Endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

What is Acromegaly?

A

A chronic, progressive, multi-systemic disease associated with significant morbidity and increased mortality
It is caused by excessive secretion of growth hormone, usually due to a pituitary somatotroph adenoma
Gigantism occurs with disease onset in childhood (before puberty)

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2
Q

What is the aetiology of Acromegaly?

A

Due to a pituitary somatotroph adenoma in about 95% to 99% of cases
Prolactin is als secreted in 25% to 30% of cases

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3
Q

What is the epidemiology of Acromegaly?

A

Rare- annual incidence of five in 1 000 000

Age at diagnosis: 40–50 years

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4
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Acromegaly?

A

Very gradual progression of symptoms over many years (often only detectable on serial photographs)
Coarsening of facial features
Patients may complain of rings and shoes becoming tight
Increased sweating, headache, carpal tunnel syndrome
Symptoms of hypopituitarism:
-hypogonadism
-hypothyroidism
-hypoadrenalism)
Visual disturbances (caused by optic chiasm compression)
Hyperprolactinaemia (irregular periods, reduced libido, impotence)

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5
Q

What are the signs of Acromegaly on physical examination?

A

Hands:
-Enlarged spade-like hands with thick greasy skin
Signs of carpal tunnel syndrome
Pre-mature osteoarthritis (arthritis also affects other large joints, temporomandibular joint)
Face:
-Prominent eyebrow ridge (frontal bossing) and cheeks
-Broad nose bridge
-Prominent nasolabial folds
-Thick lips
-Increased gap between teeth
-Large tongue
-Prognathism: protrusion of the lower jaw
-Husky resonant voice (thickening vocal cords)
Visual field loss:
-Bitemporal superior quadrantanopia progressing to *bitemporal hemianopia (caused by pituitary tumour compressing the optic chiasm)
Neck: Multi-nodular goitre
Feet: Enlarged

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6
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Acromegaly?

A

Serum IGF-1: Useful screening test
-GH stimulates liver IGF-1 (insulin-like growth factor) secretion (IGF-1 varies with age of patient and increases during pregnancy and puberty)
*Oral glucose tolerance test:
Failure of suppression of GH after 75 g oral glucose load (false- positive results are seen in anorexia nervosa, Wilson’s disease, opiate addiction)
Pituitary function tests: (to test for hypopituitarism)
-9 a.m. cortisol
-Free T4 and TSH
-LH and FSH
-Testosterone (in men)
-Prolactin
MRI of the brain:
To image the pituitary tumour and effect on the optic chiasm

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7
Q

What is the management for Acromegaly?

A

*Surgical: Trans-sphenoidal hypophysectomy is the only curative treatment
Radiotherapy: Adjunctive treatment to surgery
Medical: If surgery is contra-indicated or refused:
-SC somatostatin analogues (octreotide, lanreotide)
-Side-effects: abdominal pain, steatorrhoea glucose intolerance, gallstones, irritation at the injection site
-Oral dopamine agonists (bromocriptine, cabergoline) for high prolactin
-Side-effects: nausea, vomiting, constipation, postural hypotension (increase dose gradually and take it during meals), psychosis (rare)
-GH antagonist (pegvisomant)
Monitor:
-GH and IGF1 levels can be used to monitor disease control
-Pituitary function tests, echocardiography, regular colonoscopy and blood glucose

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8
Q

What are the complications of Acromegaly?

A
CVS: Cardiomyopathy, hypertension
Respiratory: Obstructive sleep apnoea
Gl: Colonic polyps
Reproductive: Hyperprolactinaemia (30%) therefore GnH suppression
Metabolic: 
-Hypercalcaemia
-Hyperphosphataemia
-Renal stones
-Diabetes mellitus
-Hypertriglyceridaemia
-Osteoarticular complications: articular cartilage hypertrophy, bone enlargement
Psychological: 
-Depression
-Psychosis (resulting from dopamine agonist therapy) Complications of surgery: 
-Nasoseptal perforation
-Hypopituitarism
-Adenoma recurrence
-CSF leak,
-Infection (meninges, sphenoid sinus)
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9
Q

What is the prognosis for Acromegaly?

A

Associated with serious complications and premature death
Prognosis has improved due to modern surgical and pharmacological treatment, with early diagnosis and treatment, although physical changes are irreversible

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10
Q

What is adrenal insufficiency?

A

Deficiency of adrenal cortical hormones (mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids and androgens)

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11
Q

What is the aetiology / risk factors of adrenal insufficiency?

A

Primary (Addison’s disease): Autoimmune (>70%)
Secondary: Pituitary or hypothalamic disease.

Surgical: After bilateral adrenalectomy.
Medical: (iatrogenic) sudden cessation of long-term steroid therapy

4Is:

  1. Infections: Tuberculosis, meningococcal septicaemia (Waterhouse–Friderichsen syndrome), Cytomegalovirus (HIV patients)
  2. Infiltration: Metastasis (lung, breast, melanoma), lymphomas, amyloidosis
  3. Infarction: Secondary to thrombophilia
  4. Inherited: Adrenoleukodystrophy 1, ACTH receptor mutation
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12
Q

What is the epidemiology of adrenal insufficiency?

A

Most common cause is iatrogenic. Primary causes are rare

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13
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of adrenal insufficiency?

A

Chronic presentation:
Non-specific vague symptoms such as dizziness, anorexia, weight loss, diarrhoea, vomiting, abdominal pain, lethargy, weakness, depression

Acute presentation: (Addisonian crisis)
Acute adrenal insufficiency with major haemody-
namic collapse often precipitated by stress (e.g. infection or surgery)

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14
Q

What are the signs of adrenal insufficiency on physical examination?

A

Postural hypotension
Increased pigmentation: Generalised but more noticeable on buccal mucosa, scars, skin creases, nails, pressure points (resulting from melanocytes being stimulated by increased ACTH levels)
Loss of body hair in women (androgen deficiency)
Associated autoimmune conditions: e.g. vitiligo

Addisonian crisis: Hypotensive shock, tachycardia, pale, cold, clammy, oliguria

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15
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for adrenal insufficiency? Interpret the results

A

Confirm the diagnosis:

9a. m. serum cortisol <100nmol/L is diagnostic of adrenal insufficiency.
- If 9 a.m. cortisol > 550 nmol/L: adrenal insufficiency is unlikely.
- Patients with 9 a.m. cortisol of between 100 and 550 nmol/L should have a short ACTH stimulation test (short SynACTHen test)
- Serum cortisol <550 nmol/L at 30 min indicates adrenal failure (primary)

Addisonian crisis:
Bloods- Haematology (FBC for neutrophilic, ESR for infection), Biochemistry (U&Es for raised urea and potassium, low sodium, CRP for infection), Microbiology (blood cultures)
Urine- MCS

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16
Q

What is the management for addisonian crisis?

A
  • Rapid IV fluid rehydration (0.9% saline, 1 L over 30–60 min, 2–4 L in 12–24 h)
  • 50ml of 50 % dextrose to correct hypoglycaemia.
  • IV 200 mg hydrocortisone bolus followed by 100 mg 6 hourly (until BP is stable).
  • Treat the precipitating cause (e.g. antibiotics for infection)
  • Monitor temperature, pulse, respiratory rate, BP, sat O2 and urine output.
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17
Q

What is the management plan for adrenal insufficiency?

A

Chronic:
Replacement of glucocorticoids with hydrocortisone (three times/day) and mineralocorticoids with fludrocortisone
Hydrocortisone dosage needs to be increased during acute illness or stress
If associated with hypothyroidism, give hydrocortisone before thyroxine (to avoid precipitating an Addisonian crisis)

Advice: Steroid warning card, Medic-alert bracelet, emergency hydrocortisone ampoule, patient education

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18
Q

What are the possible complications of adrenal insufficiency?

A

Hyperkalaemia

Death during an Addisonian crisis

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19
Q

What is the prognosis for patients with adrenal insufficiency?

A

Adrenal function rarely recovers, but normal life expectancy can be expected if treated

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20
Q

What is Carcinoid Syndrome?

A

Constellation of symptoms caused by systemic release of serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) and other vasoactive peptides from a carcinoid tumour

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21
Q

What is a Carcinoid tumour?

A

A slow growing type of neuroendocrine tumour originating in the cells of the neuroendocrine system, but can metastasise
Can be classified into fore-, mid- or hindgut tumours

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22
Q

What is the aetiology of Carcinoid Syndrome?

A

Carcinoid tumours are slow-growing neuroendocrine tumours mostly derived from serotonin-producing enterochromaffin cells
They produce secretory products such as serotonin, histamine, tachykinins, kallikrein and prostaglandin
75–80% of patients with the carcinoid syndrome have small bowel carcinoids
Common sites for carcinoid tumours include appendix and rectum, where they are often benign and non-secretory
Hormones released into the portal circulation are metabolized in the liver and so symptoms typically do not appear until there are hepatic metastases (resulting in the secretion of tumour products into the hepatic veins)
Symptoms can also appear when hormones are released into the systemic circulation from bronchial or extensive retroperitoneal tumours

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23
Q

What is the epidemiology of Carcinoid Syndrome?

A

RARE, asymptomatic carcinoid tumours are more common and may be an incidental finding after rectal biopsy or appendectomy
10% of patients with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 1 have carcinoid tumours

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24
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Carcinoid Syndrome?

A
Diarrhoea 
Paroxysmal flushing
Palpitations
Abdominal cramps
Wheeze
Sweating
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25
Q

What are the signs of Carcinoid Syndrome on physical examination?

A
Facial flushing
Telangiectasia
Wheeze
Right-sided heart murmurs: 
-Tricuspid stenosis, regurgitation or pulmonary stenosis Nodular hepatomegaly in cases of metastatic disease
Carcinoid crisis: 
-Profound flushing
-Bronchospasm
-Tachycardia 
-Fluctuating blood pressure
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26
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Carcinoid Syndrome?

A

24-h urine collection:
-5-HIAA levels (a metabolite of serotonin, false positive with high intake of certain fruit/drugs e.g. bananas and avocados, caffeine, paracetamol)
Bloods:
-Plasma chromogranin A and B, fasting gut hormones: elevated
-Metabolic profile: elevated creatinine if dehydrated from diarrhoea
-LFTs: changes depending on location of tumour/presence of metastases
CT or MRI scan: To localise the primary tumour and detect live metastases (routine every 4-6 months)
Endoscopy/bronchoscopy: localise tumour
Radioisotope scan:
-Radiolabelled somatostatin analogue (e.g. indium-111 octreotide) helps localize tumour

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27
Q

What is Cushing’s syndrome?

A

The clinical manifestation of pathological hypercortisolism (chronic inappropriate elevation of free circulating cortisol) from any cause

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28
Q

What is the aetiology of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Exogenous corticosteroid exposure is the most common cause

Endogenous:
ACTH-dependent (80%):
-Excess ACTH secreted from a pituitary adenoma: Cushing’’s disease (80%).
-ACTH secreted from an ectopic source, e.g. small-cell lung carcinomas, pulmonary carcinoid tumours (20%)

ACTH-independent (20%):

  • Excess cortisol secreted from a benign adrenal adenoma (60%)
  • RARE: 1% of Cushing’s syndrome cases are caused by adrenal carcinoma
  • BUT of this 1%, adrenal overproduction of cortisol is seen in 30% to 40% of adrenal carcinomas
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29
Q

What is the epidemiology of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Cushing’s syndrome is relatively uncommon in the general population
Exogenous Cushing’s syndrome is the most common cause
Endogenous Cushing’’s syndrome is more common in females (x4)
Peak incidence is 20–40 years, although it can occur at any age

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30
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Increasing weight and fatigue
Muscle weakness
Myalgia
Thin skin
Easy bruising
Poor wound healing
Fractures (resulting from osteoporosis)
Hirsutism
Acne
Frontal balding
Oligo- or amenorrhoea
Depression or psychosis

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31
Q

What are the signs of Cushing’s syndrome on physical examination?

A

Specific features:

  • Facial plethora: increased perfusion, redness, one of the earliest features of Cushing’s syndrome
  • Proximal muscle weakness
  • Bruises

Other signs:

  • Facial fullness
  • Interscapular fat pad
  • Thin skin
  • Central obesity
  • Pink/purple striae on abdomen, breast, thighs
  • Kyphosis (due to vertebral fracture)
  • Poorly healing wounds
  • Hirsutism, acne, frontal balding.
  • Hypertension
  • Ankle oedema (salt and water retention as a result of mineralocorticoid effect of excess cortisol)
  • Pigmentation in ACTH-dependent cases
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32
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Initial high-sensitivity tests:

  • Urinary free cortisol (two or three 24 h urine collections) -Late-night salivary cortisol
  • Overnight dexamethasone suppression test
  • Low dose dexamethasone suppression test, involves giving 0.5mg dexamethasone orally every 6h for 48h
  • In Cushing’s syndrome, serum cortisol measured 48 h after the first dose of dexamethasone fails to suppress below 50 nmol/L (morning cortisol)

Tests to determine the underlying cause:
-ACTH-independent (adrenal adenoma/carcinoma): low Plasma ACTH, CT or MRI of adrenals
-ACTH-dependent (pituitary adenoma): High Plasma ACTH, Pituitary MRI. High-dose dexamethasone suppression test (DOES NOT SUPPRESS)
?Inferior petrosal sinus sampling: Central: peripheral ratio of venous ACTH > 2:1 (or >3:1 after CRH administration) in Cushing’s disease

ACTH-dependent (ectopic):

  • If lung cancer is suspected: CXR, sputum cytology, bronchoscopy, CT scan
  • Radiolabelled octreotide scans to detect carcinoid tumours as they express somatostatin receptors.

Others:

  • Urine pregnancy test
  • Serum glucose: elevated, Cushing’s syndrome commonly leads to diabetes and glucose intolerance
  • Non-specific changes include hypokalaemia (particularly in ectopic Cushing’s)
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33
Q

What is the management of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

In iatrogenic cases, discontinue administration, lower steroid dose or use an alternative steroid-sparing agent if possible

Medical:

  • Pre-operative or if unfit for surgery
  • Inhibition of cortisol synthesis with metyrapone (competitive inhibitor of 11β-hydroxylation in the adrenal cortex inhibiting cortisol production) or ketoconazole (potent inhibitor of cortisol and aldosterone synthesis)
  • Treat osteoporosis and provide physiotherapy for muscle weakness

Surgical:
-Pituitary adenomas(Cushing’s disease): Trans-sphenoidal adenoma resection (hydrocortisone replaced until
pituitary function recovers)
-Adrenal adenoma/carcinoma: Surgical removal of tumour (plus adjuvant therapy with mitotane for adrenal carcinoma)

Ectopic ACTH production: Treatment is directed at the tumour.

*In refractory cases of Cushing’s disease, bilateral adrenalectomy may be performed

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34
Q

What are the complications for Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Diabetes
Osteoporosis
Hypertension
Pre-disposition to infections
Adrenal insufficiency secondary to adrenal suppression
Complications of surgery:
-CSF leakage, meningitis, sphenoid sinusitis, hypopituitarism
Complications of radiotherapy:
Hypopituitarism, radionecrosis, small increased risk of second intracranial tumours and stroke
Bilateral adrenalectomy may rarely be complicated by development of Nelson’s syndrome
(locally aggressive pituitary tumour causing skin pigmentation due to excessive ACTH secretion)

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35
Q

What is the prognosis of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

In the untreated, 5-year survival rate is 50%, mortality is mainly from cardiovascular disease
Depression usually persists for many years following successful treatment

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36
Q

What is Diabetes Insipidus?

A

A disorder of inadequate secretion of or insensitivity to vasopressin (ADH) leading to hypotonic polyuria (production of large quantities of dilute urine)

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37
Q

What is the aetiology of Diabetes Insipidus?

A

DI may be central in origin, resulting from an absolute or relative deficiency of vasopressin (ADH); or it may be nephrogenic in origin, resulting from a renal insensitivity or resistance of the collecting duct to vasopressin
Both mechanisms result in the failure of activation of Water channels (aquaporins) and the luminal membrane of the collecting duct remains impermeable to water
This results in large volume hypotonic urine and polydipsia

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38
Q

What are the causes of Centra/Cranial Diabetes Insipidus?

A
Idiopathic
*Tumours (e.g. pituitary tumours)
Infilitrative (e.g. sarcoidosis)
Infection (e.g. meningitis)
Vascular (e.g. aneurysms, Sheehan syndrome) 
Trauma (e.g. head injury, neurosurgery)
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39
Q

What are the causes of Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus?

A
Idiopathic
*Drugs (e.g. lithium)
Post-obstructive uropathy 
Pyelonephritis
Pregnancy
Osmotic diuresis (e.g. diabetes mellitus)
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40
Q

What is the epidemiology of Diabetes Insipidus?

A

DI is uncommon

No differences in prevalence between sexes or among ethnic groups but median age of onset is 24 years

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41
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Diabetes Insipidus?

A

Polyuria
Nocturia
Polydipsia (excessive thirst)
Enuresis (involuntary urination) and sleep disturbances in children

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42
Q

What are the signs of Diabetes Insipidus on physical examination?

A

Cranial diabetes insipidus has few signs if patients drink adequate fluids
Urine output is often >3 L/24 h
If fluid intake < fluid output, signs of dehydration may be present (e.g. tachycardia, reduced tissue turgor, postural hypotension, dry mucous membranes)
Signs of the cause (e.g. visual field defect bitemporal hemianopia from pituitary tumour)

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43
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Diabetes Insipidus?

A

Blood:
-U&Es: HIGH Plasma osmolality LOW Urine osmolality

Water deprivation test:
-Water is restricted for 8 h
Plasma and urine osmolality are measured every hour over the 8 h
Weigh the patient (hourly) to monitor the level of dehydration; stop the test if the fall in body weight is >3%
Desmopressin (2 mg IM) is given after 8 h and urine osmolality is measured

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44
Q

What are the findings of the water deprivation test for Diabetes Insipidus?

A

Normal:
-Water restriction causes a rise in plasma osmolality and increase in ADH secretion
This leads to increased water reabsorption in the collecting ducts
Urine is concentrated: (Urine osmolality > 600 mosmol/kg)

Diabetes Insipidus:

  • Lack of ADH activity means that urine is unable to be concentrated by the collecting ducts
  • (Urine osmolality < 400 mosmol/kg)
  • Cranial: Urine osmolality rises by >50%, following administration of desmopressin (due to deficiency in vasopressin)
  • Nephrogenic: Urine osmolality rises by <45%, following administration of desmopressin (resistance to vasopressin)
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45
Q

What is the management of Diabetes Insipidus?

A

Treat the identified cause if possible
Cranial diabetes insipidus:
-Desmopressin (DDAVP), a vasopressin analogue, can be given 10 mg/day, intranasally (parenteral DDAVP is 5 to 20 times more potent)
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus:
-Sodium and/or protein restriction may help polyuria
-Thiazide diuretics

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46
Q

What are the complications of Diabetes Insipidus?

A

Hypernatraemic dehydration:
-Mild to moderate hypernatraemia may present with irritability, restlessness, lethargy, muscle twitching, spasticity, or hyper-reflexia
-Severe hypernatraemia may present with delirium, seizures, or coma
Excess desmopressin therapy may cause hyponatraemia.

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47
Q

What is the prognosis of Diabetes Insipidus?

A

Variable depending on cause
While DI is often a lifelong condition cranial DI may be transient following head trauma
Cure of cranial or nephrogenic diabetes insipidus may be possible on removal of cause, e.g. tumour resection, drug discontinuation

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48
Q

What is Diabetes Mellitus?

A

A common chronic syndrome of impaired carbohydrate, protein, and fat metabolism owing to insufficient secretion of insulin and/or target-tissue insulin resistance

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49
Q

What is Diabetes Mellitus- Type 1?

A

A metabolic disorder characterised by hyperglycaemia due to absolute insulin deficiency
The condition develops due to destruction of pancreatic beta cells, mostly by immune-mediated mechanisms

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50
Q

What is the aetiology of Diabetes Mellitus- Type 1?

A

Caused by destruction of the pancreatic insulin-producing b-cells, resulting in absolute insulin deficiency The b -cell destruction is caused by an autoimmune process in 90% of patients
Likely to occur in genetically susceptible patients and is probably triggered by environmental agents

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51
Q

What is the epidemiology of Diabetes Mellitus- Type 1?

A

Type 1 diabetes accounts for about 5% to 10% of all patients with diabetes
It is the most commonly diagnosed diabetes of youth (under 20 years of age) and is one of the most common chronic diseases in childhood
HLA DR3 and 4 carry a significant link

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52
Q

What are the presenting symptoms and signs of Diabetes Mellitus- Type 1 on physical examination?

A

*Often of juvenile onset (<30 years)
Polyuria/nocturia
Polydipsia (thirst)
Non-specific symptoms: tiredness, weight loss
Symptoms of complications e.g. Diabetic ketoacidosis:
-Nausea and vomiting
-Abdominal pain
-Drowsiness, confusion, coma
-Kussmaul breathing (deep and rapid)
-Ketotic breath
-Signs of dehydration (e.g. dry mucous membranes, reduced tissue turgor)
Signs of complications e.g. diabetic retinopathy, neuropathy

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53
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Diabetes Mellitus- Type 1?

A

*Blood glucose:
-Fasting blood glucose >7mmol/L
-Random blood glucose >11 mmol/L
*Two positive results are needed before diagnosis
Others:
HbA1C: Estimates overall blood glucose levels in past 2–3 months
-FBC, U&Es: Monitor for nephropathy and hyperkalaemia caused by ACE inhibitors
-Lipid profile
-Urine albumin creatinine ratio (to detect microalbuminuria- nephropathy)
-Urine: Glycosuria, elevated ketones, MSU (microscopy, culture)
-CXR: To exclude any infection.
-ECG: To look for acute ischaemic changes

Patients presenting with suspected DKA:
-Bloods: FBC (raised WCC even without infection), U&Es (raised urea and creatinine from dehydration), LFT, CRP, glucose, amylase, blood cultures, ABG (metabolic acidosis with high anion gap), blood/urinary ketones

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54
Q

What is the management for Diabetes Mellitus- Type 1?

A

In the short term, insulin is life-saving because it prevents diabetic ketoacidosis
The long-term goal of insulin treatment is the prevention of chronic complications by maintaining blood glucose levels as close to normal as possible

Monitoring: control of symptoms (e.g. thirst, tiredness), regular finger prick tests by the patient, monitoring HbA1c levels (target <7%) every 3–6 months

Good glycaemic control in type 1 diabetes requires attention to diet, exercise, and insulin therapy-all three components should be co-ordinated for ideal control with Diabetes nurse specialists and dietitians
*Self-monitoring of blood glucose (SMBG) is a core component of good glycaemic control

Insulin:
SC insulin: Short- acting insulin (e.g. Lispro, aspart, glulisine) three times daily before each meal and one long-acting insulin (isophane, glargine, detemir) injection once daily
Injection sites should be rotated
Insulin pumps may give slightly better glycaemic control

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55
Q

What is the management of hypoglycaemia in Diabetes Mellitus -Type 1?

A

If reduced consciousness:
-50 ml of 50% glucose IV or 1 mg glucagon IM
If conscious and cooperative:
-50 g oral glucose (e.g. in the form of Lucozade! , milk,
sugar or 3 dextrose tablets)
-Followed with a starchy snack
Should not drive for 45 min
*Screening and management cardiovascular risk factors

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56
Q

What are the possible complications of Diabetes Mellitus -Type 1?

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis, may be precipitated by infection or errors in management
Microvascular: Retinopathy, nephropathy, neuropathy
Macrovascular: Peripheral vascular disease, ischaemic heart disease, stroke/TIA. Susceptible to infections (especially on feet)
Complications of insulin treatment: Weight gain, fat hypertrophy at insulin injection sites

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57
Q

What are the features of hypoglycaemia in Diabetes Mellitus -Type 1?

A
  • Caused my missing a meal or overdosage of insulin Meuroglycopenic and adrenergic signs:
  • Personality change
  • Fits, confusion, coma
  • Pallor
  • Sweating
  • Tremor, tachycardia, palpitations
  • Dizziness
  • Hunger
  • Focal neurological symptoms
  • Hypoglycaemic symptoms may be masked by autonomic neuropathy, b-blockers and brain adapting to recurrent episodes
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58
Q

What is the prognosis of Diabetes Mellitus -Type 1?

A

Depends on early diagnosis, good glycaemic control and compliance with screening and treatment
Vascular disease and renal failure are major causes of increased morbidity and mortality

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59
Q

What is Diabetes Mellitus- Type 2?

A

A progressive disorder defined by increased peripheral resistance to insulin action, impaired insulin secretion and increased hepatic glucose output

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60
Q

What is the aetiology of Diabetes Mellitus- Type 2?

A

Often presents on a background genetic predisposition (HLA DR3/4) and is characterised by insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency
Insulin resistance is aggravated by ageing, physical inactivity, and overweight (BMI 25-29.9 kg/m²) or obesity (BMI >30 kg/m²)

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61
Q

What is the epidemiology of Diabetes Mellitus- Type 2?

A

Prevalence in the UK: 5–10%
People of Asian, African and Hispanic descent are at greater risk
The incidence has increased in parallel with increased prevalence of obesity ad being overweight worldwide

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62
Q

What are the risk factors for Diabetes Mellitus- Type 2?

A
Obesity/overweight
Older age
Gestational diabetes (50% of women will go on to develop DM within 10 years of delivery)
*Significant genetic link (HLA DR3/4)
Physical inactivity
Polycystic ovary syndrome
Hypertension
Dyslipidaemia
Cardiovascular disease
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63
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Diabetes Mellitus- Type 2?

A

May be incidental finding due to being asymptomatic
Polyuria
Polydypsia
Tiredness
Patients may present with hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state (also known as hyperosmolar non-ketotic state) Infections (infected foot ulcers, candidiasis, balanitis or pruritus vulvae)
Assess for other cardiovascular risk factors: e.g. hypertension, hyperlipidaemia and smoking

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64
Q

What are the signs of Diabetes Mellitus- Type 2 on physical examination?

A

BMI: weight(kg)/ height(m)2), waist circumference
Hypertension
Look for signs of complications (retinopathy, nephropathy, neuropathy)
Diabetic foot:
-Both ischaemic and neuropathic signs
-Dry skin, reduced subcutaneous tissue, corns and calluses, ulceration, gangrene
-Signs of peripheral neuropathy: foot pulses are diminished in ischaemic foot
-Skin changes (rare)

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65
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Diabetes Mellitus- Type 2?

A

Diabetes mellitus is diagnosed if one or more of the following are present:
-Symptoms of diabetes and a random plasma glucose 􏰂11.1 mmol/L.
-Fasting plasma glucose 􏰂7.0 mmol/L (after an overnight fast of at least 8 h).
-Two-hour plasma glucose 􏰂11.1 mmol/L after a 75 g oral glucose tolerance test
Monitor:
-HbA1C: 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or greater
-U&Es, lipid profile, estimated glomerular filtration rate (GFR) using the MDRD calculator
-Spot urine albumin: Creatinine ratio (to detect microalbuminuria)

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66
Q

What is MODY?

A

Mature onset diabetes of the young: a rare cause of type 2 diabetes due to mutations transmitted in an autosomal dominant manner

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67
Q

What is the management of Diabetes Mellitus- Type 2?

A

FIRST: lifestyle modifications (diet and exercise) and Metformin
If HbA1C ≥ 7% after 3 months:
2. Lifestyle + metformin + sulphonylurea*
If HbA1C ≥ 7% after 3 months:
3. Lifestyle + metformin + basal insulin
If HbA1C≥7% after 3 months and fasting blood glucose >7mmol/L:
4. Add premeal rapid-acting insulin

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68
Q

What are the medical therapies for Diabetes Mellitus- Type 2 and how do they work?

A
Metformin: 
-Biguanide, Insulin sensitiser
-Inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis, hence GI side effects
Sulphonylureas:
-e.g. gliclazide
-block ATP-sensitive K+ channels in b cells, stimulating insulin release
Acarbose:
-Alpha glucosidase inhibitor
-Prolongs absorption of oligosaccharides
-Allows insulin secretion to cope
Thiazolidinediones:
-e.g. Pioglitazone
-Insulin sensitizer, mainly peripheral
Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1):
-Secreted in response to nutrients in gut
-Stimulates insulin, suppresses glucagon
-Increases satiety
-Restores B cell glucose sensitivity
Gliptins:
-Given alongside GLP-1 to increase half life
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69
Q

What is Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state?

A

This is due to insulin deficiency, as diabetic ketoacidosis, but patients are usually old and may be presenting for the first time
History is longer (e.g. 1 week)
There is marked dehydration, high Na + , high glucose (>35 mmol/ L), high osmolality (>340 mosmol/kg), no acidosis

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70
Q

What are the microvascular complications of Diabetes Mellitus?

A

Neuropathy:
-Distal symmetrical sensory neuropathy
-Painful neuropathy
-Carpal tunnel syndrome
-Diabetic amyotrophy (asymmetrical wasting of proximal muscle)
-Mononeuritis (e.g. III nerve palsy with preservation of pupillary response, VI nerve)
-Autonomic neuropathy (e.g. postural hypotension), gastroparesis (abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting), impotence, urinary retention
Nephropathy:
-Microalbuminuria, proteinuria and, eventually, renal failure
-Prone to UTIs and renal papillary necrosis
Retinopathy:
-Background: Dot and blot haemorrhages, hard exudates
-Pre-proliferative: Cotton wool spots, venous beading
-Proliferative: New vessels on the disc and elsewhere
-Maculopathy: Macular oedema, exudates within 1 disc diameter of the centre of fovea, haemorrhage
-Also prone to glaucoma, cataracts, transient visual loss

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71
Q

What are the macrovascular complications of Diabetes Mellitus?

A

Ischaemic heart disease
Stroke
Peripheral vascular disease

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72
Q

What is the prognosis of Diabetes Mellitus- Type 2?

A
Diabetes increases the likelihood of major cardiovascular events and death, but the increased risk is variable across patients depending on:
-age at diabetes onset
-duration of diabetes
-glucose control
-blood pressure control
-lipid control
-tobacco control
-renal function*
-microvascular complication status
Mortality can be attenuated by cardiovascular risk factor control
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73
Q

What is Diabetic Ketoacidosis?

A

An acute metabolic complication of diabetes that is potentially fatal and requires prompt medical attention for successful treatment
It is characterised by absolute insulin deficiency and is the most common acute hyperglycaemic complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus

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74
Q

What is the aetiology of Diabetic Ketoacidosis?

A

Reduced Insulin and increased counter-regulatory hormones result in increased hepatic gluconeogenesis and reduced peripheral glucose utilization. Renal reabsorptive capacity of glucose is exceeded causing glycosuria, osmotic diuresis and dehydration. Increased lipolysis leads to ketogenesis and metabolic acidosis

The two most common precipitating events are:

  • Infection
  • Discontinuation of, or inadequate, insulin therapy

Underlying medical conditions, such as myocardial infarction or pancreatitis, that provoke the release of counter-regulatory hormones are also likely to result in DKA in patients with diabetes

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75
Q

What is the epidemiology of Diabetic Ketoacidosis?

A

The incidence of hospital admissions for DKA among adults with Type 1 AND type 2 diabetes mellitus has increased

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76
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Diabetic Ketoacidosis?

A
PMH of DM
Nausea and vomiting 
Abdominal pain 
Dehydrated 
Hyperventilation 
Acetone smell on breath 
Confusion
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77
Q

What are the signs of Diabetic Ketoacidosis on physical examination?

A
Signs of dehydration:
-Dry mucous membranes 
-Decreased skin turgor or skin wrinkling 
-Slow capillary refill 
-Tachycardia with a weak pulse 
-Hypotension 
Polyuria 
Polydipsia 
Kussmaul breathing (deep and rapid) 
Ketotic breath 
Coma
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78
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Diabetic Ketoacidosis?

A

Venous blood gas:
-Metabolic acidosis (pH can determine the severity of DKA)
-pH ≥7.0 indicates mild or moderate DKA
-pH <7.0 indicates severe DKA (critical care)
-Hyperkalaemia is common
-Plasma osmolality is high (>320 mmol/kg) in DKA and is an indication of dehydration
Blood ketones: ketonaemia (ketones ≥3.0 mmol/L)
Blood glucose: hyperglycaemia (blood glucose >11.1 mmol/L)
U&Es: Hyponatraemia and Hyperkalaemia are common in DKA, but hypokalaemia is an indicator of severe
FBC: Leukocytosis is common in DKA and correlates with blood ketone levels
Urinalysis: ketones, leukocytes
ECG: look for cardiac precipitates for DKA such as MI (and check cardiac enzymes)
Pregnancy test
Amylase and lipase: for pancreatitis
Creatinine kinase: elevated with rhabdomyolysis (breakdown of damaged skeletal muscle)
CXR: if low oxygen sats
Blood cultures: if infection suspected

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79
Q

What is the management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis?

A

URGENT: Start intravenous fluids as soon as DKA is confirmed (fluid bolus of 500 mL of normal saline), repeat if SBP remains low (<90mmHg)
Start a fixed-rate intravenous insulin infusion
Ensure continuous cardiac monitoring
Identify and treat any precipitating acute illness e.g. MI, sepsis, pancreatitis

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80
Q

What are the complications of Diabetic Ketoacidosis?

A

Cerebral oedema/brain injury most common cause of mortality in DKA
Arterial or venous thromboembolic events: Standard prophylactic low-dose heparin
SE of high insulin dose therapy: hypokalaemia, hypoglycaemia
Pulmonary oedema/ARDS: rare but significant complications of treatment for DKA (fluid overload)

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81
Q

What is the prognosis for Diabetic Ketoacidosis?

A

Improved understanding of the pathophysiology of DKA, together with close monitoring and correction of electrolytes, has resulted in a significant reduction in the overall mortality rate from this life-threatening condition
Death is rarely caused by the metabolic complications of hyperglycaemia or ketoacidosis but rather relates to the underlying illness
*The prognosis is substantially worsened at the extremes of age and in the presence of coma and hypotension

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82
Q

What is Dyslipidaemia?

A

Dyslipidaemia is classified as serum Total cholesterol, LDL-C, triglycerides, apolipoprotein B, or lipoprotein(a) concentrations above the 90th percentile for the general population

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83
Q

What is the aetiology of Dyslipidaemia?

A

Primary causes: due to single or multiple gene mutations, resulting in a disturbance of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and triglyceride production or clearance - most commonly seen in children and young adults
Secondary causes: caused by lifestyle factors or disorders that interfere with blood lipid levels over time such as obesity, chronic renal insufficiency, abdominal obesity, diabetes mellitus and hypothyroidism

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84
Q

What is the epidemiology of Dyslipidaemia?

A

Common, particularly in developing countries
Strong correlation between body mass index and coronary heart disease
Primary causes are common in children and young adults whereas secondary is seen more in adults

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85
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Dyslipidaemia?

A

Excess body weight
PMH Diabetes Mellitus Type 2 or cardiovascular disease
Consumption of saturated fats
FH of early onset of coronary heart disease or Dyslipidaemia

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86
Q

What are the signs of Dyslipidaemia on physical examination?

A

Xanthelasmas: Yellow plaques that occur most commonly near the inner canthus of the eyelid
Tendinous xanthomas: Slowly enlarging subcutaneous nodules (on tendons or ligaments)

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87
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Dyslipidaemia?

A

Lipid profile:
-total cholesterol (TC) >5.18 mmol/L (>200 mg/dL)
-LDL-cholesterol >2.59 mmol/L (>100 mg/dL)
-triglycerides >1.7 mmol/L (>150 mg/dL)
Fasting (12h) triglycerides: ≥2.3 mmol/L (200 mg/dL)
Thyroid stimulating hormone: elevated in primary hypothyroidism
Lipoprotein (a): values >50 mg/dL or >125 nmol/L are considered high

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88
Q

What is the management of Dyslipidaemia?

A

Combination of lifestyle changes to diet and exercise, medications, and dietary supplements

Lifestyle changes: dietary reduction in total and saturated fat, weight loss in overweight patients, aerobic exercise

Drug therapy: Statins inhibit 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase, a key enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, which leads to up-regulation of LDL receptors and increased LDL clearance

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89
Q

What are the complications of Dyslipidaemia?

A
Atherosclerosis:
Ischaemic heart disease 
Peripheral vascular disease 
Acute coronary syndrome 
Stroke 
Erectile dysfunction (endothelial dysfunction)
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90
Q

What is the prognosis of Dyslipidaemia?

A

The rate of adverse outcomes has been significantly reduced with the use of statins
Useful in the rid reduction of coronary heart disease

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91
Q

What is Hypertriglyceridaemia?

A

Having a fasting plasma triglyceride level of ≥2.3 mmol/L (≥200 mg/dL)

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92
Q

What is an exclusive sign of Hypertriglyceridaemia on physical examination?

A

Eruptive xanthomas: Small yellowish papules, frequently surrounded by an erythematous base, that appear predominantly on the buttocks, elbows, and other pressure-sensitive areas

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93
Q

What is Graves’ Disease?

A

An autoimmune thyroid condition associated with hyperthyroidism caused by TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) receptor antibodies

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94
Q

What is the aetiology of Graves’ Disease?

A

Graves’ disease is an autoimmune condition

The aetiology of thyroid hormone overproduction is stimulation of the thyroid by TSH receptor antibodies

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95
Q

What is the epidemiology of Graves’ Disease?

A

Graves’ disease is the most common form of hyperthyroidism in most areas of the world (other cause is toxic multinodular goitre)

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96
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Graves’ Disease?

A
Features of hyperthyroidism:
-Heat intolerance 
-Palpitations 
-Sweating
-Weight loss
-Tremor
Neck lump
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97
Q

What are the signs of Graves’ Disease on physical examination?

A

*Diffuse goitre (smooth)
Tremor
Exophthalmos - bulging of the eye anteriorly
The presence of upper eyelid retraction with thyroid dysfunction, exophthalmos/optic neuropathy, and/or extraocular muscle involvement is diagnostic of Graves’ orbitopathy (25% of patients)
Menstrual disturbances e.g. oligomenorrhoea

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98
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Graves’ Disease?

A

Thyroid function tests:
-Suppressed/low TSH
-Serum free/total T3 or T4: elevated
Calculation of T3/T4 ratio: high compared to in thyroiditis
Radioactive iodine uptake test: elevated
Thyroid isotope scan: diffuse uptake (rather than patchy in multi nodular goitre)
TSH receptor antibodies: POSITIVE
Colour-flow Doppler Ultrasound: may help to distinguish Graves’ from painless thyroiditis; highly vascular; diffuse; enlarged thyroid
Others:
-CT/MRI of orbit: may show muscle thickening
-Skin biopsy: may confirm thyroid dermopathy

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99
Q

What is Hyperparathyroidism?

A

Primary: Increased secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) unrelated to the plasma calcium concentration
Secondary: Increased secretion of PTH secondary to hypocalcaemia
Tertiary: Autonomous PTH secretion following chronic secondary hyperparathyroidism

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100
Q

What is the aetiology of Hyperparathyroidism?

A

Primary:
-Parathyroid gland adenoma(s) (80%)or hyperplasia (18% hyperplasia/multiple adenomas)
-Rarely, parathyroid carcinoma (2%)
-May be associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN)
Secondary:
-Chronic renal failure
-Vitamin D deficiency

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101
Q

What is the epidemiology of Hyperparathyroidism?

A

Primary: relatively common disorder, annual incidence is five in 100,000
Twice as common in females
Peak incidence 40–60 years
*Vitamin D deficiency is the most common cause of elevated serum parathyroid hormone levels

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102
Q

What are the presenting symptoms and signs of Hyperparathyroidism on physical examination?

A

Primary: Many patients have mild hypercalcaemia and are asymptomatic

Secondary: May present with symptoms and signs of hypocalcaemia and/ or the underlying cause (chronic renal failure, vitamin D deficiency)

103
Q

What are the features of Hypercalcaemia in Primary Hyperparathyroidism?

A
Polyuria
Polydipsia
Renal calculi
Bone pain
Abdominal pain
Nausea
Constipation
Psychological depression 
Lethargy
104
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Hyperparathyroidism?

A

*Serum calcium:
High in primary and tertiary
Low/normal in secondary
*Serum phosphate:
Low in primary and tertiary
High in secondary
PTH levels:
-High
-Patients with parathyroid carcinomas are more likely to have a marked hypercalcaemia with very high serum PTH levels
25-hydroxyvitamin D level: may be low
Serum alkaline phosphatase: may be raised due to bone disease
24h Urine Calcium: high or normal in PHPT; low in familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia
Dual energy x-ray absorpitometry (DXA): Once diagnosis of PHPT is confirmed, a DXA scan should be completed to assess progression of disease in 3 sites: lumbar spine, hip, and forearm
Ultrasonography/CT neck: for planning of surgery

105
Q

What is the management of Hyperparathyroidism?

A

Primary: Parathyroid surgery is the definitive treatment
It is indicated for all symptomatic patients, and is recommended for many asymptomatic patients
Secondary: treat the underlying renal failure. Calcium and vitamin D supplements

Acute hypercalcaemia:
-IV fluids (often 4–6 in the first 24 h)
Conservative management:
-Avoid factors that can exacerbate hypercalcaemia including thiazide diuretics
-Maintain adequate hydration (at least 6–8 glasses of water per day), moderate calcium and vitamin D intake.

106
Q

What is the suitability criteria for surgery for Primary Hyperparathyroidism?

A
Symptomatic patients 
Or asymptomatic patients with:
Age <50 years
Bone mineral density: T-score <2.5
Calculi (renal stones)
Creatinine clearance reduced by 30%
Difficult to do follow up periodically
Elevated serum calcium >0.25 mmol/L above upper limit of normal or 24-h urinary calcium >10 mmol
107
Q

What are the complications of Hyperparathyroidism?

A

Primary: Increased PTH results in increased bone resorption and increased renal tubular calcium reabsorption, 1a- hydroxylation of vitamin D and intestinal calcium absorption, leading to hypercalcaemia

Secondary: Increased stimulation of osteoclasts and bone turnover leading to ‘osteitis fibrosa cystica’

Complications of surgery: Hypocalcaemia, recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy (<1%)

108
Q

What is the prognosis of Hyperparathyroidism?

A

Primary: Surgery is curative for benign disease in most cases
Secondary or tertiary: prognosis for chronic kidney disease- progressive and will eventually lead to end-stage renal disease (ESRD) and the need for renal replacement therapy (i.e., dialysis, transplant)

109
Q

What is Female Hypogonadism?

A

Characterized by impairment of ovarian function

110
Q

What is the aetiology of Female Hypogonadism?

A

Primary hypogonadism (hypergonadotrophic):

  • Gonadal dysgensis: Chromosomal abnormalities (e.g. Turner’s syndrome), FMR1 gene pre-mutation carriers
  • Gonadal damage: Autoimmune, iatrogenic (chemotherapy, radiation, surgery)

Secondary hypogonadism (hypogonadotrophic):

  • Functional: Stress, weight loss, excessive exercise, eating disorders (anorexia nervosa, bulimia)
  • Pituitary/hypothalamic tumours and infiltrative lesions: Pituitary adenomas, craniopharyngiomas, haemochromatosis
  • Hyperprolactinaemia: Prolactinomas or tumours causing pituitary stalk compression
  • Congenital GnRH deficiency: Kallmann’s syndrome, idiopathic
111
Q

What is the epidemiology of Female Hypogonadism?

A

Secondary hypogonadism is a more common cause of anovulation and amenorrhoea than primary hypogonadism
Turner’s syndrome occurs in up to 1.5% of conceptions,

112
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Female Hypogonadism?

A

Symptoms of oestrogen deficiency:
-Night sweats
-Hot flush
-Vaginal dryness and dyspareunia (painful intercourse)
-Reduced libido
-Infertility
Symptoms of the underlying cause e.g. prolactinomas

113
Q

What are the signs of Female Hypogonadism? on physical examination?

A
Pre-pubertal hypogonadism:
-Delayed puberty (primary amenorrhoea, absent breast development, no secondary sexual characteristics)
Eunuchoid proportions (e.g. long legs, increased arm span for height)

Post-pubertal hypogonadism:
-Regression of secondary sexual characteristics (loss of secondary sexual hair, breast atrophy)
-Perioral and periorbital fine facial wrinkles
-Signs of the underlying cause/associated conditions:
~Hypothalamic/pituitary disease: Visual field defects (bitemporal hemianopia)
~Kallmann’s syndrome: Anosmia
~Turner’s syndrome: Short stature, low posterior hairline, high arched palate, widely spaced nipples, wide carrying angle, short fourth and fifth metacarpals, congenital lymphoedema
-Patients with autoimmune primary ovarian failure: Signs of other autoimmune diseases e.g. hyperpigmentation in Addison’s disease or vitiligo

114
Q

What are the appropriate investigations in Female Hypogonadism?

A

Serum oestradiol: LOW
Serum FSH and LH:
-HIGH in primary hypogonadism (due to -ve feedback inhibition by ovarian oestradiol and inhibin).
-LOW or inappropriately normal FSH/LH in secondary hypogonadism

Investigating aetiology:
Primary:
-Genetic testing/ Karyotype

Secondary:

  • Pituitary function tests (9 a.m. cortisol, TFTs, prolactin)
  • Visual field testing
  • Hypothalamic-pituitary MRI
  • Smell tests for anosmia
  • Serum transferrin saturation if hereditary haemochromatosis is suspected
115
Q

What is Male Hypogonadism?

A

A syndrome of reduced testosterone production, sperm production or both

116
Q

What is the aetiology of Male Hypogonadism?

A

Primary (hypergonadotrophic) hypogonadism:

  • Gonadal dysgensis: Klinefelter’s syndrome (XXY), undescended testes (cryptorchidism)
  • Gonadal damage: Infection (e.g. mumps), torsion, trauma, autoimmune, iatrogenic (chemotherapy, surgery, radiation)
  • Rare causes: Defects in enzymes involved in testosterone synthesis, myotonic dystrophy

Secondary (hypogonadotrophic) hypogonadism:

  • Pituitary/hypothalamic lesions
  • GnRH deficiency: Kallmann’s syndrome (associated with anosmia)
  • Idiopathic Hyperprolactinaemia
  • Systemic/chronic diseases
  • Rare causes: Genetic mutations

*Secondary hypogonadism may be seen in a number of rare syndromes:
-Prader–Willi syndrome: Loss of a critical region on chromosome 15 causing obesity and short
stature, small hands, almond-shaped eyes, learning difficulty/postnatal hypotonia

117
Q

What is the epidemiology of Male Hypogonadism?

A

The prevalence of hypogonadism increases with age
Primary hypogonadism accounts for 30–40% of cases of male infertility; secondary hypogonadism accounts for 1–2%
Most common cause of primary hypogonadism is Klinefelter’s syndrome

118
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Male Hypogonadism?

A

Delayed puberty (if the onset is before puberty)
Reduced libido, impotence, infertility
Symptoms of the underlying cause:
-e.g. Klinefelter’s syndrome: intellectual dysfunction and
behavioural abnormalities which cause difficulty in social interactions

119
Q

What are the signs of Male Hypogonadism on physical examination?

A

Measure testicular volume: normal adult testicular volume is 15–25 ml

Prepubertal hypogonadism:

  • Signs of delayed puberty (high-pitched voice, lack of pubic/axillary/facial hair, small or undescended testes, small phallus), gynaecomastia, eunuchoid proportions: arm span>height, lower segment > upper segment (due to delayed fusion of the epiphyses and continued growth of long bones)
  • Features of the underlying cause e.g. cryptorchidism, anosmia in Kallmann’s syndrome

Postpubertal hypogonadism:

  • Lack of Pubic/axillary/facial hair
  • Soft and small testes
  • Gynaecomastia
  • Fine perioral wrinkles
  • Features of the underlying cause e.g. visual field defects due to a pituitary tumour, signs of systemic/chronic illness
120
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Male Hypogonadism?

A

Serum total testosterone:
-Check between 6 a.m. and 8 a.m. ideally
-less than 10.4 nanomol/L (<300 nanograms/dL) is generally accepted as indicating hypogonadism
Results:
-Primary: LOW Testosterone, HIGH LH and FSH (due to -ve negative feedback)
-Secondary: LOW Testosterone, LOW or inappropriately normal LH and FSH levels

Primary: Karyotype
Secondary: Pituitary function tests (9 a.m. cortisol, TFTs, prolactin), MRI of the hypothalamic- pituitary area, visual field testing, smell tests for anosmia. Iron studies (ferritin and transferrin saturation) if hereditary haemochromatosis is suspected

121
Q

What is Hypopituitarism?

A

Deficiency of one or more of the hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary
Panhypopituitarism is deficiency of all pituitary hormones

122
Q

What are the anterior pituitary hormones?

A

GH
FSH/LH
Prolactin
ACTH
TSH

123
Q

What are the posterior pituitary hormones?

A

Vasopressin

Oxytocin

124
Q

What is the aetiology of Hypopituitarism?

A

Pituitary masses: Most commonly adenomas. Other parapituitary tumours or cysts
Pituitary trauma: Radiation, surgery or skull base fracture Hypothalamus (functional): Anorexia, starvation, over-exercise
Infiltration: Tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, haemochromatosis
Vascular: Pituitary apoplexy (bleeding into or impaired blood supply of the pituitary gland), Sheehan’s syndrome
Infection: Meningitis, encephalitis, syphilis (rare), fungal abscess
Genetic mutations: Pit-1 and Prop-1 genes

125
Q

What is the epidemiology of Hypopituitarism?

A

Hypopituitarism is relatively rare

Annual incidence of pituitary adenomas is 􏰀1 in 100,000

126
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Hypopituitarism?

A

Symptoms or signs depending on aetiology (e.g. bitemporal hemianopia caused by a pituitary mass)
Symptoms and signs according to type of hormone deficiency
*Pituitary apoplexy: Life-threatening hypopituitarism with headache, visual loss and cranial nerve palsies

127
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of GH deficiency in Hypopituitarism?

A

Children:

-Short stature (

128
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of LH or FSH deficiency in Hypopituitarism?

A
Delayed puberty
Females: 
-Loss of secondary sexual hair
-Breast atrophy
-Menstrual irregularities
-Dyspareunia
-Reduced libido
-Infertility
Males: 
-Loss of secondary sexual hair
-Gynaecomastia
-Small or soft testes
-Reduced libido
-Impotence
129
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of ACTH deficiency in Hypopituitarism?

A

Chronic presentation:
Non-specific vague symptoms such as dizziness, anorexia, weight loss, diarrhoea, vomiting, abdominal pain, lethargy, weakness, depression

Acute presentation: (Addisonian crisis)
Acute adrenal insufficiency with major haemody-
namic collapse often precipitated by stress (e.g. infection or surgery)
Hypotensive shock, tachycardia, pale, cold, clammy, oliguria

130
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of TSH deficiency in Hypopituitarism?

A

Hypothyroidism:

  • Cold intolerance
  • Weight gain
131
Q

What is Sheehan’s syndrome?

A

Pituitary infarction, haemorrhage and necrosis following post-partum haemorrhage

132
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Hypopituitarism?

A

Pituitary function tests:

  • Basal tests: 9 a.m. cortisol, LH, FSH, testosterone, oestradiol, IGF-1, prolactin, free T4 and TSH
  • Dynamic tests (rarely performed)

Short Synacthen test: Serum cortisol <550 nmol/L at 30 min indicates adrenal failure (primary)
MRI or CT of brain: pituitary masses, vascular lesions
Visual field testing

133
Q

What is the management of Hypopituitarism?

A

Hormone replacement:
-Hydrocortisone: 20 mg in morning, 10 mg in evening (double oral dose for febrile illnesses, IM
hydrocortisone at times of surgery)
-*Should be provided with Medicalert bracelet and
steroid card
-Levothyroxine: 􏰀100 mg daily (always taken after hydrocortisone to avoid Addisonian crisis)
-Sex hormones: Testosterone in males. Oestrogen and progestogerone in females
-Growth hormone: SC 1.2 unit/day in adults, Children require specialist supervision

*Posterior pituitary deficiency (damaged to pituitary stalk): Desmopressin (vasopressin analogue) 10–20 mg/day intranasally

134
Q

What are the complications of Hypopituitarism?

A

Adrenal crisis
Hypoglycaemia
Myxoedema coma: severe hypothyroidism leading to decreased mental status, hypothermia, and slowing of function in multiple organs- it is a medical emergency with a high mortality rate
Infertility
Osteoporosis; dwarfism (children)
Complications of the pituitary mass:
-Optic chiasm compression
-Hydrocephalus (third ventricular compression)
-Temporal lobe epilepsy

135
Q

What is the prognosis of Hypopituitarism?

A

Good with lifelong hormone replacement

136
Q

What is Hypothyroidism?

A

The clinical syndrome resulting from insufficient secretion of thyroid hormones

137
Q

What is the aetiology of Hypothyroidism?

A

Primary (reduced thyroid hormone production):
Acquired:
-Autoimmune (Hashimoto’s) thyroiditis (cellular and antibody-mediated)
-Iatrogenic (post-surgery, radioiodine, medication for hyperthyroidism)
-Severe iodine deficiency or iodine excess (Wolff–Chaikoff effect)
-Thyroiditis
Congenital:
-Thyroid dysgenesis
-Inherited defects in thyroid hormone biosynthesis

Secondary (<5% of cases):
Pituitary or hypothalamic disease (e.g. tumours) resulting in reduced TSH and reduced stimulation of thyroid hormone production

138
Q

What is the epidemiology of Hypothyroidism?

A

The frequency of hypothyroidism varies from 0.1 to 2% of adults
Females to Men ratio is 6:1
Age of onset commonly >40 years, but can occur at any age
Iodine deficiency is seen in mountainous areas (e.g. Alps, Himalayas)

139
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Hypothyroidism?

A
Onset is usually insidious.
Cold intolerance
Lethargy
Weight gain
Constipation
Dry skin
Hair loss
Hoarse voice
Mental slowness
Depression
Dementia
Cramps
Ataxia
Paraesthesia
Menstrual disturbances (irregular cycles, menorrhagia) in females
*Personal or family history of other autoimmune conditions e.g. Addison’s disease, type 1 DM, pernicious anaemia and pre-mature ovarian failure
140
Q

What are the features of Myxoedema coma in Hypothyroidism?

A
Severe hypothyroidism usually seen in the elderly): Hypothermia
Hypoventilation
Hyponatraemia
Heart failure
Confusion 
Coma
141
Q

What are the signs of Hypothyroidism on physical examination?

A

Hands: Bradycardia, cold hands
Head/Neck/Skin:
-Pale puffy face
-Goitre
-Oedema
-Hair loss
-Dry skin
-Vitiligo
Chest: Pericardial or pleural effusions
Abdomen: Ascites
Neurological: Slow relaxation of reflexes, signs of carpal tunnel syndrome

142
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Hypothyroidism?

A

Thyroid function tests:
LOW T4/T3 and HIGH TSH (due to reduced negative feedback)
Secondary: LOW T3/T4 and LOW or inappropriately normal TSH

Others:
FBC: Normocytic anaemia (non-specific)
U&amp;Es:  May show low Na+
Cholesterol: May be high
In suspected secondary cases: Pituitary function tests, pituitary MRI and visual field testing
143
Q

What is the management of Hypothyroidism?

A

Levothyroxine (25–200 mg/day)
Rule out underlying adrenal insufficiency and treat before starting thyroid hormone replacement to avoid Addisonian crisis
Adjust dosage depending on TFT and clinical picture (monitor at 6 weeks)
In patients with ischaemic heart disease, start at low dose (25 mg/day) and gradually increase at 6 week intervals if ischaemic symptoms do not deteriorate

144
Q

What is the management of Myxoedema coma in Hypothyroidism?

A

Oxygen
Rewarming
Rehydration
IV T4/T3
IV hydrocortisone (in case hypothyroidism is secondary to hypopituitarism)
Treat the underlying disorder e.g. infection

145
Q

What are the complications of Hypothyroidism?

A
Myxoedema coma
Mxoedema madness (psychosis with delusions and hallucinations or dementia) in severe hypothyroidism (may be seen in the elderly after starting levothyroxine treatment)
146
Q

What is the prognosis of Hypothyroidism?

A

Lifelong levothyroxine replacement therapy required

Myxoedema coma has a mortality of up to 80%

147
Q

What is Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN)?

A

Hereditary tumours of variable neoplastic patterns and characterised by the development of multiple endocrine tumours
Can be:
-Parathyroid adenomas
-Pituitary adenomas (which may be non-secretory or secretory)
-Enteropancreatic neuroendocrine tumours (which may affect the profiles of gastrin, insulin, glucagon, and/or vasoactive intestinal protein)
-Facial lipomas
-Medullary thyroid cancers
-Phaeochromocytomas

148
Q

What is the aetiology of Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN)?

A

MEN1 and MEN2 are caused by autosomal-dominant mutations that can be inherited or occur sporadically
MEN1 (mutation in menin gene on chromosome 11):
-Parathyroid adenoma or hyperplasia
-Pancreatic endocrine tumours
-Pituitary adenomas
MEN type 2 (mutation in RET gene on chromosome 10):
-Medullary thyroid carcinoma
-Phaeochromocytoma

149
Q

What is the epidemiology of Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN)?

A

MEN syndromes are relatively rare

At least 90% of patients develop primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT) by the age of 50 years with MEN1 syndromes

150
Q

What are the presenting symptoms and signs of both Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN1 and 2) on physical examination?

A
Young age
Positive FH
Clinical features of kidney stones
Weight changes
Hypertension
Abdominal pain
Altered bowel habit
Palpitations
Easy bruising/ slow wound healing
Anxiety
Confusion
Dehydration
Clinical features of Cushing's syndrome
151
Q

What are the presenting symptoms and signs of Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia 1 (MEN1) on physical examination?

A
Facial lesions (angiofibromas)
Irregular menses/ infertility/ erectile dysfunction
Visual changes
Clinical features of acromegaly 
Clinical features of thyrotoxicosis 
Heat intolerance
152
Q

What are the presenting symptoms and signs of Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia 2 (MEN2) on physical examination?

A

Episodic triad of sweating, palpitations and headaches
Palpable thyroid nodule (medullary thyroid cancer)
Unexplained flushing
GI bleeding
Hepatomegaly: if there are liver metastases

153
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN)?

A

MEN1:

  • Fasting serum gastrin: raised
  • Serum chromogranin A: raised
  • Serum prolactin: raised
  • Insulin-like Growth Factor 1 (IGF-1): raised
  • Serum T4 and TSH: low or elevated depending on the tumour and what it is secreting (T4 or TSH)
  • Chest CT/MRI: thymic or bronchopulmonary masses
  • Pituitary MRI: adenoma

MEN2:

  • Serum calcitonin: raised (medullary thyroid cancer)
  • Plasma metanephrines: elevated levels suggest phaeochromocytoma
  • 24h urine metanephrines and catecholamines

MEN1 and 2:

  • Serum PTH and calcium: suggest primary hyperparathyroidism due to parathyroid adenomas or hyperplasia
  • Overnight dexamethasone suppression test: Failure to suppress serum cortisol to <50 nanomol/L (<1.8 micrograms/dL) is suggestive of Cushing’s syndrome
  • Abdominal CT/MRI: adrenal or pancreatic masses
154
Q

What is Obesity?

A

Can be defined as a chronic adverse condition due to an excess amount of body fat

155
Q

What is the aetiology of Obesity?

A
Caused by calorie intake, over time, is greater than the calorie expenditure
Other factors: 
-Genetic predisposition
-Behavioural dynamics (portion sizes)
-Hormonal disturbances
-Cultural influences (diet)
156
Q

What is the epidemiology of Obesity?

A

WHO: worldwide prevalence of obesity (BMI ≥30 kg/m²) in adults ranges widely from <10% in many African and Southeast Asian countries, to between 20% and 40% in Europe and the Americas, and >40% in some Pacific islands

157
Q

What are the presenting symptoms/signs of Obesity?

A
Calculate BMI: (weight/height2)
-Height
-Weight
Waist circumference 
Co-morbidities such as type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease, hypertension, hyperlipidaemia
158
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Obesity?

A

*Clinical diagnosis
ECG: Routine screen for signs of heart disease if suspected
TFTs: Routine screen if hypothyroidism is suspected
Abdominal ultrasound: Routine screen for fatty liver, steatohepatitis

159
Q

What is Osteomalacia?

A

A metabolic bone disease characterised by incomplete mineralisation of the underlying mature organic bone matrix (osteoid) following growth plate closure in adults

160
Q

What is Rickets?

A

A disorder of defective mineralization of cartilage in the epiphyseal growth plates of children

161
Q

What is the aetiology of Osteomalacia?

A

Vitamin D deficiency is the primary cause of osteomalacia in the Western world, resulting from inadequate endogenous production of vitamin D3 in the skin, caused by:
-Lack of sunlight exposure
-Dietary deficiency
-Malabsorption (small bowel disease e.g.
coeliac disease/inflammatory bowel disease)
Other causes of Vitamin D deficiency include:
-Chronic kidney disease
-Hypoparathyroidism

162
Q

What is the epidemiology of Osteomalacia?

A

In US and Europe, more than 40% of the adult population older than age 50 years are vitamin D deficient, this being the most prominent cause of osteomalacia- the disease itself is relatively uncommon
More common in females

163
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Osteomalacia?

A
Osteomalacia: 
-Bone pain (especially axial skeleton)
-Weakness
-Malaise
Rickets: 
-Hypotonia
-Growth retardation
-Skeletal deformities
164
Q

What are the signs of Osteomalacia on physical examination?

A

Osteomalacia:

  • Bone tenderness
  • Proximal muscle weakness
  • Waddling gait

Signs of hypocalcaemia may be present:

  • Trousseau’s sign: Inflation of the sphygmomanometer cuff to above the systolic pressure for >3 min causes tetanic spasm of wrist and fingers.
  • Chvostek’s sign: Tapping over the facial nerve causes twitching of the ipsilateral facial muscles

Rickets:

  • Bossing of frontal and parietal bones- unusually prominent forehead
  • Swelling of costochondral junctions (upper ribs) (rickety rosary)
  • Bow legs in early childhood, ‘knock knees’ in later childhood
  • Short stature
165
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Osteomalacia?

A

Bloods:
-Serum Calcium: normal/low
-Serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D: LOW
-Serum phosphate: low
-PTH: High (in vitamin D deficiency, renal failure, and hypocalcaemia)
-Serum alkaline phosphatase: high
*24h Urine calcium: confirm diagnosis, low
Radiographs (Bone x-rays):
-Looser psudeofractures (Looser’s zones)
-Characteristic findings of long-standing secondary hyperparathyroidism; reversible with treatment of the underlying disorder
Dual energy x-ray absorpitometry: DXA reveals a low bone mass in both osteoporosis and osteomalacia
Bone biopsy with double tetracycline labelling:
-Definitive diagnostic test available; however, due to the invasive nature, it is rarely performed
-The distance between the bands of deposited tetracycline is reduced in osteomalacia

166
Q

What is the management of Osteomalacia?

A

Vitamin D and calcium replacement:

  • Typically, vitamin D supplementation leads to dramatic improvements in muscle strength and a reduction of bone tenderness within weeks of initiation
  • Monitor 24 h urinary calcium, serum calcium, phosphate, Alk Phos, PTH and vitamin D
  • Vitamin D dose may need to be increased in patients with malabsorption

Treat the underlying cause (e.g. advice on diet and sunlight exposure)
X-linked hypophosphataemia: Oral phosphate and 1,25 (OH)2 vitamin D

167
Q

What are the complications of Osteomalacia?

A

Bone deformities
Hypocalcaemia may cause epileptic seizures
Cardiac arrhythmias
Hypocalcaemic tetany: spasms of the hands and feet, cramps, spasm of the larynx and overactive neurological reflexes
Depression

168
Q

What is the prognosis of Osteomalacia?

A

Symptoms and radiological appearances improve with vitamin D treatment
Bone deformities in children tend to be permanent

169
Q

What is Osteoporosis?

A

A complex skeletal disease characterised by low/reduced bone density and micro-architectural defects in bone tissue, resulting in increased bone fragility and susceptibility to fracture

170
Q

What is reduced bone density defined as?

A

<2.5 standard deviations below peak bone mass achieved by healthy adults

171
Q

What is the aetiology of Osteoporosis?

A

Primary: Idiopathic (<50 years), post-menopausal
Secondary:
-Malignancy: Myeloma, metastatic carcinoma
-Endocrine: Cushing’s disease, thyrotoxicosis, primary hyperparathyroidism, hypogonadism
-Drugs: Corticosteroids, heparin
-Rheumatological: Rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis
-Gastrointestinal: Malabsorption syndromes (e.g. coeliac disease, partial gastrectomy), liver disease (primary biliary cirrhosis), anorexia

172
Q

What are the associated/risk factors for Osteoporosis?

A
Age
Family history
Low BMI
Low calcium intake
Smoking
Lack of physical exercise
Low exposure to sunlight
Alcohol abuse
Late menarche
Early menopause
Hypogonadism
173
Q

What is the epidemiology of Osteoporosis?

A

Most common chronic bone-remodelling disorder
Predominantly affects white postmenopausal women (> 50), but men, premenopausal women, and children of any ethnicity can develop this condition
More common in caucasians than in afro-carribeans
*Causes >200 000 fractures annually in UK (especially hip fractures)

174
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Osteoporosis?

A

Often asymptomatic until characteristic fractures occur:

  • Femoral neck fractures (commonly after minimal trauma)
  • Vertebral factures (loss of height or stooped posture or acute back pain after lifting)
  • Colles’ fracture of the distal radius after fall onto outstretched hand
175
Q

What are the signs of Osteoporosis on physical examination?

A

Often no signs until complications develop:

  • Tenderness on percussion (over vertebral fractures)
  • Thoracic kyphosis-roundback (if multiple vertebral fractures)
  • Severe pain with leg shortened and externally rotated (in a femoral neck fracture)
176
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Osteoporosis?

A

*Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry: DXA is considered the standard for measurement of bone density:
-T-score of ≤-2.5 indicates osteoporosis
-T-score ≤-2.5 with fragility fracture(s) indicates severe (or established) osteoporosis
X-ray: Usually to diagnose fractures when symptomatic, often normal (>30% loss in density before showing radiolucency, abnormal trabeculae or cortical thinning evident), biconcave vertebrae, crush fractures

Bloods:
-Biochemical markers of bone resorption and bone formation: elevated urinary deoxypyridinoline and N-telopeptides (predictor of bone fracture risk)
-Ca2+ , PO4 3-􏰆 and AlkPhos are normal in primary osteoporosis
Others:
Isotope bone scans: Can highlight stress or microfractures, but not commonly used
Quantitative ultrasound: QUS may be as predictive of hip fracture
Differentials:
-AlkPhos: if elevated could indicate osteomalacia
-Phosphate: low serum levels could indicate osteomalacia
-Serum calcium: hypocalcaemia could indicate osteomalacia, hypercalcaemia could indicate hyperparathyroidism
-25-hydroxyvitamin D: exclude Vit D deficiency
-PTH levels; may be elevated or normal
-TFTs: hyperthyroidism

177
Q

What is the T score in Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA)?

A

The number of standard deviations the bone mineral density measurement is above or below the young normal mean bone mineral density. T-score is used to define osteoporosis

The Z-score is the number of standard deviations the measurement is above or below the age-
matched mean bone mineral density. Z-score may be helpful in identifying patients who may need a work-up for secondary causes of osteoporosis

178
Q

What is Paget’s disease of bone?

A

Characterized by excessive bone remodelling at one (monostotic) or more (polyostotic) sites resulting in bone that is structurally disorganised

179
Q

What is the aetiology of Paget’s disease of bone?

A

Unknown
*Genetic factors and viral infection (such as measles) may play a role

  1. Excessive bone resorption by abnormally large osteoclasts is followed by increased bone formation by osteoblasts in a disorganised fashion
  2. This results in an abnormal (‘mosaic’) pattern of lamellar bone
  3. The marrow spaces are filled by an excess of fibrous tissue with a marked increase in blood vessels
180
Q

What is the epidemiology of Paget’s disease of bone?

A
It is the second most common chronic bone-remodelling disorder after osteoporosis
Common in older age
3% of all >50-year-olds
10% of all >80-year- olds
Men and women are equally affected
181
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Paget’s disease of bone?

A
May be asymptomatic
May present with insidious onset pain
Can be aggravated by weight bearing and movement (may be caused by Pagetic process, associated degenerative joint disease or stress fractures)
Headaches
Deafness
Increasing skull size
182
Q

What are the signs of Paget’s disease of bone on physical examination?

A

Bitemporal skull enlargement with frontal bossing
Spinal kyphosis
Anterolateral bowing of femur, tibia or forearm
Skin over involved bone may be warm (as a result of increased vascularity)
Sensorineural deafness (compression of vestibulocochlear nerve)

183
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Paget’s disease of bone?

A

*Plain X-rays:
-Classical appearance: lytic changes
-Enlarged, deformed bones with mixed lytic/sclerotic appearance
-Lack of distinction between cortex and medulla
-Skull: osteoporosis circumscripta, enlargement of frontal and occipital areas, associated with a ‘cotton wool’ appearance
Bone scan:
-Non-specific
-Areas of dense uptake in pagetoid bone (‘hot spots’)
Bloods:
-Raised AlkPhos (85% to 100%)
-Bone specific AlkPhos: more sensitive blood test for diagnosis (>40 international units/L)
-Markers of bone resorption: pro collagen 1 N-terminal Peptide and C terminal pro-peptide of type 1 collagen: initially raised
Others:
-CT/MRI: evaluation of atypical patients
-Bone biopsy: most sensitive and specific test for diagnosis however avoided in weight bearing long bones (femur) because of the risk of fracture in an already compromised bone: presence of osteoclasts with multiple nuclei; wide canaliculi with disorganised matrix in bone; a mosaic pattern of poorly organised lamellar bone

184
Q

What is a Phaeochromocytoma?

A

A catecholamine-producing tumour that usually arises from chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla but are extra-adrenal in about 10% of cases
10% are bilateral and 10% are malignant

185
Q

What is the aetiology of Phaeochromocytomas?

A

Most phaeochromocytomas are sporadic but may be familial in up to 30% of patients
Familial cases may be seen in patients with:
-multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2a (MEN2a)
-von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome: hereditary condition associated with tumors arising in multiple organs
-neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)
-mutations in the genes encoding subunits of the mitochondrial enzyme succinate dehydrogenase: SDHB, SDHD, SDHC

186
Q

What is the epidemiology of Phaeochromocytomas?

A

Phaeochromocytoma is a rare condition

<0.2% of hypertensive patients

187
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Phaeochromocytomas?

A

Paroxysmal episodes of headache, sweating:
Cardio/respiratory: Palpitations, chest pain, dyspnoea
GI: Epigastric pain, nausea, constipation
Neuro/psychiatric: Weakness, tremor, anxiety

188
Q

What are the signs of Phaeochromocytomas on physical examination?

A

Hypertension (50–70%):
-2/3 sustained
-1/3paroxysmal
Postural hypotension: Secondary to low plasma volume Others: Pallor, tachycardia, fever, weight loss

189
Q

What are the classical symptoms of a Phaeochromocytoma?

A

Headaches
Diaphoresis (sweating)
Palpitations in the setting of paroxysmal hypertension (episodic and volatile high blood pressure)

190
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Phaeochromocytomas?

A

*24h urine collection for catecholamines, metanephrines and creatinine: Elevated- most appropriate in patients with a low pre-test probability for a phaeochromocytoma and ideally collected during or immediately after a hypertensive crisis
*Plasma free metanephrines: In patients at high risk (sensitivity of 99%)
Plasma catecholamines: may be elevated, but are released episodically, unlike plasma metanephrines, which are released continually
Tumour localization: CT or MRI scan
Screen for associated conditions:
-MEN 2a: Serum calcium and calcitonin.
-VHL: Ophthlamoscopy, MRI posterior fossa and renal USS.
-NF 1: Clinical examination for neurofibromas, cafe-au-lait spots and axillary freckling
Genetic testing (and counselling): identify potential hereditary tumour disorders (up to 40%)

191
Q

What is Osteopenia?

A

When the bones are weak but are still strong enough that they wouldn’t break easily during a fall
Osteopenia is defined as a T-score between -􏰆1.0 and -􏰆2.5

192
Q

What is a non-functioning Pituitary tumour?

A

Pituitary adenomas that do not cause a characteristic hormone hypersecretion syndrome

193
Q

What is the aetiology of non-functioning Pituitary tumours?

A

Pituitary adenomas are monoclonal in origin, suggesting intrinsic genetic alterations as initiating events, but the exact aetiology is unknown
FH of multiple endocrine neoplasia type1 (MEN1) and Familial pituitary adenomas

194
Q

What is the epidemiology of non-functioning Pituitary tumours?

A

Pituitary adenomas are the third most common intracranial neoplasms (behind meningiomas and astrocytomas), accounting for about 10% of all intracranial tumours in adults
There is no known sex or racial difference in prevalence

195
Q

What are the presenting symptoms and signs of non-functioning Pituitary tumours on physical examination?

A
Symptoms are long standing and slow progressing
Headaches
Decreased visual acuity- bitemporal hemianopia
Adrenal insufficiency:
-Nausea and vomiting
-Weakness
-Anorexia
Hypogonadism: 
-Gynaecomastia
-Erectile dysfunction
-Amenorrhoea
-Infertility
-Breast atrophy
-Loss of libido
-Hot flushes
-Diaphoresis (sweating)
Hypothyroidism:
-Weight gain
-Cold intolerance 
-Fatigue 
-Constipation 
-Dry skin
-Hair loss
-Low mood
GH deficiency: 
-Similar to above plus increased central adiposity and reduced muscle mass
196
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for non-functioning Pituitary tumours?

A

*Prolactin levels: exclude prolactinomas
*Pituitary MRI with gadolinium enhancement:
-preferred over CT
-delineates the characteristics of the tumour including any invasion of cavernous sinuses and sphenoid sinus, in addition to chiasmal compression
Bloods to demonstrate hormone deficiency:
Insulin-like Growth Factor 1, LH and FSH, TSH, Cortisol, Testosterone, ACTH stimulation test, T4/T3, FBC (anaemia)- all either low or normal (or high if the it is a screwing tumour-unlikely)

197
Q

What is polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)?

A

A syndrome characterised by:
-oligomenorrhoea/amenorrhoea
-hyper-androgenism (clinical symptoms or biochemical)
Usually associated with: obesity, insulin resistance and an increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes

198
Q

What is the aetiology of PCOS?

A

Environmental factors:
related to diet and development of obesity
Genetic determinants:
genes regulating gonadotrophin, insulin and androgen synthesis, secretion and action, weight and energy regulation

199
Q

What are the risk factors for PCOS?

A

FHx of PCOS
Premature adrenarche
Weaker risk factors: obesity, low birth weight

200
Q

What is the epidemiology for PCOS?

A

PCOS is the most common cause of infertility in women
Affects 6–8% of women
Symptoms generally start at the age of puberty

201
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of PCOS?

A
Menstruation:
Irregularities (oligomenorrhoea or amenorrhoea) 
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding 
Infertility 
Hyperandrogenism: 
Hirsutism (male pattern hair growth) 
Male-pattern hair loss 
Acne
202
Q

What are the signs of PCOS on physical examination?

A
Hirsutism, male pattern hair loss and acne
Acanthosis nigricans (sign of severe insulin resistance-HYPERINSULINAEMIA): velvety thickening and hyperpigmentation of the skin of axillae or neck, more commonly seen in obese women
203
Q

What are the appropriate investigations in PCOS?

A

-Blood tests:
Raised LH levels
Raised LH: FSH ratio (>3)
Raised Testosterone, androstenedione and DHEA-S
Reduced sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG)
-Exclude other endocrine causes:
Serum prolactin (hyperprolactinaemia)
Thyroid function tests (hypo/hyperthyroidism)
17OH-progesterone (congenital adrenal hyperplasia), Cushing’s syndrome
Impaired glucose tolerance test/DM type 2: (fasting glucose, HbA1c)
-Transvaginal USS:
Twelve or more follicles in each ovary, measuring 2–9 mm and/or raised ovarian volume >10 mL (CYSTS)

204
Q

What are the values that diabetes can be defined at?

A

Fasting glucose > 7mmol/L

2 hour glucose tolerance > 11mmol/L

205
Q

What is Primary Hyperaldosteronism?

A

Characterized by autonomous aldosterone overproduction from the adrenal gland with subsequent suppression of plasma renin activity
Also known as Conn’s syndrome

206
Q

What is the aetiology of Primary Hyperaldosteronism?

A

Excess aldosterone may be secondary to an adrenal adenoma (Conn’s syndrome; 70%) or hyperplasia of the adrenal cortex (30%)

207
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Primary Hyperaldosteronism?

A

Excess aldosterone results in:

  1. Increased Na+ and water retention causing hypertension
  2. Increased renal K+ loss and hypokalaemia
  3. Suppression of renin because of NaCl retention
208
Q

What is the epidemiology of Primary Hyperaldosteronism?

A

The prevalence in hypertensive patients is 1–2%
Aldosterone producing adenoma (Conns) occurs more commonly in women and in younger patients (<50 years)
Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia occurs more commonly in men and usually presents at an older age

209
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Primary Hyperaldosteronism?

A

Usually asymptomatic and picked up on routine blood tests
Symptoms of hypokalaemia:
-Muscle weakness
-Polyuria and polydipsia (nephrogenic diabetes insipidus secondary to hypokalaemia)
-Paraesthesia
-Tetany

210
Q

What are the signs of Primary Hyperaldosteronism on physical examination?

A

Hypertension

Complications of hypertension (e.g. retinopathy)

211
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Primary Hyperaldosteronism?

A

1st line:

  • Plasma potassium: normal or low (20%), (<4mmol/L)
  • Serum sodium: usually normal (due to parallel increase in the water content of the blood)
  • Aldosterone/renin ratio: HIGH: Hypokalaemia should be corrected prior to the test and after stopping anti-hypertensives (6 weeks for spironolactone and 2 weeks for most other anti-hypertensives)

Others for confirmation:
*-Fludrocortisone suppression test: most reliable means of definitively confirming or excluding PA, failure to suppress plasma aldosterone
-Salt loading/saline infusion testing: Failure of aldosterone suppression following a sodium load (oral or IV 0.9% sodium chloride) confirms primary hyperaldosteronism
-Adrenal CT/MRI: detection of adrenal mass lesion, can miss smaller aldosterone-producing adenomas
-Bilateral adrenal vein catheterization: Allows distinction between Conn’s syndrome and bilateral adrenal hyperplasia by measuring adrenal vein aldosterone levels (adrenal venous sampling)
-Radio-labelled cholesterol scanning: Unilateral uptake in adrenal adenomas; bilateral uptake in bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
-Posture stimulation testing: Plasma aldosterone, renin activity and cortisol are measured with patient recumbent at 8 a.m. The tests are repeated after 4 h of being upright (at 12 noon)
In adenomas which are mostly ACTH-sensitive, aldosterone secretion decreases from 8 a.m. until 12 noon
In bilateral adrenal hyperplasia, adrenals respond to standing posture by increasing renin and
thus increasing aldosterone secretion
*This test has a 20% false negative rate

212
Q

What is the management for Primary Hyperaldosteronism?

A

Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia:

  • Spironolactone (an aldosterone receptor antagonist)
  • Change to eplerenone if side effects are intolerable (gynaecomastia, impotence, menstrual irregularities, muscle cramps and gastrointestinal upset)
  • Amiloride (a potassium-sparing diuretic) is alternative
  • Monitor serum potassium and creatinine, and BP
  • ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers may need to be added
  • It can take 4–8 weeks for the hypertension to respond to the treatments

Aldosterone producing adenomas:
-Uilateral adrenalectomy : Laparoscopic surgery is associated with reduced post-operative morbidity, hospital stay and expense compared with open

213
Q

What are the complications of Primary Hyperaldosteronism?

A

Complications of hypertension:

  • Heart failure
  • Coronary artery disease and MI
  • Cerebrovascular accident
  • Peripheral vascular disease
  • Thomboembolism
  • Retinopathy
  • Renal failure
214
Q

What is the prognosis for Primary Hyperaldosteronism?

A

Surgery may either cure hypertension (in about 50-60%) or make it more amenable to anti-hypertensive therapy in those who are not cured (usually the elderly or those with long-standing hypertension)

215
Q

What is a Prolactinoma?

A

Benign lactotroph adenomas expressing and secreting prolactin

216
Q

What is the aetiology of Prolactinoma?

A

Human pituitary adenomas, including prolactinomas, are monoclonal in origin
The majority of prolactinomas occur sporadically
A small percentage of patients may have multiple endocrine neoplasia syndrome type 1 (MEN-1) or familial isolated pituitary adenoma (FIPA)

217
Q

What is the epidemiology of Prolactinomas?

A

Prolactinomas are the most common type of pituitary adenoma, constituting about 40% of these tumours
Prolactin-secreting adenomas are more frequent in women, mainly during the child-bearing years, with a peak incidence between 20-30s
Women and men of 10:1
Over 50s, frequency of prolactinomas is similar in men and women

218
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Prolactinomas?

A
Can be asymptomatic (12%)
Amenorrhoea or oligomenorrhoea
Infertility
Loss of libido
Decrease in visual acuity
219
Q

What are the signs of Prolactinomas on physical examination?

A

Galactorrhea
Visual deterioration
Osteoporosis: fractures

220
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Prolactinomas?

A

Serum prolactin: elevated (over 150-200 ng/ml)
Pituitary MRI gadolinium-enhanced: characteristic features of pituitary adenoma, may be compressing the optic chiasm
Computerised visual field examination: may reveal unilateral or bitemporal hemianopia

221
Q

What is the management of Prolactinomas?

A

Dopamine agonists: *primary treatment *
-Inhibit prolactin secretion and synthesis
-Cabergoline is the recommended first-line
-Bromocriptine can also be given
-Starts at low doses to avoid adverse effects, including low mood and irritability, with a gradual dose increase
-If pregnancy occurs, medication must be stopped
OR Trans-sphenoidal surgery for large and invasive macroprolactinomas

222
Q

What are the complications of Prolactinomas?

A

Visual field impairment
Cabergoline associated (at high doses) valvular disease
Pituitary apoplexy: due to acute haemorrhage into or ischaemic infarction of a large pituitary prolactinoma
From Trans-sphenoidal surgery: anterior pituitary failure/ diabetes insipidus

223
Q

What is the prognosis of Prolactinomas?

A

This benign disease follows a progressive improving course while medically treated:
continuous treatment with relatively large doses of dopamine agonists will result in prolactin normalisation, tumour shrinkage or disappearance, and rapid visual improvement

224
Q

What is Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)?

A

Characterised by continued secretion of ADH, despite the absence of normal stimuli for secretion (i.e. increased serum osmolality or low blood volume)

225
Q

What is the aetiology of Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)?

A

Brain: Haemorrhage/thrombosis, meningitis, abscess, trauma, tumour, Guillain–Barre syndrome
Lung: Pneumonia, TB, abscess, aspergillosis, small cell carcinoma
Tumours: Small cell lung cancer, lymphoma, leukaemia, pancreas, prostate, mesothelioma sarcoma, thymoma. It may be caused by ectopic ADH secretion
Drugs: Vincristine (chemotherapy), opiates, carbamazepine, chlorpropamide
Metabolic: Alcohol withdrawal, Porphyria

226
Q

What is the epidemiology of Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)?

A

Hyponatraemia is the most common electrolyte imbalance seen in hospitals
<50% of all severe hyponatraemia are due to SIADH

227
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)?

A
Mild hyponatraemia (Na+ : 125–135 mmol/L) may be asymptomatic
Headache
Nausea/vomiting
Muscle cramp/weakness
Irritability
Confusion
Drowsiness
Convulsions 
Coma
Symptoms of the underlying cause
228
Q

What are the signs of Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH) on physical examination?

A

Mild hyponatraemia: No signs
Severe hyponatraemia:
Reduced reflexes, extensor plantar reflexes (Babinski reflex)
Signs of the underlying cause
*The hyponatraemia in SIADH is dilutional from increased body water (reabsorption) and not decreased total body Na+
-Absence of hypo or hypervolaemia

229
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)?

A

Bloods:
-Serum sodium: low, <135 mmol/L
-Serum osmolality:low, <280 mmol/kg (hypotonic)
Urine:
-Urine osmolality: elevated, >100 mmol/kg H2O
-Urine sodium: elevated, >40 mmol/L
*The presence of the above and absence of hypovolaemia/hypotension, oedema, renal failure, adrenal insufficiency and hypothyroidism are required for a diagnosis of SIADH
Excluding differentials: TSH (hypothyroidism), creatinine (renal failure), serum protein and lipids (exclude pseudohyponatraemia seen with increased protein or lipids), short ACTH stimulation test (to exclude adrenal
insufficiency)
Identifying the cause: CXR, CT chest/abdomen/pelvis, MRI/CT head

230
Q

What is the management of Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)?

A

Salt administration and/or water restriction:
-Water restriction (0.5–1 L/day). If ineffective, give demeclocycline (reduce responsiveness of the
collecting tubule cells to ADH)
-Vasopressin (V2) receptor antagonists e.g. tolvaptan are likely to be useful in moderate chronic hyponatraemia if water restriction is insufficient
-In severe cases (seizures and reduced consciousness), give slow IV hypertonic 3% saline (and
furosemide) with close monitoring. The change in [Na+] must not exceed 10 mmol/L in the first 24 h and 18 mmol/L in the first 48 h
*Rapid correction can result in central pontine myelinolysis (rapid rise in sodium concentration is accompanied by the movement of small molecules and pulls water from brain cells)

231
Q

What are the complications of Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)?

A

Convulsions, coma, death

Central pontine myelinolysis: occurs with rapid correction of hyponatraemia (quadreparesis, respiratory arrest, fits)

232
Q

What is the prognosis of Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)?

A

If the underlying cause is found and treated successfully, SIADH typically resolves
High morbidity and mortality with [Na+] <110 mmol/L
Up to 50% mortality with central pontine myelinolysis

233
Q

What is thyroid cancer?

A

The most common endocrinological malignancy and 4 types account for more than 98% of thyroid malignancies:

  • Papillary
  • Follicular
  • Anaplastic
  • Medullary
234
Q

What is the aetiology of thyroid cancer?

A

Genetic alterations are thought to underlie thyroid cancers (Family history is a strong RF)

  • Papillary: BRAF mutations
  • Follicular: PPAR gamma gene
  • Medullary: mutations in a tyrosine kinase receptor gene
235
Q

What is the epidemiology of thyroid cancer?

A

The most common endocrinological malignancy, the rates of new thyroid cancer cases have been rising over the past few decades
More common in women than in men
Most likely to be diagnosed between the ages of 45 to 54 years

236
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of thyroid cancer?

A

Neck lump
Hoarseness
Dyspnoea
Dysphagia

237
Q

What are the signs of thyroid cancer on physical examination?

A

Palpable thyroid nodule (most common in early adulthood)
Tracheal deviation: enlarged goitre
Cervical lymphadenopathy suggestive of neck metastasis

238
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for thyroid cancer?

A

Initial screening test: TSH, often normal
Ultrasound neck: micro-calcifications, a more-tall-than-wide shape, hypervascularity, marked hypoechogenicity, or irregular margins
Fine needle biopsy: cytology of malignant features (variations in appearance), anapaestic (poorly differentiated)
Laryngoscopy: paralysed vocal cord is highly suggestive of malignancy

Others:
-Free T3/T4: normal
-Iodine thyroid scan/uptake: ordered for patients with overt or subclinical hyperthyroidism
(Hot nodules: hyperfunctioning -almost always benign, cold nodule: hypofunctioning- most are benign but malignant nodules are also cold)
-CT neck: lymphadenopathy
-Serum calcitonin (parafollicular cells, opposes the action of parathyroid hormone): Normal is <10 nanograms/L, high in medullary cancer

239
Q

What are Thyroid nodule(s)?

A

Solid or fluid-filled lumps that form within the thyroid

Most thyroid nodules aren’t serious and don’t cause symptoms

240
Q

What is the aetiology of Thyroid nodule(s)?

A
  • Overgrowth of normal thyroid tissue: thyroid adenoma, Some lead to hyperthyroidism
  • Thyroid cyst: fluid-filled cavities in the thyroid most commonly result from degenerating thyroid adenomas. Often, solid components are mixed with fluid in thyroid cysts
  • Chronic inflammation of the thyroid. Hashimoto’s disease, a thyroid disorder, can cause thyroid inflammation and result in enlarged nodules, often associated with hypothyroidism
  • Multinodular goitre: multiple distinct nodules, cause is not well known
  • Thyroid cancer: small risk that a thyroid nodule is cancerous- if a nodule is large and hard or causes pain or discomfort
  • Iodine deficiency: can cause thyroid nodules
241
Q

What is the epidemiology of Thyroid nodule(s)?

A

Common and are usually benign

242
Q

What are the presenting symptoms and signs of Thyroid nodule(s) on physical examination?

A

Most thyroid nodules don’t cause signs or symptoms
Neck lump
Cause dyspnoea or dysphagia
Can cause hypo or hyperthyroidism (features of these)

243
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Thyroid nodule(s)?

A

Bloods: Thyroid function test, FBC

Colour Doppler Ultrasound of the neck

244
Q

What is Thyroiditis?

A

An autoimmune-mediated lymphocytic inflammation of the thyroid gland resulting in a destructive thyroiditis with release of thyroid hormone and transient thyrotoxicosis (hyperthyroidism)
This is frequently followed by a hypothyroid phase and full recovery

245
Q

What is the aetiology of Thyroiditis?

A

Painless (lymphocytic) thyroiditis is part of the spectrum of autoimmune thyroid disease and considered by many to be a variant presentation of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
It has been associated with HLA-DR3 and DR5

246
Q

What is the epidemiology of Thyroiditis?

A

The condition is twice as likely to occur in women and can occur in all age groups, although the mean age of onset is in the 30s
Postnatal thyroiditis occurs after 7% of pregnancies
Also seen in patients treated with cytokines or biological agents

247
Q

What are the risk factors for Thyroiditis?

A
Postnatal period
Receiving immune-modulatory therapy 
Lithium therapy 
PMH of Type 1 DM and other autoimmune conditions 
Weaker RF: 
-Female sex 
-FH
248
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Thyroiditis?

A

Features of hyperthyroidism:

  • Heat intolerance
  • Nervousness
  • Palpitations
  • Weight loss
  • Excessive fatigue
249
Q

What are the signs of Thyroiditis on physical examination?

A

Small non-tender goitre
Features of hyperthyroidism (tachycardia) and then features of hypothyroidism (cold intolerance, poor concentration, weight gain)

250
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Thyroiditis?

A

Thyroid function tests:

  • TSH: low TSH suggests thyrotoxicosis; elevated in hypothyroid phase
  • Serum free T4 and T3: elevated in the thyrotoxic phase; low in the hypothyroid phase
  • Thyroid Peroxidase antibodies: confirm autoimmune aetiology: frequently positive
  • TSH-r antibodies: *distinguish between Graves’

4,6 or 24 hour radioiodine uptake: very low, usually <1% (Uptake elevated or within the normal range in Graves’ disease and toxic multinodular goitre)
Total T3/T4 ratio: when radioiodine uptake is contraindicated: distinguish thyroiditis from Graves’ disease and toxic nodular goitre: LOW

Others:

  • Thyroid biopsy: rarely necessary, lymphocytic infiltrate
  • techniteum 99pertechnetate: uptake scan
  • serum thyroglobulin: elevated
  • Colour flow doppler ultrasound: reduced flow (widely available but uncommonly used)
251
Q

What is the management of Thyroiditis?

A

Thyrotoxic phase:

  • Treatment may not be necessary for asymptomatic patients
  • In symptomatic thyrotoxicosis: beta-blockers will ameliorate the tachycardia and tremulousness (or calcium-channel blocker)
  • If not responding to treatment: systemic corticosteroids

Hypothyroid phase:

  • Again may not be needed
  • In moderate to severe: levothyroxine is given to normalise serum TSH concentrations
  • In permanent hypothyroidism: levothyroxine should be continued indefinitely

Recurrent thyroiditis: Up to 11% of patients with sporadic painless thyroiditis will have recurrent thyroiditis
-Although it is rarely done, such patients may elect to have their thyroid gland ablated with radioiodine or surgically removed between episodes when they are euthyroid

252
Q

What are the complications of Thyroiditis?

A

Arrhythmias: AF
Exacerbation of co-morbidities particularly ismchaemic heart disease and congestive heart failure (lower risk)
More likely to develop permanent hypothyroidism
Can also develop Graves’ disease, recurrent hyperthyroidism

253
Q

What is the prognosis of Thyroiditis?

A

Most patients recover normal thyroid function:

  • 6% remain permanently hypothyroid
  • 1/3 have persistent goitre or thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies
  • Recurrent episodes are common postnatally (69%) but may also occur in up to 11% of patients with sporadic disease