoholics
193
Q

What are the signs of a Subdural haemorrhage on physical examination?

A

Acute:
-Reduced GCS
-With large haematomas resulting in midline shift, an ipsilateral fixed dilated pupil may be seen (compression of the ipsilateral third nerve parasympathetic fibres)
-Pressure on brainstem: reduced consciousness, bradycardia
Chronic:
-Neurological examination may be normal
-There may be focal neurological signs (III or VI nerve dysfunction, papilloedema, hemiparesis or reflex asymmetry)

194
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for a Subdural haemorrhage?

A

*Non-contrast CT scan: ‘lemon’ shaped (crescent) mass, concave over brain surface
-CT appearance changes with time
-Acute subdurals are hyperdense, becoming isodense over 1–3 weeks (such that presence may be inferred from signs such as effacement of sulci, midline shift, ventricular compression and obliteration of basal cisterns)
-Chronic subdurals are hypodense (approaching that of CSF)
MRI-brain: Has higher sensitivity especially for isodense or small SDHs
Plain x-ray: skull fracture

195
Q

What is the management for Subdural haemorrhages?

A

Acute:
ALS protocol with priorities of cervical spine control and ABC (head injury has a significant risk of cervical spine injury)
Disability: GCS, pupillary reactivity
Antiplatelet or anticoagulant agent stopped and/or reversed
If signs of raised ICP, head elevation and consider osmotic diuresis with mannitol and/or hyperventilation
Once stabilised, obtain CT-head

Conservative:
Especially if small and minimal midline shift (SDH<10mm thickness, and midline shift <5 mm)

Surgical:
Prompt Burr hole or craniotomy and evacuation for symptomatic subdurals >10 mm, with >5 mm midline shift (better outcome if within 4 h)
ICP monitoring devices may be placed

Chronic:

  • If symptomatic or there is mass effect on imaging, surgical treatment with Burr hole or craniotomy and drainage (a drain may be left in for 24–72 h)
  • Asymptomatic SDH without significant mass effect is best managed conservatively with serial imaging to monitor for spontaneous resorption
  • Haematomas that have not fully liquefied may require craniotomy with membranectomy

Children: Younger children may be treated by percutaneous aspiration via an open fontanelle or if this fails, placement of a subdural to peritoneal shunt

196
Q

What are the complications of a Subdural haemorrhage?

A

Raised ICP
Cerebral oedema pre-disposing to secondary ischaemic brain damage
Mass effect (transtentorial or uncal herniation)

Post-op:

  • Seizures are relatively common
  • Recurrence (Up to 33% for SDH)
  • Intracerebral haemorrhage
  • Subdural empyema: a collection of pus, in the subdural space
  • Brain abscess or meningitis
  • Tension pneumocephalus: life threatening neurosurgical emergency, subdural air causes a mass-effect over the underlying brain parenchyma
197
Q

What is the prognosis for a Subdural haemorrhage?

A

Acute: Underlying brain injury is the most important factor on outcome
Chronic: Generally have a better outcome than acute SDHs, reflecting lower incidence of underlying brain injury, with good outcomes in 3/4 of those treated by surgery

198
Q

What is a Tension Headache?

A

Can be either episodic or chronic
They are rarely disabling or associated with any significant autonomic phenomena and so patients do not usually seek medical care and usually successfully self-treat

199
Q

What is the aetiology of a Tension Headache?

A

Muscle contraction is often considered the cause of pain in tension headaches
Psychological stress is the most common trigger
-Extended periods of mental tension or psychological stress may play a role in central sensitisation and the development of chronic tension headache
Other associated factors:
-Disturbed sleep patterns can result in episodic tension headaches
-Insomnia and other sleep disorders can result in chronic tension headaches

200
Q

What is the epidemiology of Tension Headaches?

A

Probably the most common type of headache
In adults, the mean global prevalence of tension-type headache is 42%
Most common between the ages of 20 to 39 years and then decline
Patients either do not need treatment or they successfully self-treat and are therefore less likely to mention these headaches than patients with migraine

201
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Tension Headaches?

A
Generalised head pain: BILATERAL
-pressure-like and non-throbbing pain
Frontal/occipital pain are common areas
Non-pulsatile pain
Constricting pain: expressed as tight band around head
202
Q

What are the signs of Tension Headaches on physical examination?

A

Normal neurological examination

Muscle tenderness: pericardial, trapezius, temporalis, sternocleidomastoid, later ptyergoid, masseter

203
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Tension Headaches?

A

Clinical diagnosis: typical headache without associated features (nausea, vomiting), normal neurological examination

For progressing headaches:

  • CT sinus: exclude sphenoid sinusitis
  • MRI brain: exclude tumour
  • Lumbar puncture: exclude infective causes (e.g. brain abscess, meningitis, encephalitis), sinus venous thrombosis
204
Q

What is the management for Tension Headaches?

A

Episodic headaches: simple analgesics, such as paracetamol, ibuprofen, or aspirin
[risk of transformation into chronic headache ‘medicine-overuse syndrome’ (also termed ‘analgesic rebound’)]

Chronic headaches-Preventive:

  • Used when patients experience greater than 7 to 9 headache days per month
  • tricyclic antidepressants (amitriptyline) may reduce the frequency and intensity of attacks
Non-drug treatment:
Relaxation training
Electromyographic biofeedback
Cognitive behavioural therapy
Myofascial trigger point-focused massage
205
Q

What are the complications of Tension Headaches?

A

Peptic ulcer: occurs secondary to NSAID use

206
Q

What is the prognosis for Tension Headaches?

A

Self-treatment with simple analgesic medicine is usually effective

207
Q

What are Transient ischaemic attacks (TIA)?

A

A transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischaemia, without acute infarction (fully resolve)

208
Q

What is the aetiology of Transient ischaemic attacks (TIA)?

A
  1. 29%: Cardioembolic events
    - Intracardiac thrombus may form in response to some secondary risk factor such as stasis from impaired ejection fraction or atrial fibrillation
    - The precipitating factor may be thrombogenic within the heart such as an infectious vegetation or artificial valve
  2. 16%: in situ thrombosis of an intracranial artery or artery-to-artery embolism of thrombus as a result of stenosis or unstable atherosclerotic plaque
  3. 16%: Small-vessel occlusion
    - Microatheromas, fibrinoid necrosis, and lipohyalinosis of small penetrating vessels are seen
    - Hypertension and diabetes predispose to small ischaemic lesions
    - Because these may occur in the brainstem and internal capsule, a small lesion can result in significant symptoms
  4. 3%: Occlusion due to hypercoagulability, dissection, vasculitis, vasospasm, or sickle cell occlusive disease
209
Q

What is the epidemiology of Transient ischaemic attacks (TIA)?

A

Stroke is a major health concern worldwide-accounts for 11% of all deaths in England and Wales
TIAs are more common in men, a large number of TIAs go unrecognised

210
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Transient ischaemic attacks (TIA)?

A
Sudden onset and brief duration of symptoms (majority will resolve within the first hour)
Unilateral symptoms:
-Weakness
-Sensory, visual or cognitive impairment
-Impaired coordination, or consciousness
PMH: cardiac disease/atherosclerosis
211
Q

What are the signs of Transient ischaemic attacks (TIA) on physical examination?

A
Unilateral weakness or sensory loss
Amaurosis fugax (cannot see out of one or both eyes due to a lack of blood flow to the eye(s)) or hemianopia
Aphasia- impairment of language
Cranial nerve defects
Vertigo
Incoordination, ataxia, or syncope
212
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Transient ischaemic attacks?

A

Bloods:
-Glucose: blood glucose <3.3 mmol/L (<60 mg/dL) suggests hypoglycaemia as mimic of TIA
-FBC: exclude infection
-U&Es: usually normal
-Lipid profile: should be started on statin therapy
ECG: AF may be present
MRI brain (with diffusion): localise infarct, suggest aetiology, and distinguish TIA from stroke, if unavailable Head CT
CT head: poor ability to rule in ischaemia in TIA or early stroke but has nearly 100% sensitivity in ruling out acute haemorrhage
ESR: rule out vasculitis such as temporal arteritis
Carotid doppler ultrasound: screening test for stenosis
Angiography(CT/MR): visualise stenosis

213
Q

What is the management for Transient ischaemic attacks?

A

Therapies to prevent second ischaemic events

  • Antiplatelet agents are primary therapy for atherosclerotic disease (arteries)
  • Anticoagulation is preferred for cardioembolic events (veins)

Aggressive risk-factor modification:

  • Statin therapy
  • Antihypertensive therapy
  • Lifestyle modification
  • Carotid endarterectomy or stenting
214
Q

What are the complications of Transient ischaemic attacks?

A

Stroke: The risk of stroke following TIA is considerably high due to unstable plaque, thrombus, or exposed thrombogenic surfaces
MI: less than that of a stroke, but still significant. This reflects common risk factors and also increased cardiovascular stress after intracranial events

215
Q

What is the prognosis for Transient ischaemic attacks?

A

The most significant risk to the patient is a second ischaemic event causing permanent disability (stroke)
TIA is also frequently indicative of underlying cardiac or atherosclerotic disease

216
Q

What is Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A

A facial pain syndrome in the distribution of ≥1 divisions of the trigeminal nerve

217
Q

What is the aetiology of Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A

Majority of patients (80-90%): trigeminal nerve compression
Other causes include:
-Demyelinating disease such as MS, demyelinating plaques in the pons that encompass the root entry zone of the trigeminal nerve
-Brainstem lesions: brainstem infarcts and amyloid or calcium deposition along the trigeminal sensory pathway

218
Q

What is the epidemiology of Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A

Incidence is 4 to 13 per 100,000 in the UK

Slight female predominance and rates appear to increase with age

219
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A

Facial pain: restriction to trigeminal distributions, bilateral is more common

  • Ophthalmic
  • Maxillary
  • Mandibular
220
Q

What are the signs of Trigeminal Neuralgia on physical examination?

A

Dermatomal pattern of pain of the trigeminal nerve

Sensory/motor changes: suggestive of pathological cause

221
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A

Usually clinical diagnosis

If examination is suggestive of pathology:

  • Intra oral x-ray: exclude dental cause of pain
  • MRI: may demonstrate presence of abnormal vessel loop in association with the trigeminal nerve, presence of other pathologies (e.g., tumour, infarct, multiple sclerosis plaque)
  • Trigeminal reflex testing: highly suggestive of symptomatic trigeminal neuralgia
222
Q

What is Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

A neurological emergency resulting from thiamine deficiency with varied neurocognitive manifestations, typically involving mental status changes and gait and oculomotor dysfunction

223
Q

What is the aetiology of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

An acute or sub-acute deficiency of thiamine in a susceptible person is the usual precipitant cause Thiamine deficiency could be a result of:

  • decreased intake (either oral or parenteral)
  • relative deficiency due to increased demand
  • malabsorption from the GI tract
224
Q

What is the epidemiology of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

The prevalence according to clinical studies is 0.04% to 0.13% -possible underdiagnosis of this condition
The prevalence is higher in patients with:
-Alcohol dependence (12.5%)
-AIDS (10%)
-Bone marrow transplantation (6%)
The prevalence is higher in males, with a male:female ratio of 1.7:1

225
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A
Cognitive dysfunction:
-Mental slowing
-Impaired concentration
-Apathy
-Frank confusion
-Mild irritability
-Delirium
Acute psychosis: may be the only presenting manifestation in some patients and is often confused with alcohol intoxication
Alcohol dependance
226
Q

What are the signs of Wernicke’s encephalopathy on physical examination?

A

Ocular motor findings: These include gaze palsies, sixth nerve palsies, and impaired vestibulo-ocular reflexes, and affect one third of patients
Confusion/delirium/psychosis

227
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Bloods:

  • FBC: an infection may trigger acute decompensation of thiamine deficiency
  • Glucose: usually normal unless there are co-existent conditions e.g. alcoholic liver disease, acute alcohol intoxication, sepsis
  • U&Es: normal at presentation, abnormal if not treated or in late-presenting disease due to hypotension and lactic acidosis may cause renal dysfunction
  • LFTs: elevated if patient has a history of chronic alcohol use
  • Ammonia: metabolic encephalopathy due to hyperammonaemia can easily mimic or be confused with Wernicke’s encephalopathy
  • Blood alcohol level: an elevated blood alcohol level may coexist with Wernicke’s encephalopathy
  • Blood thiamine (and its metabolites): low confirm the diagnosis

*Therapeutic trial of parenteral thiamine: clinical response seen in a few hours or days

MRI/CT/Lumbar puncture: exclude other pathologies: excluding meningitis, encephalitis, and subarachnoid haemorrhage. Thalamic lesions, involvement of the mammillary bodies