Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

What is basal cell carcinoma?

A

A common neoplasm, related to exposure to sunlight-clinically presents as a pearly white papulo-nodule or firm plaque

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2
Q

What is the aetiology of basal cell carcinoma?

A

Repetitive and frequent sun exposure, as ultraviolet (UV) radiation induces DNA damage in keratinocytes

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3
Q

What is the epidemiology of basal cell carcinoma?

A

The most common malignancy of the skin in fair-skinned adults in the US, Australia, and Europe and its incidence is increasing
The incidence of BCC has been shown to increase markedly after the age of 40 years (incidence in younger people is steadily rising)

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4
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of basal cell carcinoma?

A

Pearly papules/plaques

Non-healing scabs

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5
Q

What are the signs of basal cell carcinoma on physical examination?

A

Plaques, nodules and tumours:

  • pearly appearance
  • rolled borders
  • small crusts, non-healing
  • associated Telangiectasis (tiny thread like blood vessels)
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6
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for basal cell carcinoma?

A

*Biopsy for dermatohistopathology:
(diagnosis of a cancer is histological)
-growth of nest(s) of varying size and shape
-either tightly associated with epidermis or follicular opening
-neoplasm composed of basophilic (blue) hyperchromatic cells
-stroma surrounding BCC is hypercellular, fibrous
-separation artefact between nests of neoplastic cells and the stroma (so-called stroma-epithelium split)

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7
Q

What is bladder cancer?

A

Over 90% of cancers of the urinary bladder are urothelial carcinoma (previously termed transitional cell carcinoma)

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8
Q

What is associated with bladder cancer?

A
Smoking*
Aromatic amines (rubber industry) 
Chronic cystitis 
Schistosomiasis (increases risk of squamous cell carcinoma) 
Pelvic irradiation
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9
Q

What is the aetiology of bladder cancer?

A

Smoking is the most important causative factor in bladder cancer, increasing the risk two- to fourfold
People with Type 2 DM
Chronic inflammation, Schistosoma infection, and chronic indwelling catheters increase the risk

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10
Q

What is the epidemiology of bladder cancer?

A

Bladder cancer ranks ninth in worldwide cancer incidence. >90% are transitional cell carcinomas (TCCS) in the UK
M:F is 5:2

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11
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of bladder cancer?

A

Painless haematuria
Recurrent UTIs
Dysuria: associated with aggressive bladder cancer
Voiding irritability

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12
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for bladder cancer?

A

Cystoscopy with biopsy is diagnostic* (camera imaging)
Urinalysis: haematuria, microscopy/cytology (cancers may cause sterile pyuria)
Renal and bladder ultrasound: bladder tumours and/or upper tract obstruction may be seen
CT urogram is both diagnostic and provides staging.
Bimanual examination under anaesthetic helps assess spread
MRI or lymphangiography may show involved pelvic nodes
Bloods: FBC (may be mildly anaemic), Alk Phos (may be elevated)

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13
Q

What is breast cancer?

A

A malignancy originating in the breast(s) and nodal basins

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14
Q

What is the aetiology of breast cancer?

A

Unknown.
Factors that have a role:
-Genetic: 5% to 10% of breast cancers are linked to inherited genetic mutations- BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations are the most common inherited genetic mutation found in breast cancer
-Hormonal: increased levels of endogenous sex hormones (oestrogen) increase risk of breast cancer

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15
Q

What is the epidemiology of breast cancer?

A

Breast cancer is the most common female malignancy
It is most commonly diagnosed in middle-aged or older women (median age at diagnosis is 62 years)
Women are affected 100x more than men

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16
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of breast cancer?

A

Breast mass (does not have to be a new mass)
Nipple discharge
Skin thickening
Retraction of the nipple

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17
Q

What are the signs of breast cancer on physical examination?

A

Breast mass:
-Is it tender?
-Are there changes in the size or character of the mass?
-Have the characteristics of the mass have been affected by the menstrual cycle
Nipple discharge:
-May be watery, serous, milky, or bloody
-Bloody discharge is more classically associated with a neoplasm
Axillary lymphadenopathy:
the probability of axillary nodal involvement increases in proportion to the size of the tumour (clinical assessment can be inaccurate- imaging is needed)
Overlying skin changes:
-Peau d’orange (dimpling of the skin)
-Erythema
-Ulceration
*always associated with locally advanced or inflammatory breast cancer
Retraction of the nipple: may be related to Paget’s disease of the breast

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18
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for breast cancer?

A

Triple assessment:
(clinical examination)
-Mammogram: an irregular spiculated mass, clustered microcalcifications, and linear branching calcifications
-Core biopsy: histological findings confirming an invasive ductal carcinoma, invasive lobular carcinoma, medullary carcinoma, mucinous carcinoma, or metaplastic carcinoma

Other imaging:

  • Breast ultrasound (adjunct to mammogram): a hypoechoic mass, an irregular mass with internal calcifications, and enlarged axillary lymph nodes
  • Breast MRI: more sensitive but less specific, used in screening for patients with positive FH
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19
Q

What are central nervous system tumours?

A

Primary tumours arising from any of the brain tissue types

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20
Q

What is the aetiology of CNS tumours?

A

Children: most likely embryonic errors in development
Adults: unknown

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21
Q

What is the pathology of a meningioma?

A

Benign and most common primary CNS tumour

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22
Q

What is the pathology of a pituitary adenoma?

A

Benign, space-occupying and endocrine effects

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23
Q

What is the epidemiology of CNS tumours?

A

Annual incidence of primary tumours 5–9 in 100000 Two peaks of incidence (children and the elderly)

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24
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of CNS tumours?

A

Headache or vomiting (raised intracranial pressure)
Epilepsy (focal or generalized)
Focal neurological deficits (dysphagia, hemiparesis, ataxia, visual field defects, cognitive impairment)
Personality change

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25
Q

What are the signs of CNS tumours on physical examination?

A

Papilloedema / false localising signs (raised intracranial pressure)- bilateral hemianopia, anosmia, ophthalmoplegia
Focal neurological deficits (visual field defects, dysphasia, agnosia, hemianopia, hemiparesis,
ataxia, personality change)

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26
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for CNS tumours?

A

CT-head: Usual initial investigation.
MRI-brain: Higher sensitivity.
Chest X-ray or CT (thorax, abdomen, pelvis): To determine if the lesion is secondary or primary.
Blood: CRP, ESR, consider HIV screen, toxoplasma serology (consider hormone profile-pituitary)
Brain biopsy: Type and grading (degree of differentiation of tumour)
*Lumbar puncture: contraindication if there is evidence of
raised intracranial pressure, may cause coning (herniation).

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27
Q

What are cholangiocarcinomas?

A

Cancers arising from the bile duct epithelium. These can be divided depending on their location in the biliary tree:
intrahepatic or extrahepatic (perihilar and distal)

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28
Q

What is the aetiology of cholangiocarcinomas?

A

There is a close association between infection, inflammation, and malignancy

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29
Q

What are the risk factors for cholangiocarcinomas?

A

Age > 50 years
Cholangitis
Choledocholithiasis (gall stones)
Structural disorders of the biliary tract e.g. bile duct adenoma
Ulcerative colitis
Primary sclerosis cholangitis (high association with UC)
Non-specific cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease
HIV
Hepatitis B and C

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30
Q

What is the epidemiology of cholangiocarcinomas?

A

Slight male predominance
Approximately 2/3rds of cholangiocarcinomas occur in patients between 50 and 70 years of age
Highest rates in Thailand and South American Countries

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31
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of cholangiocarcinomas?

A
Painless jaundice (90% of patients)
Others which are less common:
-Weight loss
-Abdominal pain
-Itchiness
-Dark urine and pale stools (obstructive jaundice)
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32
Q

What are the signs of cholangiocarcinomas on physical examination?

A

Jaundice
Triad of: fever, jaundice and right upper quadrant pain (acute cholangitis- 10% of patients)
Palpable gallbladder (RARE)
Hepatomegaly (RARE)

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33
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for cholangiocarcinomas?

A

Bloods:
-Serum bilirubin: Conjugated bilirubin is elevated in obstructive jaundice
-Serum alkaline phosphate: Suggests obstructive (or cholestatic) pattern of elevated LFTs, along with GGT, AST and ALT
-Serum prothrombin time: increased in prolonged obstruction of the common bile or hepatic duct
Tumour marker: Ca 19-9- elevated in up to 85% of patients with cholangiocarcinoma
Imaging:
-Abdominal ultrasound
: intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma may be seen as a mass lesion
-Abdominal CT: intrahepatic mass lesion, dilated intrahepatic ducts, and localised lymphadenopathy
-Abdominal MRI/angiography: staging tool/extent of tumour
-*ERCP (Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography) : a filling defect or area of narrowing will be seen if a tumour is present- INVASIVE
Others:
MRCP (extent of duct involvement)
Percuatneous transhepatic cathertisation (invasive procedure that is used when the tumour causes complete obstruction of the biliary tree)

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34
Q

What is colorectal cancer?

A

Malignancy of the large bowel - the majority of colorectal cancers are adenocarcinomas derived from epithelial cells

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35
Q

What is the aetiology of colorectal cancer?

A

Colorectal cancer represents a complex interaction of genetic and environmental factors:
Genetic: next to age, FH is the most common risk factor
*Family cancer syndromes: familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) and Lynch syndrome
Environmental: Obesity, high energy intake, and physical inactivity are synergistic risk factors (low fibre diet)
Also: inflammatory bowel disease, acromegaly

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36
Q

What is the epidemiology of colorectal cancer?

A

Second most common cause of cancer death in the West

Average age at diagnosis 60–65 years.

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37
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of colorectal cancer?

A

Left-sided colon and rectum:

  • Change in bowel habit (increased frequency, looser stools)
  • Rectal bleeding or blood/mucous mixed in with stools
  • Rectal masses may also present as tenesmus (sensation of incomplete emptying after defecation)

Right-sided colon:
-Later presentation, with symptoms of anaemia, weight loss and non- specific malaise or, more rarely, lower abdominal pain

Up to 20% of tumours will present as an emergency with pain and distension caused by large bowel obstruction, haemorrhage or peritonitis as a result of perforation

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38
Q

What are the signs of colorectal cancer on physical examination?

A

Anaemia may be only sign, particularly in right-sided lesions
Abdominal mass, low-lying rectal tumours may be palpable on rectal examination
Metastatic disease: Hepatomegaly, ‘shifting dullness’ of ascites

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39
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for colorectal cancer?

A

Blood: FBC (for anaemia), LFT (often normal), tumour markers (CEA to monitor treatment response or disease recurrence)
Stool: Occult or frank blood in stool (screening test)
Endoscopy:
-Sigmoidoscopy, colonoscopy: may see ulcerating or exophytic (growing outward) mucosal lesion that may narrow the bowel lumen
-Allows visualization and biopsy. Polypectomy can also be performed if isolated small carcinoma in situ
Barium contrast studies: ‘Apple core’ stricture on barium enema
Abdominal ultrasound scan for hepatic metastases
Other staging investigations include:
-CXR
-CT: colonic wall thickening, enlarged lymph nodes, liver metastases, ascites, lung secondaries
-MRI, endorectal ultrasound

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40
Q

What is deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

A

Formation of a thrombus within the deep veins (most commonly of the calf or thigh) which may result in impaired venous blood flow and consequent leg swelling and pain

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41
Q

What are the risk factors for DVT?

A
Oral contraceptive pill
Surgery
Prolonged immobility
Long bone fractures
Obesity
Pregnancy
Dehydration
Smoking
Polycythaemia
Anti-phospholipid syndrome
Thrombophilia disorders (e.g. protein C deficiency)
Active malignancy
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42
Q

What is Virchow’s triad?

A

Venous stasis
Vessel wall injury
Blood hypercoagulability

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43
Q

What is the epidemiology for DVT?

A

Common, especially in hospitalised patients- yearly incidence of approximately 1 in every 1000 adults
Long-term complications of DVT (venous insufficiency, ulceration) affect 0.5% population
Incidence increases with age (increased medical co-morbidities, declining mobility, and perhaps age-related changes in coagulation)

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44
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of DVT?

A

Asymptomatic or lower limb swelling or tenderness

May present with signs/ symptoms of a pulmonary embolus (sudden onset dyspnoea, chest pain)

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45
Q

What are the signs of DVT on physical examination?

A

Examine for swelling, calf tenderness:
Severe leg oedema (usually unilateral)
Dilated superficial veins over foot and leg
Cyanosis (phlegmasia cerulea dolens) is rare
*Respiratory examination for signs of a pulmonary embolus (Sudden onset dyspnoea, cough, haemoptysis and pleuritic chest pain)

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46
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for DVT?

A

*Doppler ultrasound: gold standard
-Good sensitivity for femoral veins; less sensitive for calf veins (reduced/absent spontaneous blood flow)
Bloods:
-D-dimers (fibrinogen degradation products) are sensitive but very non-specific and only useful as a negative predictor in low-risk patients
-If indicated (e.g. recurrent episodes), a thrombophilia screen should be sent, prior to starting anticoagulation
-FBC (platelet count prior to starting heparin)
-U&E and clotting
ECG, CXR and ABG: If there is suggestion that there might be PE

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47
Q

What is the Well’s system for DVT?

A

Lower limb trauma or surgery or immobilisation in a plaster cast (+1)
Bedridden for >3 days or surgery within the last 4 weeks (+1)
Tenderness along deep venous system (+1)
Entire limb swollen (+1)
Calf >3 cm bigger circumference; 10 cm below tibial tuberosity (+1)
Pitting oedema (+1)
Dilated collateral superficial veins (non-varicose) (+1)
Malignancy (including treatment up to 6 months previously) (+1)
Alternative diagnosis more likely than DVT (-2)

Clinical probability of DVT:
High >3
Moderate 1–2
Low <1

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48
Q

What is the management for DVT?

A

Anticoagulation:

  • Patients should be treated with heparin while awaiting therapeutic INR from warfarin anticoagulation
  • DVTs not extending above the knee treated with anticoagulation for 3 months, while those extending beyond the knee require anticoagulation for 6 months
  • Recurrent DVTs may require long-term warfarin*
  • If active anticoagulation is contraindicated and/or high risk of embolisation, placement of an IVC filter, e.g. Greenfield filter, by interventional radiology is indicated to prevent embolus to the lungs

Prevention:

  • Use of graduated compression stockings
  • Mobilisation if possible (physical activity)
  • At-risk groups (immobilised hospital patients) should have prophylactic heparin, e.g. low molecular weight heparin if no contraindications
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49
Q

What are the complications of DVT?

A

Of the disease:
-Pulmonary embolus
-Damage to vein valves and chronic venous insufficiency of the lower limb (post-thrombotic syndrome)
*Rare: Venous infarction (phlegmasia cerulea dolens)
Of the treatment:
-Heparin-induced thrombocytopaenia
-Bleeding

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50
Q

What is the prognosis of DVT?

A

Depends on extent of DVT:

  • Below-knee DVTs lower risk of embolus
  • More proximal DVTs have higher risk of propagation and embolisation, which, if large, may be fatal
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51
Q

What is gastric cancer?

A

A neoplasm that can develop in any portion of the stomach and may spread to the lymph nodes and other organs, most commonly adenocarcinoma, more rarely lymphoma, leiomyosarcoma

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52
Q

What is the aetiology of gastric cancer?

A

Most cases are probably caused by environmental insults in genetically predisposed individuals that lead to mutation and subsequent unregulated cell growth
Risk factors include:
-Helicobacter pylori infection
-Atrophic gastritis
-Diet high in smoked, processed foods and nitrosamines
-Smoking
-Alcohol

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53
Q

What is the epidemiology of gastric cancer?

A

Common cause of cancer death worldwide, with highest incidence in Asia, especially Japan
Sixth most common cancer in UK (annual incidence is 15 in 100000)
M: W is 􏰄2:1
Age>50 years
*Cancer of the antrum/body is becoming less common, while that of the cardia and gastro- oesophageal junction is increasing

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54
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of gastric cancer?

A

In the early phases, it is often asymptomatic
Early satiety or epigastric discomfort
Weight loss, anorexia, nausea and vomiting
Haematemesis, melaena, symptoms of anaemia
Dysphagia (tumours of the cardia)
Symptoms of metastases, particularly abdominal swelling (ascites) or jaundice (liver involvement)

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55
Q

What are the signs of gastric cancer on physical examination?

A
Physical examination may be normal
Epigastric mass
Abdominal tenderness
Ascites
Signs of anaemia
Many eponymous signs:
**Virchow’s node/Troisier’s sign: Lymphadenopathy in left supraclavicular fossa
Sister Mary Joseph node: Metastatic nodule on umbilicus
Krukenberg’s tumour: Ovarian metastases
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56
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for gastric cancer?

A

*Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy with biopsy: ulcer or mass or mucosal changes
Bloods: FBC (for anaemia), LFT
CT/MRI: Staging of tumour and planning of surgery (metastatic lesions)
Ultrasound of liver: Staging of tumour (metastatic lesions)
Bone scan: Staging of tumour (metastatic lesions)
Endoscopic ultrasound: Assesses depth of invasion and lymph node spread (determines clinical tumour (T) and node (N) stage)
Laparoscopy: May be needed to determine if tumour is resectable

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57
Q

What is hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Primary malignancy of hepatocytes, usually occurring in a cirrhotic liver

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58
Q

What is the aetiology of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A
  • Chronic liver damage e.g. alcoholic liver disease, hepatitis B, hepatitis C, autoimmune disease
  • Metabolic disease e.g. haemochromatosis (inherited condition where iron levels accumulate)
  • Aflatoxins: Aspergillus flavus fungal toxin found on stored grains or biological weapons
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59
Q

What is the epidemiology of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Worldwide, HCC is the sixth most common cause of cancer and the second leading cause of cancer-related death
Rare in West (1–2 in 100 000/year)
Very common malignancy in areas where Hepatitis B and C are endemic, i.e. Asia and sub-Saharan Africa

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60
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A
Symptoms of malignancy: 
-Malaise
-Weight loss
-Loss of appetite
Symptoms of chronic liver disease: 
-Abdominal distension
-Jaundice
-Right upper quadrant pain
History of carcinogen exposure: 
-High alcohol intake
-PMH of Hepatitis B or C or Aflatoxins
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61
Q

What are the signs of hepatocellular carcinoma on physical examination?

A
Signs of malignancy:
-Cachexia
-Lymphadenopathy
Hepatomegaly: 
-Nodular (but may be smooth)
Deep palpation may elicit tenderness
*There may be bruit heard over the liver
Signs of chronic liver disease: 
-Jaundice
-Ascites
-Palmar erythema
Others:
-Splenomegaly: indicative of portal hypertension secondary to cirrhosis of the liver
-Decompensated cirrhosis- hepatic encephalopathy: asterixis, spider naevi
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62
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Blood:
-*Raised AFP (tumour marker with high sensitivity): elevated in 60% of patients with HCC
-Vitamin B12-binding protein is a marker of fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma
-LFT has poor specificity and sensitivity but may show biliary obstruction (elevated aminotransferases, alkaline phosphatase, and bilirubin; low albumin)
-Prothrombin time: normal or elevated
Abdominal ultrasound:
-Poorly defined margins and coarse, irregular internal echoes
-Not sensitive for tumours <1 cm
Duplex scan of liver:
-May be used to demonstrate large vessel invasion (e.g. into hepatic or portal veins)
*CT (thorax, abdomen, pelvis) with contrast:
-Typical hypervascular pattern
-To define structural lesion and spread
-Hepatic angiography: Using lipiodol (an iodized oil).
Liver biopsy:
-Confirms histology of tumour: well-differentiated to poorly differentiated hepatocytes with large multinucleated giant cells having central necrosis
-Small risk of tumour seeding along biopsy tract
Staging:
-CXR
-Radionuclide bone scan: “hot” spots- bone mets
*Screening: AFP and abdominal ultrasound in at-risk individuals

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63
Q

What is Leukaemia, acute myeloblastic (AML)?

A

Malignancy of primitive myeloid lineage WBCs (myeloblasts) with proliferation in the bone marrow and blood

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64
Q

What is the aetiology of Leukaemia, acute myeloblastic (AML)?

A
  1. Myeloblasts, arrest at an early stage of development, with varying cyto-genetic abnormalities (e.g. gene mutations and chromosome translocations)
  2. Myeloblasts then undergo malignant transformation and proliferation, with subsequent replacement of normal marrow elements
  3. Resulting in bone marrow failure
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65
Q

What is the epidemiology of Leukaemia, acute myeloblastic (AML)?

A

*Most common acute leukaemia in adults

Incidence increases with age.

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66
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Leukaemia, acute myeloblastic (AML)?

A

Symptoms of bone marrow failure:
-Anaemia (lethargy, dyspnoea)
-Bleeding (thrombocytopaenia) or DIC(Disseminated intravascular coagulation-blood clots form throughout the body)
-Opportunistic or recurrent infections
Symptoms of tissue infiltration:
-Gum swelling or bleeding
-CNS involvement (headaches, nausea, diplopia-double vision): especially with particular variants

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67
Q

What are the signs of Leukaemia, acute myeloblastic (AML) on physical examination?

A

Signs of bone marrow failure:
-Pallor
-Cardiac flow murmur
-Ecchymoses (discolouration of skin from bleeding underneath)
-Bleeding
-Opportunistic or recurrent infections (e.g. fever, mouth ulcers, skin infections, Pneumocytis Pneumonia- PCP)
Signs of tissue infiltration:
-Skin rashes
-Gum hypertrophy
-Deposits of leukaemic blasts may rarely be seen in the eye (chloroma), tongue and bone – in the latter may cause fractures

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68
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Leukaemia, acute myeloblastic (AML)?

A

Bloods:
-FBC (reduced Hb, reduced platelets, variable WCC)
-Raised Uric acid
-Raised LDH
-Others: clotting studies, fibrinogen and D-dimers (when DIC is suspected)
*Blood film: AML blasts may show cytoplasmic granules or Auer rods
*Bone marrow aspirate or biopsy:
-Hypercellular with >30 % blasts (immature cells)
Immunophenotyping: Antibodies against surface antigens to classify lineage of abnormal clones
Immunocytochemistry: Myeloblasts granules are positive
[Cytogenetics: For diagnostic and prognostic information]

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69
Q

What is Leukaemia, acute lymphoblastic (ALL)?

A

Malignancy of the bone marrow and blood characterized by the proliferation of lymphoblasts (primitive lymphoid cells)

70
Q

What is the aetiology of Leukaemia, acute lymphoblastic (ALL)?

A
  1. Lymphoblasts, arrest at an early stage of development, with varying cytogenetic abnormalities (e.g. gene mutations and chromosome translocations)
  2. Lymphoblasts then undergo malignant transformation and proliferation, with subsequent replacement of normal marrow elements
  3. Resulting in bone marrow failure and infiltration into other tissues
71
Q

What is the epidemiology of Leukaemia, acute lymphoblastic (ALL)?

A

Most common malignancy of childhood.
The peak incidence occurs between 2 and 5 years of age
Second peak in the elderly

72
Q

What are the risk factors/associations of Leukaemia, acute lymphoblastic (ALL)?

A

Environmental: radiation, viruses
Genetic: e.g. Down’s syndrome, neurofibromatosis type 1, increased risk in siblings

73
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Leukaemia, acute lymphoblastic (ALL)?

A

Symptoms of bone marrow failure:
-Anaemia (fatigue, dyspnoea)
-Bleeding (spontaneous bruising, bleeding gums, menorrhagia)
-Opportunistic infections (bacterial, viral, fungal, protozoal)
Symptoms of organ infiltration:
-Tender bones
-Enlarged lymph nodes
-Mediastinal compression (in T-cell ALL)
-Meningeal involvement (headache, visual disturbances, nausea)

74
Q

What are the signs of Leukaemia, acute lymphoblastic (ALL) on physical examination?

A
Signs of bone marrow failure: 
Pallor
-Bruising
-Bleeding
-Infection (e.g. fever, GI, skin, respiratory systems)
Signs of organ infiltration: 
-Lymphadenopathy
-Hepatosplenomegaly
-Cranial nerve palsies
-Retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema on fundoscopy
-Leukaemic infiltration of the anterior chamber of the eye (mimics hypopyon)
-Testicular swelling
75
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Leukaemia, acute lymphoblastic (ALL)?

A

Bloods:
-FBC (normochromic normocytic anaemia, reduced platelets, variable WCC)
-Raised uric acid, raised LDH, clotting screen
Blood film: Lymphoblasts evident
Bone marrow aspirate or trephine biopsy:
-Hypercellular with >30 % lymphoblasts
-Immunophenotyping: Using antibodies for cell surface antigens e.g. CD20
Lumbar puncture (and CSF analysis): For CNS involvement.
CXR: May show mediastinal lymphadenopathy, thymic enlargement, lytic bone lesions
Bone radiographs: Mottled appearance with ‘punched-out’ lesions (e.g. skull caused by leukaemic infiltration)

76
Q

What are the classifications for Leukaemia, acute lymphoblastic (ALL)?

A

Morphologic classification(French–American–British classification):
L1: Small lymphoblasts, scanty cytoplasm.
L2: Larger, heterogenous lymphoblasts.
L3: Large lymphoblasts with blue or vacuolated cytoplasm.

77
Q

What is Leukaemia, chronic myeloid (CML)?

A

A malignant clonal disease characterized by proliferation of granulocyte precursors in the bone marrow and blood
*distinguished from AML by its SLOWER progression

78
Q

What is the aetiology of Leukaemia, chronic myeloid (CML)?

A

Malignant proliferation of stem cells. Three stages:

  1. Relatively stable chronic phase of variable duration (average of 4–6 years)
  2. Accelerated phase (3–9 months)
  3. Acute leukaemia phase (blast transformation)
79
Q

What is the epidemiology of Leukaemia, chronic myeloid (CML)?

A

Incidence increases with age, mean 40–60 years

4 times more common in males

80
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Leukaemia, chronic myeloid (CML)?

A

Asymptomatic in up to 40–50 % and is diagnosed on routine blood count
Hypermetabolic symptoms:
Weight loss, malaise, sweating
Bone marrow failure symptoms: Lethargy, dyspnoea, easy bruising, epistaxis (infection is rare)
Others:
-Abdominal discomfort and early satiety
-Occasionally presents with gout or hyperviscosity symptoms (visual disturbance, headaches)
-May present during blast crisis with symptoms of AML or ALL

81
Q

What are the signs of Leukaemia, chronic myeloid (CML) on physical examination?

A

Splenomegaly: Most common physical finding (90%)
Signs of bone marrow failure:
-Pallor
-Cardiac flow murmur
-Bleeding
-Ecchymoses (discolouration of skin from bleeding underneath)

82
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Leukaemia, chronic myeloid (CML)?

A

Bloods:
-FBC: grossly raised WCC, low Hb, raised basophils /eosinophils/ neutrophils, variable platelets
-Raised uric acid, low neutrophil alkaline phosphatase, high vitamin B12 and B12-binding protein
Blood film: Shows immature granulocytes in peripheral blood
Bone marrow aspirate or biopsy:
Hypercellular with raised myeloid–erythroid ratio

83
Q

What is Leukaemia, chronic lymphocytic (CLL)?

A

Characterized by progressive accumulation of functionally incompetent lymphocytes, which are monoclonal in origin
*There is an overlap between CLL and non- Hodgkin’s lymphomas

84
Q

What is the aetiology of Leukaemia, chronic lymphocytic (CLL)?

A

Malignant cells may accumulate as a result of their inability to undergo apoptosis (partly due to overexpression of BCL2 and Fas-inhibitory molecules)

85
Q

What is the epidemiology of Leukaemia, chronic lymphocytic (CLL)?

A

90% are >50 years
Men more than Women
Rare in Asians

86
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Leukaemia, chronic lymphocytic (CLL)?

A

Asymptomatic: Up to 40–50 % diagnosed on routine blood count
Systemic symptoms:
-Lethargy, malaise, night sweats
Symptoms of bone marrow failure:
Recurrent infections (bacterial, viral, fungal), herpes
zoster, easy bruising or bleeding (e.g. epistaxis)

87
Q

What are the signs of Leukaemia, chronic lymphocytic (CLL) on physical examination?

A

Non-tender lymphadenopathy (often symmetrical)
Hepatomegaly
Splenomegaly
Later stages: signs of bone marrow failure:
-Pallor
-Cardiac flow murmur
-Purpura/ ecchymoses (discolouration of skin from bleeding underneath)

88
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Leukaemia, chronic lymphocytic (CLL)?

A

CLL may be associated with autoimmune phenomena: -Haemolytic anaemia (10 %)
-Thrombocytopaenia or a combination of both (Evan’s syndrome)
Bloods:
-FBC: gross lymphocytosis, 5–300x109/L, anaemia, low platelets)
-Anaemia may be due to bone marrow infiltration, hypersplenism or autoimmune haemolysis
-Reduced serum immunoglobulins
Blood film:
-Small lymphocytes with thin rims of cytoplasm and smudge/smear cells
Bone marrow aspirate or biopsy:
-Lymphocytic replacement (25–95 %) of normal marrow
elements
Immunophenotyping shows the malignant cell to be a relatively mature B cell with weak surface expression of monoclonal IgM or IgD
*CT (chest, abdomen, and pelvis): On the basis of the patient’s symptoms

89
Q

What is lung cancer?

A

A group of malignant epithelial tumours arising from cells lining the lower respiratory tract.
Lung cancer is divided into 2 categories:
-Non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) (80%)
-Small cell lung cancer (15%)

90
Q

What can non-small cell lung cancer be classified into?

A
  1. adenocarcinoma
  2. squamous cell carcinoma
  3. large cell carcinoma
91
Q

What are the risk factors for non-small cell lung cancer?

A
Cigarette smoking 
Environmental tobacco exposure 
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 
Family Hx 
Radon gas exposure
92
Q

What is the aetiology of non-small cell lung cancer?

A
  • Tobacco exposure continues to be the most important cause of lung cancer
  • 45% of NSCLC are adenocarcinomas, which tend to be located more peripherally in the lung
  • 25% to 30% of lung cancers are squamous cell carcinomas, which tend to involve the central airways
  • Large cell carcinomas, accounting for about 10% of lung cancers, are undifferentiated tumours without histological features typical of a squamous cell or adenocarcinoma and tend to arise centrally
93
Q

What is the epidemiology of non-small cell lung cancer?

A

The most common cause of cancer mortality worldwide
NSCLC accounts for 80% of all lung cancer cases
More common in men
Median age of patients is 70 years (Less than 10% of cases are diagnosed below 50 years)

94
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of non-small cell lung cancer?

A

May be asymptomatic with radiographic abnormality found (5%)
Due to primary: Cough, haemoptysis, chest pain, recurrent pneumonia
Due to local invasion: e.g. brachial plexus (Pancoast tumour, in the apex of the lung) causing
pain in the shoulder or arm, left recurrent laryngeal nerve (hoarseness and bovine cough),
oesophagus (dysphagia), heart (palpitations/arrhythmias).
Due to metastatic disease or paraneoplastic phenomena: Weight loss, fatigue, fits, bone pain or fractures, neuromyopathies

95
Q

What are the signs of non-small cell lung cancer on physical examination?

A

There may be no signs.
Wheeze, rales, decreased breath sounds, and dullness to percussion
Signs of collapse, consolidation or pleural effusion.
Due to local invasion:
-Superior vena cava compression (facial congestion, distension of neck veins, upper limb oedema)
-Brachial plexus (wasting of the small muscles of the hand)
-Sympathetic chain (Horner’s syndrome: pupillary miosis, ptosis and facial anhydrosis) PANCOAST TUMOUR
Due to paraneoplastic phenomena: Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy: clubbing, painful swollen wrists/ankles (periosteal new bone formation)
Due to metastases: Supraclavicular lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly.

96
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for non-small cell lung cancer?

A

CXR: variable; may detect single or multiple pulmonary nodule(s), mass, pleural effusion, lung collapse, or mediastinal or hilar fullness
Contrast enhanced CT of lower neck, thorax and upper abdomen: shows size, location and extent of primary tumour; evaluates for hilar and/or mediastinal lymphadenopathy and distant metastases
Others:
-Bronchoscopy: endobronchial lesions
-Biopsy: malignant cells
-Sampling of the mediastinal lymph nodes: spread
-Thoracentesis: malignant cells within the pleural fluid
-MRI/CT of brain: brain metastases
-Bone scan: skeletal metastases
-Bloods: may show anaemia, mildly elevated LFTs, hypercalcaemia (squamous cell carcinomas), Alk Phosphate (bone mets)
-Contrast enhanced CT of liver and adrenals: metastatic lesions
-ECG: cardiac disease/involvement (pre-operatively)

97
Q

What are the risk factors for small cell lung cancer?

A

Cigarette smoking
Environmental tobacco exposure
Radon gas exposure
Asbestos exposure (weak)

98
Q

What is the aetiology of small cell lung cancer?

A

Tobacco exposure continues to be the most important cause of lung cancer and approximately 90% of lung cancer is directly attributable to smoking

99
Q

What is the epidemiology of small cell lung cancer?

A

SCLC comprises approximately 15-20% of lung cancers
Incidence is decreasing (most likely due to number of smokers decreasing)
Median age 65-70 years (over 50 years)
Currently more common in men

100
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of small cell lung cancer?

A

May be asymptomatic with radiographical abnormality found
Due to primary tumour: Cough, haemoptysis, dyspnoea, chest pain
Due to metastatic disease: Weight loss, fatigue, bone pain
Due to paraneoplastic syndromes: Weakness, lethargy, seizures, muscle fatiguability

101
Q

What are the signs of small cell lung cancer on physical examination?

A

May be no signs on auscultation of the chest
Auscultation of the lungs may demonstrate:
-Wheeze
-Rales
-Decreased breath sounds
-Dullness to percussion
-Signs of lobar collapse or pleural effusion
Signs of metastases, e.g. supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or hepatomegaly
Signs of paraneoplastic syndrome e.g. loss of muscle tone or weakness

102
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for small cell lung cancer?

A

Diagnosis:

  • Sputum cytology
  • Bronchoscopy with brushings and biopsy or percutaneous biopsy (malignant cells- may be within the pleural fluid)
  • Thoracoscopy
  • CXR:central mass, hilar lymphadenopathy, pleural effusion

Staging:

  • CT of chest (massive lymphadenopathy and direct mediastinal invasion are common features of SCLC), abdomen, head
  • Isotope bone scan
  • MRI/CT of brain: brain metastases

Other:

  • Lung function tests
  • Bloods: may show anaemia, mildly elevated LFTs, ADH secreting tumour? - may show hyponatraemia
103
Q

What is Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma (􏰄15% of lymphomas) is diagnosed histo- pathologically by the presence of Reed–Sternberg cells (a mature cell of B-lymphoid lineage)

104
Q

What are Lymphomas?

A

Neoplasms of lymphoid cells, originating in lymph nodes or other lymphoid tissues

105
Q

What is the aetiology of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

Unknown- likely to be a result of an environmental trigger in a genetically susceptible individual
*The presentation of HL (fevers, night sweats, lymphadenopathy) suggests an infectious aetiology- the EBV genome has been detected in 􏰄50% of Hodgkin’s lymphomas

106
Q

What is the epidemiology of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

Bimodal age distribution, with peaks 20–30 years and >50 years
More common in males
Annual European incidence is 2–5 in 100,000

107
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A
Painless enlarging mass (most often in neck, occasionally in axilla or groin)- may become painful after alcohol ingestion
‘B’ symptoms: 
-Fevers >38􏰂C 
Night sweats
Weight loss >10% body weight in last 6 months
Other: 
-Pruritus
-Cough 
-Dyspnoea 
-Chest pain/discomfort
*with intrathoracic disease
108
Q

What are the signs of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma on physical examination?

A

Non-tender firm rubbery lymphadenopathy:
-Cervical, axillary or inguinal
Splenomegaly, occasionally hepatomegaly
Skin excoriations (scratch marks)
Signs of intrathoracic disease (e.g. pleural effusion, superior vena cava obstruction)

109
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

Bloods:
-FBC: Anaemia of chronic disease, leucocytosis, raised neutrophils, raised eosinophils. Lymphopaenia (abnormal reduction) with advanced disease
-Raised ESR and CRP
-LFTs (raised LDH, raised transaminases if liver involved)
*Lymph node biopsy: Hodgkin’s cell can be a characteristic Reed-Sternberg cell
Bone marrow aspirate and trephine biopsy: Involvement seen only in very advanced disease
Imaging:
-CXR: mediastinal mass, large mediastinal adenopathy
-CT of thorax, abdomen and pelvis: may show enlarged lymph nodes and other sites of disease
-Gallium scan, PET scans: involved sites appear bright

110
Q

What is Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL)?

A

A diverse group consisting of 85% B cell, 15% T cell and NK cell forms, ranging from indolent (little/no pain) to aggressive disease and referred to as low, intermediate and high grades

111
Q

What is the aetiology of Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL)?

A

Complex process involving the accumulation of multiple genetic lesions (activation of oncogenes by chromosomal translocations and inactivation of tumour suppressor genes by chromosomal deletions or mutations)
The genome in certain lymphoma subtypes has been altered by the introduction of foreign genes via a number of oncogenic viruses: EBV has been detected in cases of Burkitt’s lymphoma and of AIDS- associated lymphomas

112
Q

What are some of the factors associated with the development of Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL)?

A
Radiotherapy
Immunosuppressive agents
Chemotherapy
HIV, Hep B V, Hep C V
Connective tissue diseases e.g. SLE
Inherited and acquired immunodeficiency syndromes
113
Q

What is the epidemiology of Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL)?

A

Incidence increase with age
More common in males
More common in the West

114
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL)?

A
Painless enlarging mass: Often in neck, axilla or groin
Systemic symptoms (*less frequent than in Hodgkin’s): 
-Fever
-Night sweats
-Weight loss > 10 % body weight
-Symptoms of hypercalcaemia.
Symptoms related to organ involvement (*extranodal disease is more common in NHL than in Hodgkin’s lymphoma): 
-Skin rashes
-Headache
-Sore throat
-Abdominal discomfort
-Testicular swelling
115
Q

What are the signs of Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL) on physical examination?

A
Painless firm rubbery lymphadenopathy: 
Cervical, axillary or inguinal
Oropharyngeal (Waldeyer’s ring of lymph nodes) involvement
Skin rashes: 
-Mycosis fungoides (well-defined indurated scaly plaque-like lesions with raised ulcerated nodules caused by cutaneous T-cell lymphoma) and Sezary’s syndrome
Abdominal mass
Hepatosplenomegaly
Signs of bone marrow involvement: 
-Anaemia, infections or purpura
116
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL) on physical examination?

A

Bloods:
FBC (anaemia, neutropaenia and thrombocytopaenia if bone marrow involved)
-U&Es, uric acid
-Raised ESR and CRP, raised LDH, LFTs (elevated transaminases with liver involvement), Ca2+ (may be raised)
-HIV, HBV and HCV serology (in select patients)
Blood film: Lymphoma cells may be visible in some patients, nucleated red blood cells
Lymph node biopsy: histopathologic evaluation
Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy: important for staging
Skin biopsy: useful for infiltration diagnosis
Imaging:
-PET scanning: increased uptake at involved sites
-CT plus PET scanning is of particular value for evaluation of extranodal involvement (staging)

117
Q

What is multiple myeloma?

A

Haematological malignancy characterized by proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow resulting in bone lesions and production of a monoclonal immunoglobulin in the serum and/or urine

118
Q

What is the aetiology of multiple myeloma?

A

Unknown
Genetic inheritance may play a role and/or a viral trigger
Chromosomal aberrations are frequent, certain cytokines (e.g. IL-6) act as potent growth factors for plasma cell proliferation
Multiple myeloma is associated with ionizing radiation, agricultural work or occupational chemical exposures (benzene)

119
Q

What is the epidemiology of multiple myeloma?

A

Annual incidence is 4 in 100,000, peak incidence in 70-year-olds
Afro- Caribbeans > white people > Asians

120
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of multiple myeloma?

A
*May be diagnosed incidentally on routine blood tests
Bone pain: 
-Often in back, ribs
-Sudden and severe if caused by pathological fracture or
vertebral collapse.
Infections: Often recurrent
General: 
-Tiredness
-Thirst
-Polyuria
-Nausea
-Constipation
-Mental change (resulting from hypercalcaemia)
Hyperviscocity: 
-Bleeding
-Headaches
-Visual disturbance
121
Q

What are the signs of multiple myeloma on physical examination?

A
Pallor- anaemia 
Tachycardia
Flow murmur
Signs of heart failure
Dehydration
Purpura
Hepatosplenomegaly
Macroglossia
Carpal tunnel syndrome 
Peripheral neuropathies
122
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for multiple myeloma?

A

*Diagnostic test: serum/urine electrophoresis: Serum paraprotein (two-thirds IgG, one-third IgA)
Bloods:
-FBC (low Hb, normochromic normocytic)
-Elevated ESR and CRP (CRP may be normal with elevated ESR)-extent of advanced disease
-U&E (high creatinine, high Ca2+ in 45%), typically normal AlkPhos [renal impairment]
Blood film: Rouleaux formation (stacks or aggregations of RBC) with bluish background (high protein)
Skeletal survey- chest, pelvic or vertebral X-ray: Osteolytic lesions without surrounding sclerosis, osteopenia
*Bone marrow aspirate an biopsy: monoclonal plasma cell infiltration

123
Q

What is neutropenic sepsis?

A

A potentially life-threatening complication of anti-cancer and other immunosuppressive drug treatment
It is defined as a temperature of greater than 38°C or any symptoms and/or signs of sepsis, in a person with an absolute neutrophil count of 0.5 x 109/L or lower

124
Q

What is sepsis?

A

A syndrome defined as life-threatening organ dysfunction due to a dysregulated host response to infection

125
Q

What is neutropenia?

A

The risk of clinically significant infection and sepsis increases as the neutrophil count decreases to less than 0.5 x 109/L

126
Q

What does CRAB stand for in multiple myeloma?

A

C: hyperCalcaemia
R: renal failure
A: anaemia
B: bone lesions

127
Q

What is the aetiology of neutropenic sepsis?

A

It is a common complication of chemotherapy- often more common in patients with haematological malignancies than in patients with solid tumours
Risk: greatest with the first treatment, also cumulative with ongoing cycles of therapy

128
Q

What are the risk factors for neutropenic sepsis?

A

Infants and people over 60 years of age are at higher risk
Corticosteroids (additional immunosuppression)
Co-morbidities: diabetes mellitus, liver disease, renal disease; poor nutritional status
Full dose intensity chemotherapy
Concurrent radiotherapy
Prior episodes of neutropenia following chemotherapy

129
Q

What is the epidemiology of neutropenic sepsis?

A

The most common life-threatening complication of cancer therapy
Higher incidence in patients with heamatological malignancy

130
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of neutropenic sepsis?

A

Symptoms or signs indicating possible infection:
Dysuria
Dyspnoea
Diarrhoea
Cough
Nausea or vomiting
Chills, shivers and/or a temperature greater than 38°C

131
Q

What are the signs of neutropenic sepsis on physical examination?

A
Clinical features of possible sepsis:
-Fever
-Rigors
-Tachycardia
-Hypotension
*people with sepsis may present with non-specific, non-localized clinical features:
-general malaise
-agitation
-behavioural change
In addition, neutropenia may cause changes in behaviour, mental state, or cognition which is independent from the onset of sepsis
132
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for neutropenic sepsis?

A

Bloods:
-FBC: absolute neutrophil count (ANC) <500
-U&Es: normal or elevated, indicator of renal dysfunction
-LFTs: albumin <35 g/L (also a RF for neutropenic sepsis), total bilirubin and aminotransferases elevated
Blood cultures: positive for pathogen
CXR: infiltrates in pneumonia
Others:
-Stool and urine culture
-Lumbar puncture: for patients with suspected CNS infection
-Viral assay
-CT of chest, abdomen and pelvis: infiltrates of pneumonia

133
Q

What is oesophageal cancer?

A

Malignant tumour arising in the oesophageal mucosa. There are two major histological types:

  • Squamous cell carcinoma
  • Adenocarcinoma
134
Q

What is the aetiology of oesophageal cancer?

A

Squamous cell carcinomas are more common in the mid-upper oesophagus
Adenocarcinoma usually develops in the lower oesophagus or, increasingly, the gastro- oesophageal junction
*Barrett’s oesophagus (metaplasia of the mucosal lining of the distal oesophagus) is caused by long-standing gastro-oesophageal reflux, and is considered a pre-malignant condition for the development of adenocarcinoma

135
Q

What are the risk factors for oesophageal cancer?

A
Male sex (7:1)
Squamous cell carcinoma:
-Alcohol
-Tobacco
-FH of oesophageal, stomach, oral or pharyngeal cancer
-Certain nutritional deficiencies (vitamins, trace elements)
-HPV infection
-Achalasia
Adenocarcinoma:
-GORD
-Barrett’s oesophagus
-Obesity
136
Q

What is the epidemiology of oesophageal cancer?

A

Eighth most common malignancy (UK 7000–8000 per year)
3/4:1 male : female
Worldwide squamous carcinoma is more common (95%) but in the West Adenocarcinoma is more common (65% cases in the UK)- INCIDENCE IS INCREASING
Peak incidence 60–70 years

137
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of oesophageal cancer?

A
Early: symptomatic/symptoms of reflux
Later: 
-Dysphagia, initially worse for solids
-Regurgitation
-Cough or choking after food
-Pain on swallowing (odynophagia)
-Weight loss, fatigue
-Voice hoarseness (may indicate recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy)
138
Q

What are the signs of oesophageal cancer on physical examination?

A

No physical signs may be evident
Signs of weight loss
With metastatic disease there may be supraclavicular lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly
Respiratory signs may be due to aspiration or direct tracheobronchial involvement

139
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for oesophageal cancer?

A

Endoscopy:

  • *First test- Oesophagogastrodueodenoscopy (OGD) with biopsy: mucosal lesion; histology shows squamous carcinoma or adenocarcinoma
  • Early high-grade dysplasia and cancer detection is improved by endoscopic techniques such as narrow band imaging or magnification, staging

Imaging:

  • Barium swallow- exclude differentials
  • CT (chest, abdomen, pelvis): size of primary tumour, local invasion, and presence or absence of metastases
  • PET: hyperactivity ‘hot’ spot, can detect previously occult distant metastases

Other:

  • Bronchoscopy (if risk of trancheobronchial invasion)
  • Bone scan if symptoms of bony involvement
  • Laparoscopy and peritoneal washings
  • Careful cardiac and respiratory assessment if surgery planned
140
Q

What is pancreatic cancer?

A

Malignancy arising from the exocrine or endocrine tissues of the pancreas
Refers to primary pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma, which accounts for >85% of all pancreatic neoplasms

141
Q

What is the aetiology of pancreatic cancer?

A

Pancreatic cancer is a disease of older people, with a peak incidence in people 65 to 75 years of age
The only consistently reported exogenous risk factor for pancreatic cancer is cigarette smoking
5-10% have a familial component
Other risk factors(weak):
-Obesity
-Diabetes Mellitus
-Dietary factors ( high in meats and fat, and low serum folate)

142
Q

What is the epidemiology of pancreatic cancer?

A

Increasing in incidence (8–12/100000), worldwide sixth cause of cancer deaths (poor prognosis)
Peak age 60–80 years

143
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of pancreatic cancer?

A
Initial symptoms (often non-specific):
-Anorexia
-Malaise
-Weight loss
-Nausea
Later symptoms: jaundice, epigastric pain
144
Q

What are the signs of pancreatic cancer of physical examination?

A

Signs of:
-Weight loss
-Epigastric tenderness
-Mass
Courvoisier’s law:
Jaundice and a painless palpable gallbladder - UNLIKELY TO BE GALLSTONES (rather carcinoma of the pancreas or the lower biliary tree)
In patients with metastatic spread: there may be hepatomegaly
Trousseau’s sign is an associated superficial thrombophlebitis (sign in hypocalcaemia): increased risk of thromboembolic disease

145
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for pancreatic cancer?

A

Bloods:
-Tumour marker CA19-9 can be elevated (specific, but not diagnostic)
-If causing obstructive jaundice: bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, and gamma glutamyl transpeptidase elevated
Imaging:
-*(without delay)Abdominal ultrasound: pancreatic mass, dilated bile ducts, liver metastases
-Pancreatic protocol CT: may demonstrate a mass in the pancreas and the extent of local or distant spread
-ERCP: ampullary tumour may be seen; all other pancreatic tumours are only detectable if there is pancreatic duct involvement, may allow biopsy/bile cytology with stenting
-PET scan: may demonstrate a mass in the pancreas
-MRI: detailed duct involvement
-Endoscopic ultrasound: detect small tumours in the pancreas
-Laparoscopy: useful in staging the disease (peritoneum, liver)

146
Q

What is squamous cell carcinoma of the skin?

A

The proliferation of atypical, transformed epidermal keratinocytes in the skin with malignant behaviour

147
Q

What is the aetiology of squamous cell carcinoma of the skin?

A

The incidence of non-melanoma skin tumours varies dramatically on:

  • Skin phototype or constitutive pigmentation
  • Cumulative sun exposure (geographic latitude)
  • Solar UV exposure (MAIN RF)
  • Ionising radiation
  • Burns
  • Hereditary skin conditions
  • Environmental toxins such as arsenic and tar
  • Human papillomavirus
  • Some immunocompromised states
148
Q

What is the epidemiology of squamous cell carcinoma of the skin?

A

Second most common cutaneous malignancy (20% of skin cancers)
Often occurring in middle-aged and elderly light-skinned individuals
Annual incidence is about 1/4,000
Male > female (2/3:1)

149
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of squamous cell carcinoma of the skin?

A

Skin lesion:

  • Ulcerated
  • Recurrent bleeding or non-healing
  • Growing
  • Marjolin ulcer presents in an area of previously traumatised, chronically inflamed or scarred skin
150
Q

What are the signs of squamous cell carcinoma of the skin on physical examination?

A
Variable appearance: 
-Ulcerated
-Hyperkeratotic
-Crusted or scaly
-Non-healing lesion
*often on sun-exposed areas
Palpate for local lymphadenopathy- metastatic disease
151
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for squamous cell carcinoma of the skin?

A

Skin biopsy: Confirms malignancy (full thickness keratinocyte atypia) and distinguishes it from other skin lesions
Fine-needle aspiration or lymph node biopsy: Only necessary if suspicion of metastasis
Staging: CT and/or MRI, PET scanning: lymphadenopathy and/or visceral nodules
Bloods: normal unless metastasis

152
Q

What is Testicular cancer?

A

The most common malignancy in young adult men (15 to 44 years of age), and highly curable when diagnosed early

153
Q

What is the aetiology of Testicular cancer?

A

All germ cell tumours are believed to start developing during fetal development and to progress through a non-invasive stage called intratubular germ cell neoplasia unclassified (carcinoma in situ).

154
Q

What are the different types of Testicular cancer?

A
  1. Seminoma 55% (30–65yrs)
  2. Non-seminomatous germ cell tumour, 33% (previously teratoma; 20–30yrs)
  3. Mixed germ cell tumour
  4. Lymphoma- most common in men > 50 (9-12%)
    * *Around 90–95% of testicular tumours are germ cell tumours, mainly teratomas and seminomas
155
Q

What are the risk factors for Testicular cancer?

A
  • Cryptorchidism (undescended testis): relative risk of 2 to 17 times for malignancy, highest risk in abdominal and bilateral undescended testes. Seminoma (predominant type of tumour)
  • Gonadal dysgenesis: changes in the gonadotrophin feedback regulation
  • FH of testicular cancer
  • PMH of testicular cancer: risk of developing a second primary cancer in the contralateral testis
  • Testicular atrophy: Can be secondary to trauma, hormones, and viral orchitis (mainly at a younger age)
  • HIV infection
  • White ethnicity, aged 25-35 years
156
Q

What is the epidemiology of Testicular cancer?

A

Testicular cancer accounts for 1% of all cancers, and less than 1% of all cancer death in males
In the UK 1,400 men are diagnosed with testicular cancer every year, with the highest incidence in those aged 25–35 years
White men have the highest incidence, compared with African and Asian men

157
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of Testicular cancer?

A

Testicular mass (usually painless (>85%), 10% present with acute pain)
Extratesticular manifestations: (5-10%) at the time of presentation. These include:
-Bone pain (skeletal metastasis)
-Lower extremity swelling (venous occlusion)
-Supraclavicular lymph nodes
-Symptoms and/or signs of hyperthyroidism
-Gynaecomastia

158
Q

What are the signs of Testicular cancer on physical examination?

A

Testicular mass: About 55% of cases occur on the right side. In up to 2% of cases, testicular cancer is bilateral
Extratesticular manifestations:
-Bone pain (skeletal metastasis)
-Lower extremity swelling (venous occlusion)
-Supraclavicular lymph nodes
-Symptoms and/or signs of hyperthyroidism
-Gynaecomastia

159
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for Testicular cancer?

A

*Principal test (sensitivity 100%): Ultrasound of testis: testicular mass
Bloods (tumour markers):
-beta human chorionic gonadotrophin (B-hcg): >0.7 IU/L
-alpha- fetoprotein (AFP): >25 microgram/L
-lactate dehydrogenase (LDH): >25 U/L

Imaging:
CT abdomen and pelvis: enlarged retroperitoneal lymph nodes
MRI: staging tool
CXR: mediastinal and lung mass suggestive of metastasis
Excision biopsy

160
Q

What is thyroid cancer?

A

The most common endocrinological malignancy and 4 types account for more than 98% of thyroid malignancies:

  • Papillary
  • Follicular
  • Anaplastic
  • Medullary
161
Q

What is the aetiology of thyroid cancer?

A

Genetic alterations are thought to underlie thyroid cancers (Family history is a strong RF)

  • Papillary: BRAF mutations
  • Follicular: PPAR gamma gene
  • Medullary: mutations in a tyrosine kinase receptor gene
162
Q

What is the epidemiology of thyroid cancer?

A

The most common endocrinological malignancy, the rates of new thyroid cancer cases have been rising over the past few decades
More common in women than in men
Most likely to be diagnosed between the ages of 45 to 54 years

163
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of thyroid cancer?

A

Neck lump
Hoarseness
Dyspnoea
Dysphagia

164
Q

What are the signs of thyroid cancer on physical examination?

A

Palpable thyroid nodule (most common in early adulthood)
Tracheal deviation: enlarged goitre
Cervical lymphadenopathy suggestive of neck metastasis

165
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for thyroid cancer?

A

Initial screening test: TSH, often normal
Ultrasound neck: micro-calcifications, a more-tall-than-wide shape, hypervascularity, marked hypoechogenicity, or irregular margins
Fine needle biopsy: cytology of malignant features (variations in appearance), anapaestic (poorly differentiated)
Laryngoscopy: paralysed vocal cord is highly suggestive of malignancy

Others:
-Free T3/T4: normal
-Iodine thyroid scan/uptake: ordered for patients with overt or subclinical hyperthyroidism
(Hot nodules: hyperfunctioning -almost always benign, cold nodule: hypofunctioning- most are benign but malignant nodules are also cold)
-CT neck: lymphadenopathy
-Serum calcitonin (parafollicular cells, opposes the action of parathyroid hormone): Normal is <10 nanograms/L, high in medullary cancer

166
Q

What is tumour lysis syndrome?

A

A combination of metabolic and electrolyte abnormalities
occurring spontaneously or following initiation of chemotherapy resulting in:
-hyperkalaemia
-hyperphosphataemia
-secondary hypocalcaemia
-hyperuricaemia
-acute renal failure
Characterised by rapid cell death (excessive cell lysis)

167
Q

What is the aetiology of tumour lysis syndrome?

A

Appears in haematological malignancies characterised by a high proliferating rate, in particular non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, acute lymphocytic leukaemia, and acute myeloid leukaemia
The risk of developing TLS is increased:
-if the tumour consists of rapidly dividing cells
-if the bulk of the disease is high
-if response to treatment is good

*Pre-existing renal impairment and/or dehydration are predisposing factors

168
Q

What is the epidemiology of tumour lysis syndrome?

A

Incidence of TLS is unknown- more prevalent in malignancies with high proliferating rates, tumour burden, and chemosensitivity
Males and females of any age or ethnic group can be affected
*Advanced age may increase the risk of developing TLS due to reduced glomerular filtration rate

169
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of tumour lysis syndrome?

A
Nausea and vomiting
Diarrhoea
Muscle weakness/ cramps
Anorexia
Lethargy
Paraesthesia
Oliguria/anuria/haematuria
170
Q

What are the signs of tumour lysis syndrome on physical examination?

A

Hypertension/ hypotension
Lymphadenopathy
Splenomegaly
Peripheral oedema

171
Q

What are the appropriate investigations for tumour lysis syndrome?

A

Bloods:
-Serum uric acid: >476 micromol/L (8 mg/dL) or a 25% increase
-Serum phosphate: 25% increase
-Serum Potassium: >6.0 mmol/L (6 mg/L) or 25% increase
-Serum calcium: <1.75 mmol/L (7 mg/dL) or 25% decrease
-Serum creatinine: >1.5 times upper limit of normal
-Serum urea: elevated with acute renal failure
-FBC: High levels of pretreatment WBC increase the likelihood of tumour lysis syndrome
-Lactate dehydrogenase: elevated
Urine pH: ≤5
Consider: ECG: arrhythmia with hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphataemia, or hypocalcaemia