Neuropathology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the most common primary tumours that spread to the Brain?

A
  • Breast
  • Melanoma
  • Lung
  • Kidney
  • gut
  • lymphoma /leukaemia
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2
Q

What are the symptoms of a space occupying lesion?

A
  • fits
  • Drowsiness
  • Behavioural change
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3
Q

Breast cancer and spread to the brain

A
  • Ductal and lobule carcinoma

* Ductal carcinoma is more likely to spread to the Brian

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4
Q

What is a triple negative breast cancer?

A
  • No oestrogen receptor
  • no HER2 target
  • no progesterone receptor
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5
Q

What is the most common intracranial primary neoplasm?

A

Meningioma approx 1/3

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6
Q

What is most common neoplasm on the malignant spectrum?

A

Glioma

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7
Q

Intracranial peripheral nerve tumour

A

Acoustic schwannoma

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8
Q

Where do meningiomas develop?

A

At the sites of arachnoid

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9
Q

How do meningiomas cause damage?

A

They are not invasive but they are erosive and compressive

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10
Q

What are the symptoms of meningiomas?

A
  • Fits
  • Drowsiness
  • Headaches
  • Sometimes bleed
  • Sometimes there is a personality change
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11
Q

What is the treatment of meningiomas?

A
  • Surgical removal

* Radiation encouraged as can activate the tumour making it more metastatic

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12
Q

Which cells can gliomas develop from?

A
  • Astrocytes
  • Oligodendrocytes
  • Ependyma/choroid plexus
  • microglia
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13
Q

What are the types of gliomas?

A
  • Astrocytoma - common
  • Oligodendeoglioma
  • Ependyma
  • Medulloblastoma and PNET
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14
Q

Describe the WHO glioma grading

A
  • I - localised (potentially curable)
  • II - diffuse
  • III anaplastic astrocytoma
  • I glioblastoma multiforme
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15
Q

Describe the diagnostic and prognostic molecular and genetic testing

A
  • BRAF fusion gene and V600E point mutations (astrocytoma)
  • molecular analysis of LOH1p/19q in astrocytomas and oligodendrogliomas
  • IDH1/2 mutations = better outlook
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16
Q

Describe prognostic and predictive molecular testing

A
  • methylation of MGMT in malignant gliomas

* Molecular analysis of EGFR amplifications and EGFRvIII mutations in GBM

17
Q

What are the peripheral nerve tumours?

A
  • Nerve: neuroblastoma, ganglioneuroma
  • Schwannoma or neurofibroma - benign
  • CNVIII - vestibulocochlear: acoustic nerve
18
Q

What is a Schwannoma?

A
  • Tumour arising from the Schwann cell
  • Compresses the nerve but potential for successful excision
  • Can be painful as it presses on the nerve
19
Q

What is a neurofibroma?

A
  • Nerve sheath: non- myelinating Schwann cell (myelin sheath)
  • Diffuse: fibrous like tissue: can’t be dissected out while preserving the nerve (leave alone unless symptomatic)
  • Can be sporadic, possibly as result of trauma
20
Q

Describe neurofibromatosis

A
  • Autosomal dominant
  • 50% spontaneous
  • Mutation in gene NF1
  • Multiple tumours growing in multiple locations
  • Cafe au lait
21
Q

What happens if neurofibromatosis is left untreated?

A

Can become malignant - neurofibrosarcoma

22
Q

What are the problems of relying on pathology?

A
  • Sampling error e.g. sampling wrong bit in a a temporal artery biopsy
  • Accessibility of the tissue
  • Often tissue is only available in late disease process e.g. post mortem
23
Q

Describe the pathology of multiple sclerosis

A
  • Recurrent inflammation due to a breakdown of the blood brain barrier
  • Infiltration of inflammatory cells that go on to cause demyelination
  • This tends to happen around fingers or venules, particularly around the paraventricular region of the brain and the corpus callous (Dawson’s fingers)
  • Degree of recovery - demyelination, this leaves shadow plaques where there has been deposition but is thinner
  • Astrocytes, fibrous plaques, hardened plaques
24
Q

Describe the pathology of motorneuorone disease

A
  • Degeneration of corticospinal tract - preservation fo the dorsal columns and sensory tracts
  • Degeneration of hypoglossal nuclei (in the medial medulla)
25
Q

What are the causes of peripheral neuropathy?

A
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Idiopathic
  • Toxic: alcohol, drugs
  • Post infections
  • Vitamin deficiency
  • Paraneoplastic
  • Leprosy
  • Amyloid, other inflammation
26
Q

What is the most common cause of inherited peripheral neuropathy?

A

• An abnormality in the peripheral myelin protein 22

27
Q

What is the phenotype of Charcot Marie tooth?

A

Distal wasting and weakness resulting arched feet and champagne bottle legs

28
Q

When would you carry out a sural nerve biopsy?

A
  • To work out the cause of a neuropathy and determine if it is treatable
  • Only do if there is a good reason for doing so as the patient will lose sensation beyond the point of biopsy and 30% will experience a burning neuropathic pain
29
Q

What are slow twitch fibres innervated by?

A

alpha 2 motor neurones

30
Q

What are fast twitch fibres innervated by?

A

Alpha 1 motor neurones

31
Q

Out of slow and fast twitch fibres, which has a higher conduction velocity?

A

• Fast twitch

32
Q

Describe motor unit recruitment

A
  • Motor neurones are recruited in order of size
  • Smallest alpha motor neurones, which belong to slow twitch are recruited first
  • Largest alpha motor neurones which belong to fit twitch are recruited last
33
Q

Describe the staining properties of slow and fast twitch fibres

A
  • Slow twitch have myosin isoforms have low ATPase activity

* Fast twitch have myosin isoforms with high ATPase activity

34
Q

In a muscle biopsy, which muscle is usually used?

A
  • Deltoid
  • Quadriceps
  • Tibilais anterior
35
Q

What is DMD?

A
  • Duchenne muscular dystrophy
  • X linked recessive, only affects boys
  • Dystrophin - protein that links the cytoskeleton to the membrane