Neuropathology Flashcards

1
Q

Where are fibroblasts normally found in the CNS?

How do wounds in the CNS heal?

A

Fibroblasts in the CNS are found in the leptomeninges and in the few outer mm of the CNS. They are pulled into cerebral cortex with blood vessels

Wounds deep in the CNS (abscess) heal by the proliferation of astrocytes/astrocyte processes

Superficial wounds or wounds that extend through the leptomeninges heal by synthesis and deposition of collagen by fibroblasts and by the proliferation of astrocytic foot processes

McGavin

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2
Q

7 microscopic changes that occur in the neuronal cell body

A
  1. Central chromatolysis after: axonal injury, degenerative conditions, viral infection or inherited conditions
  2. Ischemic cell change
  3. Enlargement of the cell body in lysosomal storage diseases
  4. Accumulation of lipofuscin pigment in aging
  5. Accumulation of neurofilaments in certain neuronal degenerative diseases
  6. Inclusion body formation in certain viral diseases
  7. Cytoplasmic vacuolation in spongiform encephalopathies

McGavin

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3
Q

4 reasons neurons are vulnerable cells

A
  1. Large requirements for energy
  2. Lack intracellular glucose reserves
  3. Vulnerable to free radical oxidative stresses
  4. Vulnerable to excicotoxiticy
    • Under normal conditions, astrocytic processes surrounding synapses have efficient uptake systems to remove excitotoxins so neurons are not injured

McGavin

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4
Q

9 causes of acute neuronal necrosis

How long does it take to see histopathologic evidence of necrosis?

A

Acute neuronal necrosis = acidophilic or ischemic necrosis

  1. Cerebral ischemia
  2. Vascular thrombosis
  3. Cardiac failure
  4. Inflammatory mediators
  5. Toxins (CO, cyanide poisoning, bacterial toxins)
  6. Thermal Injury
  7. Heavy metals
  8. Nutritional deficiencies
  9. Trauma

Conditions that reduce ATP generation via oxidative phosphorylation lead to neuronal degeneration and death

Takes 6-8h

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5
Q

How do cyanide poisoning and CO poisoning cause acute neuronal necrosis?

A

Cyanide poisoning: interference with cytochrome oxidase activity in mitochondria

CO poisoning: competitive inhibition of O2 uptake

McGavin

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6
Q

Which neurons are the most susceptible to injury? (4)

A
  1. Purkinje neurons
  2. Some striatial neurons
  3. Neurons of the 3rd, 5th, and 6th cerebral cortical lamina
  4. Hippocampal pyramidal cells

Also regional: Cerebral cortex and striatum > thalamus > brainstem > spinal cord

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7
Q

What ion abnormality is associated with excitotoxicity?

A

Increased intracellular calcium:

  • CNS injury –> altered mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum –> increase in the release of normally sequestered intracellular calcium
  • Neuronal depolarization –> release of excitatory glutamate –> persistent activation of glutamate receptors –> excitotoxicity and influx of extracellular calcium into cells
  • Excitotoxicity is enhanced by ROS effects on cell membranes
    • reperfusion of ischemic tissue can enhance the generation of ROS

McGavin

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8
Q

Neuron characteristics on HE stained section:

  1. Cytoplasm of the cell body is shrunken, eosinophilic, sharply angular to triangular in shape
  2. Nucleus is reduced in size, triangular, central, pyknotic
  3. Nucleolus and Nissl substance are not detectable
A

Ischemic neurons

  • Following ishcemia: neurons are removed either by neuronophagia (microglia) or lysis
  • there is swelling of perineuronal and perivascular astrocytic processes and eventual replacement of the space left by loss of the neuron cell body by astrocytes and their processes

McGavin

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9
Q

Grossly: atrophy of cerebral gyri and widening of the sulci

Microscopically: diminished numbers of neurons, astrogliosis, atrophy and loss of neurons in functionally related systems

What is the broad term? What are possible causes?

A

Chronic neuronal loss = simple neuronal atrophy

Causes:

  1. Cerebral cortical atrophy of aging
  2. Ceroid lipofuscinosis
  3. Various selective or multisystem neuronal degeneration

McGavin

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10
Q

What is the difference between spheroids and digestion chambers in Wallerian Degeneration?

What changes are seen in the neuronal cell body with Wallerian Degeneration?

A

Damage to nerve fiber –> decreased/halted axonal transport –> segmental swellings in the axon = spheroids

Axon’s myelin degenerates –> areas of vacuolation into which macrophages infiltrate and digest necrotic axonal and myelin debris = digestion chambers

Neuronal cell body: Swelling, central chromatolysis

McGavin

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11
Q

How does the rate of development of Wallerian Degneration vary based on the diameter of the axon?

A

Larger axon - faster rate of degeneration

McGavin

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12
Q

What are astrocytic responses to CNS injury?

What is the difference between astrocytosis and astrogliosis?

What are gemisocytic astrocytes vs. fibrillary astrocytes?

A

Reaction to CNS injury:

  1. Swelling (acute response, is reversible or may progress to hypertrophy) = Gemisocyte
  2. Hypertrophy
  3. Division
  4. Laying down intermediate filaments in cell processes

Astrocytosis: Astrocytes have increased size and number in response to injury

Astrogliosis: Somewhat synonymous with hypertrophy. Synthesis of intermediate filaments, increased length, complexity and branching of the astrocytic processes

Gemisocytes (aka plump astrocyte): reactive astrocyte where the nuclei enlarges and cell body becomes visible on HE. Acute injury

  • normally the cytoplasm of astrocytes is not visible

Fibrillary astrocyte: chronic reactive astrocyte with large numbers of GFAP containing processes. Also called sclerosis

Pic: arrow = gemisocyte

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13
Q

What are “astrocytic nuclei that tend to be in pairs, triplets, quartets, or occasionally with prominent central nucleoli, surrounded by a clear space of edematous cytoplasm”

A

Alzheimer type II astrocytes

(hepatic and renal enceephalopathy)

McGavin

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14
Q

What is a network of interlaced astrocytic processes called?

A

glial scar

  • provides a loose barrier that separates the injured brain from normal adjacent tissue
  • The astroglia act to reform a glia limitans around the injured region of the CNS in an effort to restore the BBB and re-establish fluid/electrolyte balance

McGavin

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15
Q

Oligodendrocytes swell and hypertrophy around injured neurons - what is this called?

A

Satellitosis

  • Other glial cells can contribute to satellosis

McGavin

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16
Q

5 mechanisms of Primary Demyelination?

A
  1. Inherited enzyme defects –> formation of abnormal myelin
  2. Impairment of myelin synthesis and maintenance (infection, nutritional, toxin, cyanide poisoning, Cuprizone toxicity)
  3. Loss of myelin as a consequence of cytotoxic edema (status spongiosus)
  4. Destruction of myelin by detergent-like metabolites (lysolechitin)
  5. Immunologic destruction of myelin (Coonhound paralysis, marek’s disease (chickens), canine distemper)

McGavin

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17
Q

Nutritional causes of primary demyelination?

A
  1. Copper deficiency
  2. Malnutrition
  3. Vitamin B12 deficiency

McGavin

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18
Q

If the ventricle is stretched by enlargement –> results in tearing of the ependymal lining, will this lining be repaired?

A

no

  • after 1-2 weeks, astrogliosis occurs in the repaired areas

McGavin

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19
Q

What are the 4 ways that microglia respond to injury?

What is focal proliferation of microglia called?

A
  1. Hypertrophy
  2. Hyperplasia
  3. Phagocytosis of cellular/myelina debris
  4. Neuronophagia

Focal proliferation –> glial nodule

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20
Q

Immune functions of microglia (4)

A
  1. Express MHC 1 and II
  2. Serve as antigen presenting cell
  3. Possess broad adhesion molecules, cytokines, chemokines
  4. Produce NO, ROS, and chemical mediators of inflammation

McGavin

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21
Q

Embryonic origin of?

  • neurons
  • astrocytes
  • oligodendrocytes
  • microglia
A

Neurons, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes originate from neuroectoderm

  • Neurons from neuroblasts
  • Astrocytes and oligodendrocytes from spongioblasts

Microglia - mesoderm

ACVIM Proceedings

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22
Q

3 Causes of pseudolaminar cortical necrosis:

A
  1. Cerebral hypoxia
  2. Systemic hypoglycemia
  3. Polioencephalomalacia from thiamine deficiency (rum), lead poisoning (rum) and salt poisoning (pig)

ACVIM Proceedings

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23
Q

Main type of cells?

A

Reactive astrocytes - small nuclei with expanded eosinophilic cytoplasm

ACVIM Proceedings

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24
Q

Sato et al found that dogs with progressive myelomalacia after acute thoracolumbar intervertebral disc herniation were more likely to have detectable serum _____________ than dogs with disc herniation but without myelomalacia

Nishida et al. assessed phosphorylated neurofilament subunit NF-H in the serum of dogs with acute intervertebral disk herniation and found differences between dogs with different _____________ as well as higher concentrations in dogs that did not regain ______________

A

Serum GFAP

Nishida et al. assessed phosphorylated neurofilament subunit NF-H in the serum of dogs with acute intervertebral disk herniation and found differences between dogs with different injury severities as well as higher concentrations in dogs that did not regain the ability to ambulate after surgery

ACVIM Proceedings

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25
Q

What four biomarkers are elevated in dogs with SRMA?

A

C-reactive protein (CRP)

Serum amyloid A (SAA)

Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein (AGP)

Serum IgA - does NOT vary substantially with effective therapy or relapse

Dogs with SRMA have dramatically elevated serum CRP concentrations which decrease dramatically after effective immunosuppressive therapy. With clinical signs consistent with relapse of the disease, CRP and SAA concentrations are again elevated (even when CSF cytology is WNL)

CRP, SAA and AGP evaluated within the CSF - showed increased concentrations but more variable and less dramatic than changes in serum, not useful for detecting relapses

CSF IgA concentrations are dramatically increased in dogs with SRMA, do not change substantially with therapy or with relapse

ACVIM Proceedings

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26
Q

Miyake et al found that pugs with NME had increased concentrations of ____________ in their serum

A

GFAP

  • such elevations were not found in other CNS diseases or in other breeds with NME

ACVIM Proceedings

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27
Q

What is the utility of CSF GFAP as a marker for NME?

CSF anti-GFAP autoantibodies

Serum GFAP?

Serum GFAP autoantibodies?

A

Dogs with NME

  • CSF GFAP - elevated when compared with healthy controls, noninflammatory CNS diseases, dogs with other inflammatory CNS diseases
  • CSF GFAP autoantibodies - highest in dogs with NME (but some of the healthy pugs had high CSF concentrations of GFAP)
  • Serum GFAP - only pugs with NME showed elevated serum GFAP concentrations, other breeds with NME did not, did not correlate with survival time
  • Serum GFAP autoantibodies - detectable in dogs with NME but “much less discriminatory” as they are increased in dogs with other diseases

ACVIM Proceedings

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28
Q

Biomarker found to be:

  • detectable in the plasma of dogs with intracranial tumors
  • more likely to be detected in the plasma of dogs with astrocytomas than meningiomas or oligodendrogliomas
A

VEG-F

  • concentrations were greater in dogs with higher-grade tumors

ACVIM Proceedings

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29
Q

Axonal degeneration of the upper and lower motor neurons, axonal degeneration with secondary demyelination and astroglial proliferation in all spinal cord funiculi (most severe in dorsal portion of lateral funiculus and dorsal columns of the middle to lower thoracic region) in the dog - indicates?

A

Degenerative myelopathy

  • Cytoplasmic aggregates that bind anti-SOD1 antibodies are usually present in spinal cord
  • late state disease with LMN signs - denervation atrophy in muscle, nerve fiber loss with axonal degeneration and secondary myelin loss in myelinated fibers of peripheral nerves
  • thoracic intercostal muscles of dogs with DM indicate that there are significant atrophic changes in these muscles at stages of the disease in which there is no apparent degeneration of the associated motor neurons
  • Neuronal cell body degeneration or loss in the ventral horn of the spinal cord is not a prominent histopathologic finding until late in the disease
  • Significant sensory neuron degeneration preceded evidence of motor neuron pathology

ACVIM Proceedings

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30
Q

Failure of closure of dorsal aspect of the vertebral foramen in multiple adjacent vertebrae is called?

Failure of the neural tube to close is called?

What is a term for malformation of the spinal cord owing to abnormal interaction of the notochord, paraxial mesoderm, and neural plate during neurulation?

A

Rachischisis (failure of multiple adjacent vertebral arches to close)

  • Most common in the lumbosacral region

Myesoschisis (failure of neural tube to close)

  • Usually involves a number of adjacent spinal cord segments
  • for this to occur - skin ectoderm remains attached to the borders of the neural plate –> prevents any vertebral arches from forming
  • resulting in persistent attachment of the cutaneous ectoderm to the neural plate and inability of the vertebral arches to close around the open neural plate
  • ALWAYS results in spina bifida

Myelodysplasia = malformation of the spinal cord owing to abnormal interaction of the notochord, paraxial mesoderm, and neural plate during neurulation

  • Almost always occur with vertebral malformations due to interrelated embryologic signs
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31
Q

What condition results when there is destruction of neuroepithelial cells that give rise to the telencephalon?

Multiple cystic cavities that communicate with the lateral ventricle - what is this called?

A

Hydrancephaly

Porencephaly (similar pathogenesis to hydrancephaly)

(DeLahunta)

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32
Q

Most common cause of hydrancephaly in animals?

A

Virus induced destruction of germinal cells

  • destruction of neuroepithelial cells that give rise to the telencephalon
    • Destruction of germinal layer cells –> aplasia; destruction of differentiated neopallial neurons –> atrophy
  • Can also occur due to vascular interruptions
  • The neopallium is reduced to a thin pial/glial membrane with no associated parenchyma other than a thin layer of ependyma lining the lateral ventricle
    • Sometimes concurrent microphthalmia
  • Usually the olfactory paeopallium, archipallium (hippocampus), and basal nuclei are spared
    • Cerebellar lesions occasionally present

(DeLahunta, braund)

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33
Q

Viral causes of hydrancephaly (5)

A
  1. Akabane
  2. Bluetongue
    • Sheep - can be caused by live virus vaccination of dam
      • Innoculation 50 - 58d –> necrotizing encpehalitis/hydrancephaly
      • 75 - 78d –> porencephaly
    • Calves - infection around 125d gestation –> hydrancephaly
  3. Bovine viral diarrhea (cerebellum more affected)
  4. Feline Panleukopenia (cerebellum more affected, can be caused by dam innoculation with MLV)
  5. Cache valley virus

(DeLahunta)

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34
Q

What is internal vs. external hydrocephalus?

A

Internal hydrocephalus - ventricular dilation w/ CSF accumulation

External hydrocephalus - CSF accumulation in a dilated SAS (also called hydrocephalus exvacuo)

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35
Q

How does Vitamin A deficiency cause hydrocephalus?

A

Vitamin A deficiency in calves –> dural fibrosis –> affects arachnoid villi –> decreased CSF absorption –> CSF hypertension

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36
Q

Bacterial hematogenous CNS diseases often start where?

A

Interface between white and gray matter, and in the cerebral vessels

  • Thought to result from abrupt changes in vascular flow or luminal diameter of vessels at the interface - these changes make endothelial cells more susceptible to injury, vasculitis and thrombosis, and predispose the vessels to entrapment of tumor/bacterial emboli

(McGavin)

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37
Q
  • Empty cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in the neuronal cell body in the red nucleus in cattle
  • Eosinophilic inclusion bodies (pseudo-Negri bodies) in the lateral geniculate body and hippocampus in cats
  • Pseudo-negri bodies in the thalamic and cellular Purkinje cells in dogs
  • Dark brown melanin granules in the hypothalamus

What is the common significance of these inclusions?

A

Normal/nonpathologic neuronal inclusions

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38
Q

What are the possible outcomes of Chromatolysis?

Where is there normally dispersion of Nissl substance, which can be confused for chromatolysis?

A

Possible outcomes - reversible or necrosis

CN nuclei V and VII - normally have a peripheral rim of Nissl substance and centrally placed nucleus

(Vanvelde)

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39
Q

Which 3 neuroanatomic sites are most susceptible to global ischemia/acidophilic neuronal necrosis?

A

Cerebral cortex

Hippocampus (CA1 and CA2 sectors) - due to dendritic glutamate receptors

Purkinje cells

(Vanvelde)

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40
Q

What pathologic process is characterized by:

  • chromatin condensation
  • Cytoplasmic blebbing
  • nuclear fragmentation
  • “bodies”

What molecules regulate this process?

A

Apoptosis

  • Regulated by Bcl2 family and caspases
  • Caspase stain can be used to differentiate necrosis from apoptosis

(Vanvelde)

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41
Q

3 Pathologic hallmarks of meningoencephalitis of viral origin??

A
  1. Perivascular cuffing
  2. Neuronal degeneration/necrosis
  3. Microglial nodules

(Vanvelde)

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42
Q

Axon is traumatized. What happens to its cell body, axon and terminal? What happens to anterograde neurons? Retrograde neurons?

A

Cell that is injured:

  • Cell body - chromatolysis
  • Axon distal to injury - axonal necrosis, myelin degeneration
  • Terminal degradation

Anterograde neuron- transneuronal degeeration

Retrograde axon - chromatolysis

(Vanvelde)

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43
Q

What are the 4 steps of Wallerian degeneration?

A
  1. Axon necrosis/degeneration of the distal segment
    • Starts within 24h (focal eosinophilic swellings)
    • Dissolution of the distal axon:
      • Axonal protease
      • Recruitment of hematogenous macrophages (complement C3 important for this)
      • Phagocytosis of myelin by macrophages, schwann cells (ellipsoids/digestion chambers)
  2. Proliferation of Schwann cells - form Bunger’s bands along the course of former axon
  3. Axon sprouting of the distal stump
    • Axon sprouts find their way along the Schwann cell bands
    • Sprouting from individual axons is multiple, one sprout is selected for the completion of regeneration
  4. Regenerated axon is remyelinated in Schwann cells
    • New sheath is thinner than the original and nodal length variable and shorter
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44
Q

How does Wallerian degeneration in the CNS differ from PNS? (3)

How is it similar? (2)

What areas of the CNS are most known for having Wallerian degeneration occur? (3)

A
  1. Oligodendrocyte is poorly regenerative
  2. No basal lamina scaffold
  3. Myelin debris inhibits axonal sprouting
  4. Initial regressive changes of Wallerian degeneration are similar to the PNS but proceed over a longer time course
    • This is because involvement of hematogenous macrophages is slower and less intense in the CNS
    • Activated microglial cells take most of the work
  5. Axonal sprouting and some remyelination can occur

“The poverty of the regenerative response results mostly in the permanent disappearance of the axons, myelin, and oligodendrocyte cell bodies. Some of the myelin debris may be phagocytosed by reactive astrocytes and their processes extend to fill the vacancy - network of astroglial scar tissue

Wallerian degeneration in the CNS is most commonly seen in the spinal cord, optic tract, and brain stem. Probably the best-known association is with focal compressive myelopathies in horse/dog

Jubb & Kennedy

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45
Q

Histopathologic appearance of Wallerian degeneration? (3)

A
  1. Axon spheroids
  2. Distended myelin sheath
  3. Bunger’s bands (Schwann cells proliferate within the persisting endoneurial tube forming densely-packed chains)

(Jubb and Kennedy)

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46
Q

3 ways that oligodendrocytes react to injury?

What is satellitosis?

A
  1. Swelling
  2. Hypertrophy
  3. Degeneration

Satellitosis = oligodendrocytes swell and hypertrophy around injured neurons. Othe glial cells can also contribute to satellitosis

(McGavin)

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47
Q

_______ occurs when oligodendrocytes are damaged, and their myelin internodes undergo degeneration and phagocytosis

_________ occurs when primary axonal necrosis occurs with resultant loss of the myelin sheath

What stains can distinguish between these 2 processes?

A

Primary demyelination occurs when oligodendrocytes are damaged, and their myelin internodes undergo degeneration and phagocytosis

  • Axons remain intact for a long time
  • Causes LEUKODYSTROPHY

Secondary demyelination occurs when primary axonal necrosis occurs with resultant loss of the myelin sheath

Luxol fast blue / Holmes silver stain can distinguish between primary and secondary demyelination

  • Primary demyelination - absence of blue-staining myelin sheaths (black silver impregnated axons remain intact)
  • Secondary demyelination - loss of both axons and myelin sheaths
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48
Q

5 categories of primary demyelination?

A
  1. Inherited enzyme defects (inherited leukodystrophy)
  2. Impairment of myelin synthesis and maintenance (infection, nutritional, toxins, CN poisoning, cuprizone toxicity)
  3. Loss of myelin as a consequence of cytotoxic edema = status spongiosis (Hexachlorophene poisoning)
  4. Destruction of myelin by detergent-like metabolites (lysolechitin)
  5. Immunologic destruction (coohnound paralysis, some stages of canine distemper)

(McGavin)

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49
Q

What type of cells form gitter cells?

Normal and neoplastic ependymal cells will be immunoreactive for what markers?

A

phagocytic macrophages filled with myelin - microglia or macrophages

vimentin (more consistently), and GFAP

(Vanvelde)

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50
Q

Sequence of pathologic changes secondary to ischemic infarct?

A
  • 1-2h - first microscopic evidence of neuronal injury
  • 2h - pale staining of white matter infarct microscopically
  • 3-5h - ischemic cell change in most neurons
  • 6/8-24h - neutrophilic infiltration, pale myelin, cytoplasm of astrocytes visible, thrombosis, proliferation of endothelium at margin
  • 8-48 hours - Initial gross detection of infarct (unless hemorrhagic)
  • 1-2d - swelling of axons/myelin, prominent neutrophilic inflammation
  • 2d - Loss of neuroectodermal cells, increase gitter cells/fewer neutrophils
  • 3-5d - Prominent gitter cells, astrocytic proliferation @ margin of infarct
  • 5-7d - Grossly, swelling of infarct reaches maximum
  • 8-10d - reduction in gross swelling of infarct, liquefaction necrosis, collagen formation in meninges, astroglial fiber production
  • 3 weeks-6 mos - mononuclear cells decreased, astroglial scar fiber density increased, astrocytic proliferation reduced, astrocytes return to normal appearance
  • 2-4mos - cystic appearance of infarct with vascular network

(McGavin)

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51
Q

Where does fluid accumulate in vasogenic edema? cytotoxic edema? interstitial edema?

A

Vasogenic - extracellular accumulation of fluid

Cytotoxic: Accumulation of fluid intracellularly in neurons, astrocytes, oligodendroglia, endothelial cells. Not all cells are involved in all cases of cytotoxic edema. Gray and white matter of the brain are both affected
Causes: early-stage hypoxia/ischemia, intoxication with metabolic inhibitors, severe hypothermia

Interstitial: Elevated ventricular hydrostatic pressure –> Accumulation of fluid in the extracellular space (of the periventricular white matter) –> primary demyelination

(McGavin)

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52
Q

What causes hypo-osmotic edema of the brain?

What is the difference between spongiform change and status spongiosis (according to Dr. Miller)

A

Overconsumption of water –> dilution of osmolality of the edema –> osmolality of plasma is decreased and water moves from the vasculature into the brain down the osmotic gradient

Spongiform change = morphologic changes in HE stained sections that occur primarily in the gray matter

  • Small clear vacuoles of variable sizes that form in the cytoplasm of neuron cell bodies, proximal dendrites and processes of astrocytes related to affected neurons in diseases such as Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies, Rabies encephalitis

Status spongiosus (spongy degeneration)

  • Multiple fluid-filled clear spaces in the white matter of HE stained sections of the CNS
  • Extracellular of intracellular
  • Accumulation of edema fluid in the white matter
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53
Q

4 mechanisms of entry into the CNS

7 Regions of the brain where BBB is absent

A
  1. Direct extension (penetrating trauma, middle/inner ear, nasal cavity/sinus)
  2. Hematogenous entry (
  3. Leukocyte trafficking
  4. Retrograde axonal transport - rabies and listeria

BBB:

  1. Area postrema
  2. Median eminance
  3. Neurohypophysis
  4. Pineal body
  5. Subfornical organ
  6. Commissural organ
  7. Supraoptic crest
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54
Q

Equine:

Grossly: multifocal petechial or ecchymotic hemorrhages in gray and white matter of brain and spinal cord

  • Multiple random foci of reddish-gray malacia

Microscopically: primary vasculitis with endothelial cell necrosis and secondary thrombosis, edema, polymorphonuclear cell infiltration, hemorrhages

  • Primary vasculitis results in secondary ischemia with perivascular malacia, spheroids
  • Multinucleate syncytial cell formation
A

Herpesvirus

  • LACK OF INFLAMMATION is characteristic (except in blood vessels in the meninges)

(Miller)

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55
Q

Combination of which 3 clinical sigs is characteristic of equine herpesvirus?

Diagnostic test? Prevention?

A

T3-L3 myelopathy + urinary incontinence + mild tail/anal hypotonia

Serum/nasal secretion PCR for viral DNA or antigen

Vaccine for EHV has not been effective against neurologic form

(de Lahunta)

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56
Q

When polioencephalomyelitis is identified on histological examination, which disease has to be on the list?

A

Rabies!

  • Particularly of the brainstem
  • No correlation between the severity of clinical signs and the intensity of the inflammatory response
  • Polioencephalitis + perivascular mononuclear cuffs and glial nodules
  • Spinal cord involvement may be the main sign in horses

(Vanvelde)

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57
Q

Suspicion of rabies can be confirmed by finding typical cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in which 2 locations?

Mechanism of spread/infection?

A

Hippocampus neurons

Purkinje cells of the cerebellum

  • Rabies antigen can be easily demonstrated with IHC in paraffin sections
  • intra CYTO plasmic
  • Preferred tissue for rabies examination by light microscopy and fluorescent antibody technique include: Hippocampus, cerebellum, medulla, trigeminal ganglion
  • First replicates locally at the site of inoculation –> irritation
  • Virus binds nicotinic ACh receptors at the NMJ –> enters peripheral nerve terminals OR myocytes (or both)
    • If nerve terminals infected – shorter incubation period, if myocytes only are infected – longer incubation period
  • Virus moves via fast retrograde axonal transport in sensory OR motor neurons –> CNS
    • It is not known whether viral infection and replication in neurons of dorsal root ganglia are essential for infection and replication in neurons of dorsal root ganglia are essential for infection of the CNS
  • The virus then moves into the spinal cord –> ascends to the brain using both anterograde/retrograde axoplasmic flow
  • During the spread of the virus between neurons in the CNS, there is simultaneous centrigfugal movement via anterograde axonal transport of the virus peripherally from the CNS to axons of cranial nerves
  • Results in infection of oral cavity, salivary gland ect

(Vanvelde)

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58
Q

Pathogenesis of CDV?

What determines the severity of disease and areas infected?

A
  • Spread between dogs by aerosol transmission: Trapped in the mucosa of the nasal turbinates –> infects local macrophages –> spread by macrophages (leukocyte trafficking) to regional lymph nodes (retropharyngeal) –> replicates
  • Primary viremia –> infects systemic lymph nodes/spleen, and the thymus approximately 48h after exposure
  • Infection of the lymphoid system –> immunosuppression can occur
    • Secondary bacterial infections (conjunctivitis, rhinitis, bronchopneumonia)
  • 4-6 days after primary viremia –> secondary viremia occurs largely via leukocyte trafficking
  • CDV spreads from cells of the lymphoid system to infect the CNS and epithelial cells of the respiratory mucosa, urinary bladder mucosa, and gastrointestinal tract
  • CNS – trafficking leukocytes form perivascular cuffs and from these cells – CDV disseminated throughout the CNS
    • Infects the CP and ependyma –> shed into CSF and spreads through CSF into periventricular zone
    • The degree of inflammation in the CNS at this stage is minimal
    • Virtually all cells of the CNS including those in the meninges, choroid plexus, neurons and glia are susceptible to infection
      • Oligodendrocytes are novel – infection in these cells is usually incomplete

Clinical signs/severity of the disease depends on:

  • Age of the dog
  • Strain of CDV
  • Kinetics of the antiviral immune response

In experimentally infected dogs

  • 1/3 died of encephalomyelitis and effects of severe immunosuppression
  • 1/3 of dogs developed a timely systemic immune response and CNS disease quickly resolved
  • 1/3 developed subacute to chronic inflammatory/demyelinating disease of the white matter (+/- gray matter involvement) because of a delayed and deficient immune response

(Miller)

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59
Q

Canine:

Microscopic lesions of:

  • Demyelination
  • Status spongiosus, vacuolation of white matter
  • Astrocytic, ependymal intranuclear and intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusion bodies
A

Canine distemper virus:

(Vanvelde)

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60
Q

_________ is thought to arise from long-term persistent infection of the CNS with a defective form of CDV

A

Old dog encephalitis

  • Some mild peptide differences between conventional distemper virus and this virus
  • The mechanism involved in development of lesions are not known however they result in a proliferation of nonsuppurative inflammatory cells
  • Lesions are primarily in the cerebral hemispheres and brainstem
  • Microscopic lesions : Microscopic lesions – demyelination with disseminated, nonsuppirative encephalitis
    • nuclear and cytoplasmic inclusions positive for distemper in the cerebral cortex, thalamus and brainstem (not cerebellum like conventional distemper)

(Miller)

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61
Q

Regions affected by FIP coronavirus:

A

Noneffusive form - result in leptomeningitis, chorioependymitis, focal encephalomyelitis, ophthalmitis
Pyogranulomatous vasculitis tends to affect vessels of:

  • Leptomeningies, especially sulci and near their entrance into subjacent CNS tissue and around the circle of Willis
  • Periventricular white matter – especially around the 4th ventricle
  • Uvea, retina, and optic nerve sheath are also commonly involved in FIP

(Miller)

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62
Q

Canine:

Grossly – moderately well demarcated, expansile, yellow-brown foci that displaces and disrupts normal tissue
Microscopically – exudate consists of neutrophils, macrophages (epitheloid type), and multinucleated giant cells

A

Blastomyces infection (+/- microbes in the cytoplasm)

  • Infections with C. immitis or H. capsulatum elicit similar response
  • Coccidoides microbes - intra or extracellular spherules containing endospores
  • Histoplasmosis - intracellular

(Miller)

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63
Q

T/F: cryptococcus in the CNS of cats often has a significant inflammatory reaction

Special stains for cryptococcus?

A

False

  • Crypto enters CNS by direct extension, leukocyte trafficking
  • Leukocyte response varies from sparse to granulomatous - in some infected cats, can be present without an inflammatory response
  • Thick mucopolysaccharide capsule + protection from oxidative damage (virulence factors)

Stains: PAS and Gomori’s methenamine silver

(Miller)

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64
Q

Neospora: Who is the definitive host? Who is the intermediate host? How is it transmitted?

What histopathologic lesion is caused by neospora?

A

Definitive host: dogs
Intermediate host: herbivores
Infection has been recognized in: dogs, cats, cattle, sheep and horses as well as lab rodents

definitive host (dog) ingests tissue from an intermediate host (cow) that contains Neospora cysts
Tissues include Fetal membrane, Aborted fetal tissues
Also transplacental transmission

Gross lesions – involve white and/or gray matter.
Peracute gross lesions may include foci of hemorrhage and necrosis
Acute foci granular in texture and yellow-brown to gray
Chronic larger areas of granular yellow-brown to gray discoloration
Makes white matter indistinguishable from gray matter

Microscopic: multifocal necrotizing lesions with glial nodules and mixed inflammatory infiltrates
Young dogs – ascending polyradiculoneuritis and polymyositis
Adult dogs – clinical signs referrable to CNS lesions complicated by polymyositis, myocarditis and dermatitis

(Miller)

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65
Q

Toxoplasma gondii:

  • Definitive and intermediate hosts
  • Gross and microscopic lesions
A

Definitive host: Domestic, feral and wild cats, intermediate: rodents, birds, cats, fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds, humans

  • Bird/rodent passes oocysts in feces, sporulate in 5d after passing, cat ingests sporulated oocyst, passes through intracellular intraintestinal life cycle
  • OR cat can ingest bradyzoites from tissue cysts
  • In utero brain infection is possible

Gross - gray or white matter lesions, foci of hemorrhage and necrosis, then granular yellow/brown foci

Microscopic - neurons and astrocytes are the target cells.
Early - vasculitis, necrosis of adjacent parenchyma, free organisms in the tissue, mixed polymorphonuclear/mononuclear cell response
Subacute/chronic - focal microgliosis becomes more evident, necrosis diminishes, organisms in tissue cysts appear, cellular response more purely mononuclear +/- chorioretinitis
** Occasionally bradyzoites can be observed in normal CNS tissue without an inflammatory or tissue lesion

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66
Q

Which broad category of infections causes the following type of lesions:

  • Nonsuppurative inflammatory pattern
    • ​Can also induce a suppurative pattern associated with severe tissue necrosis
    • Inflammatory infiltrate sometimes contains significant eosinophils
  • Suppurative with variable numbers of eosinophils
    • Chronic lesions may develop a granulomatous component
A

Protozoal

Helminth

(Vanvelde)

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67
Q

Neospora lesions in puppies:

A

Rapidly progressing myositis

Polyradiculoneiritis - only infects spinal nerve roots in puppies < 12 weeks

(DeLahunta)

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68
Q

Insect larvae that infect the CNS (3)

Cestodes that infect the CNS? (2)

Nematodes that infect the CNS? (5)

A

Insect larvae:

  1. Oestrus ovis – nasal cavity of sheep –> ethmoid bone
  2. H. bovis enter the spinal canal during their migration in the subcutis from the hoof to the dorsal midline
  3. Cuterebra

Cestodes

  1. Coenurus cerebralis – larval form of the dog tapeworm Taenia multiceps
    • Most commonly infest sheep and occasionally other ruminants
  2. Cysticercosis in the brain of pigs

Nematodes

  1. Parelaphostrongylus tenuis – ruminants, camelids
  2. Strongylus vulgaris – horse
  3. Elaphostrongylus rangiferi – small ruminants
  4. Toxocara canis – dogs
  5. Baylisascaris procyonis – many species

Miller

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69
Q

What are the 4 arboviruses?

What is the histopathologic lesion?

A
  1. Togaviridae Western, Venezuelan, Eastern eqine encephalitis
  2. Bunyaviridae
  3. Flaviviridae
  4. Reoviridae

Arbovirus = arthropod-borne virus (ticks and mosquitoes)

Polioencaphalitis with neuronal damage, mononuclear inflammation, gliosis

  • WNV - brainstem and spinal cord
  • EEE - cerebral cortex

(Vanvelde)

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70
Q

What disease if goat kids causes severe multifocal granulomatous meningoencephalomyelitis (especially brainstem, spinal cord, cerebral white matter)

What infectious disease of horses causes

A

CAEV (lentivirus)

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71
Q

What are FIV and FeLV lesions of the CNS?

A

FIV: microglial cells appear to e a primary target of the infection

FeLV: rare complication of chronic FeLV infection is demyelination/axonal damage of the spinal cord white matter (particularly ventromedial and dorsolateral columns) with NO inflammation

  • These lesions are associated with infection of endothelial, glial and nerons

(Vanvelde)

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72
Q

What organism causes multifocal, well demarcated hemorrhages on brain surfaces, hemorrhages infiltrated with neutrophils, foci of gram negative bacteria, in cattle brain?

What kind of bacteria is Listeria and how is it spread to the CNS?

A

Histophilus somni

  • normal inhabitant of the respiratory system
  • G- coccobacillus

Listeria

  • G+, intracellular bacterium
  • Spreads from the oral cavity via cranial nerves to the medulla
  • Listeric rhombencephalitis
  • Invasion of bacteria leads to focal suppuration with microabscesses, then a strong cell-mediated immune response

(Vanvelde)

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73
Q

Salmon poisoning in dogs is characerized by what lesion?

What disease in dogs causes suppurative meningitis, immune-complex necrotizing arteritis, meningeal hemorrhages

A

Cerebellar meningitis

Steroid-responsive meningitis/arteritis

(Vanvelde)

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74
Q

4 broad categories of neurodegenerative diseases? (and subcategories)

A
  1. Axonopathy
    • ex/ DM, ENAD
  2. Neuronopathy
    • Motor neuron disease
      • Hereditary canine spinal muscular atrophy, multisystem chromatolytic neuronal degeneration, familial motor neuron disease
    • Cerebellar Purkinje cell degeneration
      • Cerebellar cortical abiotrophy +/- other nuclear degenerative changes
    • Other
      • Multisystem neuronal degeneration
      • Neuronal vacuolation and spinocerebellar degeneration
  3. Myelin disorders
    • Leukodystrophy
      • Necrotizing myelopathy
      • Globoid cell leukodystrophy
      • Leukoencephalomyelopathy
      • Progressive ataxia
    • Myelin Dysgenesis
      • CNS hypomyelination
      • Dysmyelination
  4. Other
    • Combined encephalomyelopahy and polyneuropathy with neuronal vacuolation
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75
Q

What disease causes degeneration and loss of motor axons in the ventral horns of the spinal cord and axonal degeneration in the ventral spinal nerve rootlets and peripheral nerves?

Specific examples? (3)

A

Motor neuron diseases

  • Motor neurons are chromatolytic + eosinophilic (or drop out)
  • Primary lesion = abiotrophy of GSE neurons in the spinal cord ventral gray horn and brainstem nuclei
    • Some diseases involve sensory nuclei of the brainstem as well
  • Clinical signs evident at a few weeks postnatally, occasionally several mos to year
  • Brittany spaniel autosomal DOMINANT - homozygous vs. heterozygous intermediate vs. heterozygous chronic form
  • Rottweiler - regurgitation and megaesophagus
  • English pointer - autosomal recessive

Examples:

  • Equine motor neuron disease (ACQUIRED)
  • Shaker calf syndrome in horned Hereford calves, Brown swiss calves
  • Hereditary canine spinal muscular atrophy - Brittany spaniel, Swedish Lapland, Rottweiler, English pointer, inherited motor neuron disease in domestic cats
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76
Q

Cerebellar weight < 10% of the brain indicates?

Histopathologic lesions of cerebellar abiotrophy?

4 breeds with late-onset cerebellar abiotrophy?

A

Cerebellar degeneration

Histopath:

  • Degeneration or absence of Purkinje cells, Proximal swelling of Purkinje cell axons
  • Variable loss of granule cells
  • Cerebellar cortical astrogliosis = BERGMAN astrocytes
  • Degeneration of nuclei in the cerebellar medulla
  • Symmetrical degeneration of extrapyramidal neurons (olivary nuclei, pontine nuclei, caudate nuclei)

Late onset: American Staffordshire Terrier, Brittany spaniel, Gordon setter, Old English sheepdog

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77
Q

In which breeds is cerebellar cortical abiotrophy associated with ceroid lipofuscinosis?

Striatonigral and cerebello-olivary degeneration is a disease of what 2 breeds?

A

Staffordshire Terriers/Pitbull terriers

Neuronal storage process predominantly targets the Purkinje cells

Striatonigral and cerebello-olivary degeneration is an AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE disease in Kerry Blue Terriers and Chinese Crested dogs

  • Also called progressive neuronal abiotrophy of Kerry Blue Terriers
  • Affects connected neural systems including basal nuclei, the substantia nigra and the cerebellar cortex (caudate nucleus and cerebellar cortex are believed to be the primary sites of involvement)
  • Develop signs at 2-5 mos of age - progressive cerebellar ataxia
  • Purkinje neurons and caudate nuclei neurons both have receptors for glutamic acid. Excessive accumulation of glutamate in the vicinity of neuronal cell bodies is toxic and causes ischemic degeneration
  • Mutation in the SERACI gene - DNA test available
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78
Q
  1. What breed gets a multisystem neuronal degeneration with nerve cell loss/astrogliosis/axonal swellings in septal nuclei, globus pallidus, subthalamic nuclei, substantia nigra, tectum, medial geniculate bodies, and cerebellar/vestibular nuclei
  2. Intracytoplasmic neuronal vacuolation and mild spongiform in:
  • Cerebellar nuclei
  • Extrapyramidal nuclei
  • Thalamus
  • Ventral and dorsal spinal cord horns
  • Spinal ganglia
  • Autonomic ganglia
A
  1. Cocker spaniel: pathogenesis unknown, progressive over 1st year of life
  2. Neuronal vacuolation and spinocerebellar degeneration (AKA inherited encephalomyelopathy and polyneuropathy)
  • Unknown cause, unknown inheritance
  • Spinal cord: bilateral symmetric axonopathy with secondary demyelination, astrogliosis (lat and ventral funiculi) - NOT limited to spinocerebellar tracts
  • Neuropathy of recurrent laryngeal and other long nerves
  • ROTTWEILER and other breeds
    • Unclear if this is primary neuronopathy or axonopathy
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79
Q

2 broad categories of axonopathy

A

Wallerian-like degenerative axonopathies

  • Unknown injury to axon –> distal site undergoes Wallerian-like degeneration
    • diffuse axonal and secondary myelin degeneration
  • Axon unable to support its metabolism, most distal axon dies first
    • Sensory axon - this is in the spinal cord
      • Motor axon - this is in the muscle/nerve

Axonopathy with prominent axonal swelling (spheroids)

  • Neuroaxonal dystrophy - Axonal changes start at the preterminal portion of the axon and synaptic terminals –> dystrophic axons are found in the nuclei of the gray matter
  • Other types
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80
Q

Examples of Wallerian-like axonopathy (7)

A
  1. Hereditary ataxia
  2. Sensory ataxia neuropathy
  3. Labrador retriever axonopathy
  4. Peripheral and central axonopathy
  5. Degenerative myelopathy of large breed dogs
  6. Degenerative myelopathy of Corgi
  7. Several in cattle and one in sheep
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81
Q

Canine degenerative disease with:

  • Involvement of ventral and lateral columns of the cervical spinocerebellar tracts
  • Central auditory pathways (trapezoid body, cochlear nuclei)
  • Spinal nerve root degeneration

Breeds? (3)

A

Hereditary ataxia

  • Smooth-haired Fox terrier, JRT/Parson Russell terrier
    • Prolonged course of slowly progressive clinical signs of a cerebellovestibular disorder
    • Mutation in KCNJ10 - encodes a glial K+ channel that regulates neuronal excitability
    • DNA test available
  • Izbian hound
    • Cerebellarvestibular ataxia at a few weeks of age
    • LACK A PATELLAR REFLEX - suggests sensory neuropathy
  • Both breeds may have clinical signs that stabilize
  • Considered a Wallerian-type degeneration axonopathy
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82
Q

Disease of the dog with:

  • Degeneration of central and peripheral axons with proprioceptive fibers most severely affected
  • Decrease in mitochondrial ATP production and respiratory chain enzyme activities
  • Muscle changes typical of mitochondrial pathology

What cat breed gets a hereditary multisystem degeneration with a distal axonopathy distribution?

A

Sensory ataxic neuropathy in Golden Retrievers

  • Deletion in mitochondrial tRNA Tyr gene is the causative mutation
  • Considered a Wallerian-like axonopathy

Birman cats

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83
Q

Which columns/tracts most consistently involved in degenerative myelopathy

A

Dorsolateral and ventromedial

  1. Spinocerebellar
  2. Corticospinal
  3. Rubrospinal
  4. Reticulospinal

Degenerative myelopathy is a Wallerian-like axonal degeneration

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84
Q

Which neurodegenerative disease of the Rottweiler starts with hypermetria at 1 year of age, progresses t a full cerebellar syndrome over 1-2 years with sensory systems most affected?

What other breeds get this dz?

A

Neuroaxonal dystrophy

  • Dystrophic axons in the nucleus thoracicus, dorsal horns of the spinal cord, dorsal column nuclei, sensory trigeminal nucleus, cerebellar granular layer, vestibular nuclei and geniculate bodies
  • +/- loss of Purkinje cells in vermis and flocculus

Other breeds: Chihuahua and Papillion, Cocker spaniel, Beagles, Border Collie

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85
Q

_____________ is a generalized disorder of cytoplasmic intermediate filaments affecting the PNS primarily, also brain and spinal cord (advanced cases)

A

Giant axonal neuropathy in GSD

  • Giant axons include neurofilaments
  • Similar to neuroaxonal dystrophy - mitochondria and organelles also accumulate
  • Young adult GSD, progressive TL myelopathy, then LMN PL signs, loss of bark and regurgitation
    • Autosoma recessive
  • Histo - swollen axons w/ excessive disorganized neurofilaments in the spinal cord (mainly distal long-fiber tracts), also PNS
    • Myenteric and sympathetic axons also affected
  • ED - decreased amplitude of directed evoked motor potentials and sensory neuron action potentials
    • Denervation potentials later in the disease
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86
Q

What is believed to be the cause of progressive axonopathy in Boxer dogs?

A
  • Proximal axonal sswellings + distal hypoplasia of nerves suggests impaired transport of neurofilaments that are major determinants of axon growth
    • Immunochemical studies of cytoskeletal proteins (tubulin, neurofilaments, actin, fodrin) confirmed that defects in slow axonal transport are involved
  • PL ataxia ~ 3 mos of age
  • CNS and PNS both affected
  • Spheroids and axon degeneration are prominent in:
    • Lateral and ventral funiculi of the spinal cord
    • Brainstem nuclei
    • Cerebellar white matter
    • Optic pathways
    • Autonomic nervous system
  • PNS - paranodal swellings occur in the extradural spinal nerve roots
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87
Q

Disorder of myelin synthesis and maintenance?

A

Leukodystrophy

  • Affect bilaterally symmetrical areas of white matter + destruction of myelin and eventually axons
  • Microscopically - axons lacking sheets, gitter cells, astrocytes
  • The distribution pattern of the lesion is often selective or even bizarre and therefore difficult to explain by a general defect at the level of myelin metabolism
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88
Q

Pathologic findings of:

  • Bilaterally symmetrical lysis of white matter in the whole circumference of the mid thoracic spinal cord, tapering of lesions cranially and causally
  • Occasionally focal involvement of the brainstem
A

Necrotizing myelopathy

  • Autosomal recessive disease described in Afghan hounds, Kooikers, occasionally Miniature Poodles
    • AKA afghan hound myelinolysis
  • Rapidly progressing signs 7-10 days
  • Fasiculus proprius relatively spared
  • Same primary demyelination of the axons surrounding the dorsal nucleus of the trapezoid body
  • Initial lesion appears to be splitting of the myelin sheath along the intraperiod line
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89
Q

Leukodystrophy that affects Rottweiler and Leonberger dogs is called?

A

Leukoencephalomyelopathy

  • Slowly progressive ataxia between 1.5 - 4y of age
  • Bilaterally symmetric white matter lesions in the brain and spinal cord
  • Demyelination and remyelination because many axons have very thin myelin sheaths
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90
Q

What is the pathophysiology of globoid cell leukodystrophy?

What are the clinical signs?

How is it tested for?

A
  • Leukodystrophy
  • Lack of galactocerebrosidase –> accumulation of psychosine which is toxic to oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells –> PRIMARY demyelination
  • Neurons are normal
  • Globoid cells are macrophages that are filled with phagocytized myelin remnants
  • Clinical signs first occur between 3-7 mos
    • TL myelopathy that progresses to involve cervical spinal cord, then cerebellum (OR can start with cerebellar signs –> progress to spinal cord signs)
  • PRN test for leukocytes with the gene mutation
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91
Q

Fibrinoid leukodystrophy - What is the other name?
Where are lesions seen?

A

Alexanders disease

  • Cerebral white matter (also other areas…)
  • Myelin lesions are associated with Rosenthal fiber formation - string-like depositions of amorphous eosinophilic material perivascularly, especially below the pia and ependyma
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92
Q

White matter spinal cord brainstem lesions of lack of myelin staining in cattle - likely cause?

A

Progressive ataxia in Charolais cattle

  • 1-2 years progressive dz
  • higher magnification - finely granular or fibrillar structure can be demonstrated
  • Considered a LEUKODYSTROPHY
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93
Q

What malformation results when ewes are exposed to veratrum californicum during pregnancy

A

Holoprosencephalo - results in failure of the visual area to divide into 2 fields

  • Cyclopamine interferes with SHH in the prechordial plate
  • One midline optic vesicle develops, single midline telencephalic vesicle develops
  • Absence in any nasal portion of the respiratory system and olfactory system
  • Also called arhinencephaly
  • Reported in a miniature schnauzer with hypodipsia and hypernatremia
  • A queen treated with griseofulvin had a kitten with this malformation

(DeLahunta)

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94
Q

Incomplete ossification of the frontoparietal suture is referred to as _________

What is the difference between diplomyelia and diastematomyelia?

A

Molera or fontanelle

Diplomyelia = duplication of the spinal cord, 1 set of meninges, 1 dural sheath

Diastematomyelia = 2 spinal cords each with own meningeal sheath, each in its own vertebral canal, separated by bony partition

(DeLahunta)

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95
Q

What is the term used to describe when spinal cord segments are smaller than usual?

A

Segmental hypoplasia.

  • Sometimes contain only white matter, no gray matter
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96
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for caudal vertebral hypoplasia or aplasia in the Manx cat?

A

Caudal vertebral hypoplasia or aplasia is inherited as an autosomal dominant gene and the homozygous state is a lethal factor (Manx cat)

  • The clinically affected cats are heterozygotes with variable expression
  • The various forms of spinal cord malformation, myelodysplasias, may result in excretory dysfunctions such as urinary and fecal incontinence that is sometimes associated with loss of tone, reflexes, and nociception of the anus and perineal region
  • More severe myelodysplasia –> partial or complete inability to stand and walk with PL
  • Dr. Miller calls this “anury and brachyury”

(DeLahunta)

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97
Q

Spinal dysraphism is seen in which breed?

What does dysraphism mean?

A

Weimeraner - this should actually be called myelodysplasia

Spinal cord dysraphism = failure of the neural folds to appose and close

  • A number of spinal cord changes occur - hydromyelia, syringomyelia, abberant neuronal migration
  • Abberations of the dorsal median septum
  • Absence of a ventral median fissure
  • Hydromyelia or an absent central canal
  • Presence of ventral gray column neuronal cell bodies scattered across midline in the ventral funiculi as a result of their failure to migrate into the ventral gray columns
  • These lesions occur in scattered thoracolumbar segments
  • NKX2-8 gene on chromosome 8
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98
Q

Hereditary polioencephalomyelopathy of the Australian Cattle Dog

  • Age at onset?
  • Clinical signs?
  • Known cause?
  • Pathologic lesions?
  • CSF normal/abnormal?
A
  • Age at onset: 5-12 mos
  • Clinical signs
    • NAD: Multifocal (cervical and lumbar intumescence, medulla/cerebellum, prosencephalon
    • Initially seizures, then tetanic contraction of the thoracic limbs
    • Slowly progressive
  • Known cause: Maternally inherited missense mutation of mitochondrial DNA
  • Pathologic lesions:
    • Spongiosus and cavitation in cerebellum, brainstem nuclei, spinal cord gray matter (C7/T1 most severe
    • EM - abnormally high numbers of swollen mitochondria in astrocytes
  • Elev. CSF lactate and pyruvate
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99
Q

What 2 breeds have a mitochondrial encephalopathy secondary to maternally inherited missense mutation of mitochondrial DNA?

A

Australian Cattle dog and Shetland Sheepdog

  • Similar disorder reported in English Springer Spaniel and Yorkshire Terrier
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100
Q

Alaskan Husky encephalopathy - mutation of the ___________ gene results in development of the disease

Clinical signs? Age at onset?

A

Thiamin transported 2 gene (SLC19A3)

  • Therefore NOT a mitochondrial encephalopathy (research has failed to reveal mutations in mitochondrial genes)
    • Considered a “secondary mitochondrial disease”

7 mos-6.5 years.

NAD: diffuse involvement of the brain including the cerebrum, brain stem, and cerebellum

  • Acute onset of clinical signs, or chronic progressive waxing and waning clinical history.
  • Initial onset of seizures
  • Cerebellar/vestibular gait
  • Hypertonicity in limbs
  • Abnormal mentation/behavior
  • Abnormal prehension of food, facial hypalgesia
  • Euth 2 mos - 1 year after onset of signs

(Miller/deLahunta/Dewey)

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101
Q

Distribution of lesions in Alaskan Husky encephalopathy

Histologic findings?

A

Bilaterally symmetric foci of encephalomalacia in the:

  • Thalamus
  • Caudate
  • Pons
  • Medulla
  • Gray-white matter border of the cerebral cortices

Histology - Status spongiosus with variable progression to cavitation/necrosis
Abundance of astrocytes that can be bizarre and vacuolated

MRI - bilateral cavitation from thalamus to medulla, less pronounced degenerative lesions in the caudate nucleus, putamen and claustrum
CSF lactate/pyruvate WNL

(Miller)

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102
Q

5 dog breeds with mitochondral encephalopathy

A
  • Australian cattle dog
  • Alaskan husky (really a secondary mitochondrial disorder)
  • English Springer Spaniel
    • 15-16 mos
    • Encephalomyelopathy, Ataxia, disorientation, visual deficits
    • Status spongiosus in accessory olivary nucleus, atrophy in optic nerve and tracts, symmetrical spongiosus in the brainstem
    • EM - mitochondria with abnormal morphology in neurons
  • Yorkshire Terrier
    • 4 mos - 1y,
    • Cerebellar dysfunction, blindness, Sz, Deaf, Pharyngeal/laryngeal dysfunction
    • Bilateral cavitary lesions in thalamus and midbrain
    • EM - abnormally-shaped neuronal mitochondria
    • CT - bilateral cavitary lesions in thalamus and medulla
  • Shetland Sheepdog
    • 1-3 weeks, Multifocal CNS/seizures, Maternally inherited missense mutation of mitochondrial DNA
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103
Q

Which molecule conjugates with fatty acids to transport them across the inner mitochondrial membrane, and acts as a buffer for intracellular organic acids?

A

Carnitine

With organic acidurias, it is common for a secondary carnitine deficiency to develop

(Dewey)

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104
Q

6 Breeds with reported organic aciduria

A
  • Staffordshire Bull Terrier
  • West Highland White Terrier
  • Maltese
  • Standard Poodle
  • CKCS
  • Labrador Retriever

(Dewey)

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105
Q

Which 2 breeds get L-2-hydroxyglutaric aciduria?

A

Staffordshire-bull terrier

  • Clinical signs: onset 6 mos - 7 years, seizures, ataxia, dementia, head/neck tremors; slowly progressive

West Highland White Terrier

  • Visual impairment, dementia, episodic head tremors, tetraparesis with TL hypermetria; slowly progressive

Histopath: Spongy change in the gray matter of the cerebral cortex, thalamus, cerebellum and brainstem

(Dewey, Vanveld)

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106
Q

Which 2 breeds gets malonic aciduria?

A

Maltese

  • onset @ 6 weeks
  • Seizures
  • Progressive alteration of consciousness

Labrador retriever - methylmalnoic and malnoic aciduria

(Vanvelde, Dewey)

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107
Q

How are organic acidurias diagnosed?

Typical MRI lesions of organic acidurias?

A

Demonstrating abnormally high levels of specific organic acids in urine, serum, and/or CSF using gas chromatography-mass spectroscopy

MRI - similar to mitochondrial encephalopathies

  • bilaterally symmetric lesions of white or gray matter structures that are hyperintense on T2W images
  • These lesions tend to be slightly hypontense on T1W images and are noncontrast enhancing
  • CSF cytology and protein normal
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108
Q

Treatment of organic acidurias?

A

Manipulating diet
Adding vitamin supplementation
Goal is to compensate for abnormal metabolic pathway
General recommendations - high-carbohydrate, low-fat (MC triglycerides), low-protein diet and supplementation with L carnitine and B vitamins

Anticonvulsant therapy if necessary

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109
Q

Mutation in TECPR 2 is seen in a neurodegenerative disease of what breed?

A

Spanish water dog

  • Behavior changes
  • Gait abnormalities with predominantly sensory deficits
  • Histopathology - neuronal loss with spheroid formation seen primarily in the dorsal nuclei of the brainstem and spinal sensory pathways
  • Spheroids contain abundant, double-walled, small vacuoles (autophagosomes), few mature lysosomes could be identified
  • “The accumulation of autophagosomes within spheroids highlights the role of autophagy in the maintenance of axonal function”
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110
Q

RAB3GAP1 gene mutation identified in which neurodegenerative disease?

A

Polyneuropathy with ocular abnormalities and neuronal vacuolation = juvenile-onset laryngeal paralysis/polyneuropathy = neuronal vacuolation and spinocerebellar degeneration

  • Affected dogs develop laryngeal paralysis, progressive weakness/sensory loss and cataracts at a young age
  • Rottweilers also show a prominent cerebellar ataxia
  • Gene codes for a protein that plays a role in autophagy and other aspects of membrane processing
  • Based on appearance and staining, the vacuoles are unlikely to be lysosomes and are most likely dilated endoplasmic reticulum membranes

(ACVIM 2017)

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111
Q

Mutation in ATG4D contributes to neurodegenerative disease in which breed?

A

Lagotto Romagnolo

  • Progressive cerebellar ataxia and behavioral changes
  • Small to large intraneuronal vacuolation and spheroids = abnormal autophagosomes
  • Spheroids showed immunoreactivity to autophagy proteins LC3 and p62
  • Some of the vacuoles were positive for lysosome markers

(ACVIM 2017)

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112
Q

Mutation in the FAM134B gene identified in which neurodegenerative disease?

A

Border Collies with hereditary sensory neuropathy

  • Ataxia, loss of pain perception, self-mutilation
  • FAM134B is expressed in sensory and autonomic ganglia- mediates selective autophagy of the endoplasmic reticulum

(ACVIM 2017)

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113
Q

Mutation in RAB24 gene is associated with which neurodegenerative disorder?

A

Hereditary ataxia in Old English Sheepdog and Gordon Setter

  • RAB24 is thought to play a role in fusion of autophagosome with lysosome

(ACVIM 2017)

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114
Q

Dog

A

Selective symmetrical encephalomalacia. A. Dog. Alaskan Husky encephalopathy (AHE). Brain: MRI. T2W image with distinctive characteristic bilaterally symmetrical areas of malacia in thalamus. B: Dog. AHE. Corresponding transverse slice through the thalamus with bilateral cystic encephalomalacia.

C: Australian Cattle Dog. Spinal cord. Hereditary polioencephalomyelopathy. There are bilaterally symmetrical areas of myelomalacia. LFB-HE. D: AHE. Histology of the thalamus with malacia, infiltration of gitter cells, neovascular proliferation, mild perivascular mononuclear cell cuffing and marked reactive gemistocytic and fibrillary astrocytosis. Morphologically intact neurons can be found in these lesions. HE.

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115
Q

What is failure of neural tube closure, resulting in persistent attachment of the cutaneous ectoderm to the neural plate and inability of the vertebral arches to close around the open neural plate?

A

Myeloschisis

(Song et al)

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116
Q

What is “failed separation of the neural tube from the skin ectoderm, causing tubular sacts lined with hair follicles, sweat, and sebaceous glands that typically extends from the dorsal midline to underlying tissues” called?

A

Dermal sinus tract

  • Types I-V depending on the ventral extent of the tubular sac
  • Duplication of FGF3, FGF4, FGF19, and ORAOV1 gene mutations responsible for the dorsal hair ridge in Rhodesian and Thai Ridgeback dogs predisposes these breeds
  • Differs from dermoid cysts, which are closed epithelium-lined sacs with liquefied substance
  • Differs from pilonidal cysts, which are acquired secondary to foreign bodies, such as hair

(Song et al)

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117
Q

What is spina bifida occulta and cystica/manifesta/aperta?

A

Occulta: no neural tissue involved

Cystica/manifesta/aperta: associated meningocele or myelomeningocele through the vertebral defect

(Song et al)

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118
Q

4 breeds with increased incidence of spina bifida?

A
  1. English Bulldog
  2. German Shepherd
  3. Rhodesian Ridgeback
  4. Manx

Song et al

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119
Q

What is tethered cord syndrome?

A

A syndrome in which excessive stretching and tension on neural tissues occurs owing to abnormal attachments to the vertebrae or skin

May occur in conjunction with MMC and spinal bifida, although may occur in isolation owing to failure of the neuroectoderm to separate from the ectoderm

As a consequence of the abnormal attachments of the neural tissues in NTD, the disproportionate growth of the vertebral column during skeletal maturation in comparison with the neural tissues causes tension on the spinal cord, roots, and/or spinal nerves –> progressive worsening of neurologic deficits (preferable to the lumbar intumescence, conus medullaris, and cauda equina)

(Song et al)

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120
Q

What congenittal abnormalities in dogs and cats can be observed in association or coexistent with NTDs?

A

Hydrocephalus

Arthrogryposis

Syringomyelia

Cryptorchidism

Cleft palate

(Song et al)

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121
Q

CSF xanthochromia - intensity of the color peaks how long after hemorrhage, lasts for how long after subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

Color peaks 24h after hemorrhage, disappears by 4-8 days

Xanthochromia can also be associated with an increase in total protein and hyperbilirubinemia

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122
Q

CSF cell count > ________ is associated with an increase in turbidity

How does the NCC of lumbar CSF compare to cisternal?

A

NCC > 500 cells/uL (200 WBC/uL or > 700 RBC/uL)

lumbar fluid typically has a lower NCC

(De Terlizzi)

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123
Q

Aside from ablumin, what other proteins are present in CSF?

A
  1. Transthyretrin
  2. Retinol binding proteins
  3. Transferritin

These are synthesized in the choroid plexi

Also traces of beta/gamma globulin, tau protein, GFAP, and myelin basic protein (synthesized intrathecally)

(De Terlizzi)

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124
Q

How can urine dipstick reagent strip be used to determine CSF protein?

A

Urine protein reagent strips may be useful for initial preliminary screening of CSF protein concentration

Highly specific for albumin detection, less specific for globulin detection

False positive and false negative test results may occur at dipstick readings of trace or 1+

Dipstick readings of 2+ or above reliably represent a true increase of total protein concentration

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125
Q

What is the CSF pandy test??

What reagents do the fancy machines use to determine protein concentration?

A

Screening for the presence of globulins in CSF

1mL pandy reagent (10% carboxylic acid) + few drops CSF

If the solution becomes turbid, there is globulin of at least 50mg/dL

Coomasie blue and pyrogallol red
Pyrogallol red is considered the most specific technique for CSF total protein determination
It has a tendency to UNDERESTIMATE CSF total protein in dogs, due to 20% lower affinity for globulins than albumins

A human immunoturbidometric assay (microalbumin) has recently been validated to measure canine albumin concentration in CSF

(De Terlizzi)

126
Q

What is the best additive for CSF that cannot be examined immediately?

A
  1. 20% Fetal calf serum
    • Better stabilized mononuclear cells when compared to hetastarch, but will affect protein concentration
  2. 10% autologous serum
  3. Hetastarch
    • Does not affect protein concentration
  4. Formalin
    • Not recommended, affects cell morphology

Results of 2 studies showed that a delay of 4-8h (and possibly longer) is unlikely to alter diagnostic interpretation especially if the CSF protein is > 50mg/dL

(Sharkey)

127
Q

What are the two types of myelin dysgenesis and what is the difference?

A
  1. Hypomyelinogenesis - remains static
  2. Retarded yelinogenesis - improves with age

(Vanveld)

128
Q

Breeds reported to develop dysmyelination?

What is the underlying cause?

Which breed has a known genetic defect?

A
  1. Chow Chow
  2. Samoyed
  3. Weimeraner
  4. Springer Spaniel
  5. Lurcher
  6. Bernese cattle dog
  7. Siamese cat

Underlying cause: congenital defect at the level of structural myelin proteins and/or metabolic defects or the oligodendrocyte

Springer spaniel - x-linked recessive defect with mutations in the proteolipid protein and DM-20 protein resulting in abnormal oligodendrocyte differentiation and formation of immature myelin

(Vanvelde)

129
Q

Gross and histopathologic lesions of dysmyelination/hypomyelination?

A

Macroscopically - inadequate myelination/dysmyelination is visible in the white matter assuming a grayish-translucent appearance

Histopathologically - pallor of the white matter
Special myelin stains, thin sections, and electron microscopy help define the defect

PNS is normally myelinated

(Vanvelde)

130
Q

CNS hypomyelination in ______________ (breed) is associtaed with a congenital goiter and a mutation in the thyroid peroxidase gene

A

Rat terrier - thyroid hormone is necessary for myelin production during development

(Vanvelde)

131
Q

What are secondary changes to neurons from lysosomal storage disease?

A
  1. Axonal swelling
  2. Meganeurites (fusiform enlarements of the initial axon segment)
  3. Loss of synapses
  4. Loss of dendritic spines
132
Q

Cow brain

A

Spongiform encephalopathy

BSE. A: There is a characteristic gray matter localization of a spongy state (sn, solitary tract nucleus; vn, nucleus vagus; st, solitary tract). HE. B: A higher magnification of the spongiform change with associated astrogliosis. HE. C: Intracytoplasmic neuronal vacuolation in a brainstem nucleus. HE. D: Immunohistochemical visualization of PrPd accumulation with a bilaterally symmetrical pattern of distribution (IV, fourth ventricle). IHC Inset: typical linear PrPd pattern of localization. IHC.

133
Q

What causes spongiform encephalopathy?

A

Proteinaceous infectious particles that are composed of abnormal isoform of normal cellular protein

Called prion protein = PrPc

  • They resist inactivation by procedures that degrade nucleic acids and proteins
  • The mechanism by which it causes spongiform change is unknown
  • Acquired through horizontal transmission - feeding rendered CNS tissue to cattle
  • AUTONOMIC nervous system appears important in delivering prions to the CNS and neurons (exact mechanism unknown)
  • NO immune response develops
134
Q

What are the hallmarks of transmissible spongiform encephalopathy:

A
  1. Spongiform change of specific areas of the gray matter which are always bilaterally symmetric
    • Location depends on species/strain
    • BSE - brainstem (nucleus of the solitary tract and spinal trigeminal nuclei most consistently affected)
    • Scrapie - distribution depends on the strain
    • Feline spongiform encephalopathy - caudate nucleus, also thalamus, cortex, brainstem
    • Immunohistochemistry for PrPd will stain these areas
  2. Vacuolation of neuronal cytoplasm
    • This is rare in conditions other than TSE, except for few neuronal vacuoles in the brainstem of normal ruminants
    • BSE - vestibular nuclei, reticular formation, parasympathetic nucleus of the vagus, nuclei of the hypoglossal nerve
    • Scrapie - Brainstem nuclei
    • Feline spongiform encephalopathy - nuclei of the caudal brainstem, red nucleus, vestibular nucleus
135
Q
A

Typical gross appearances of canine oligodendroglioma and astrocytoma.

(A)Canine oligodendroglioma. A well-demarcated, gelatinous gray mass is present in the region of the ventral frontal cortex and basal ganglia (asterisk) associated with areas of hemorrhage and a midline shift.

(B)Canine astrocytoma. A poorly recognizable mass (asterisk) that is of similar color and consistency with the adjacent parenchyma and is associated with a midline shift (arrow)

Koehler et al

136
Q

Glial tumor with the following features:

  • Nuclei - Mostly round, coarse chromatin pattern
  • Cytoplasm - Scant to moderate eosinophilic (or lost due to artifact)
  • Pseudo-rosettes
  • Nuclear rowing
  • Myxoid/mucinous matrix +/- lakes
  • Branching capillaries
  • Mineralization
  • Nuclear molding
A

Oligodendroglioma (if >80% of tumor meets the criteria)

(Koehler et al)

137
Q

Glial tumor with the following characteristics:

  • Nuclei - oval to elongate, open-faced chromatin pattern
    • Naked nuclei
  • Pleomorphic cells (large nucleoli, multinucleate cells), elongate cells (pilocytic), spindle-cell morphology
  • Cytoplasm - eosinophilic, abundant cytoplasm
  • Random, disorganized pattern
  • Lower degree of cell density
  • Rare mucin microcysts
  • Mineralization
  • Eosinophilic stroma
A

Astrocytoma

if > 80% of the tumor meets these criteria

(Koehler et al)

138
Q

What type of glioma has the following characteristics:

  • Undifferentiated cellular morphology
  • Biphenotypic/biphasic = both phenotypes in high proportions
A

Undefined glioma

Koehler et al

139
Q

What are the 3 possible types of glioma infiltration?

A

No infiltration: no infiltration or rare foci of infiltration

Focal infiltration: Compact with focal/multifocal regions of infiltration

Diffuse infiltration

Assessed at low magnification

(Koehler et al)

140
Q

Regarding gliomas, what are the terms for:

  • Neoplastic cells lined up perpendicularly to areas of necrosis
  • Convoluted, glomeruloid vasculature that is multilayered, hypertrophied endothelial cells, that is different than reactive vasculature
A

Neoplastic cells lined up perpendicularly to areas of necrosis = palasading necrosis

Convoluted, glomeruloid vasculature that is multilayered, hypertrophied endothelial cells, that is different than reactive vasculature = microvascular proliferation

(Koehler et al)

141
Q

How is low vs. high grade glioma determined?

A

(Infiltration does not matter)

If necrosis +/- microvascular proliferation +/- pseudopalasading –> high grade

  • If none of the above, does it have:
    • Mitosis in ten 400x fields +/- Overt presence of universal features of malignancy?
    • If yes –> high grade
    • If no –> low grade

Koehler et al

142
Q

Which stains can differentiate oligodendroglioma from astrocytoma?

A

Oligodendroglioma

  • Strong immunoreactivity: Olig2, PDGFR-alpha
  • Neuronal markers - synaptophysin, MAP2
  • CNPase - better for biopsy than necropsy

Astrocytoma

  • Strongly positive for IGFBP2, GFAP, EGFR
  • Variable for PDGFR-alpha, often abundant Olig2 staining
  • Will stain for neuronal markers

Ki67 - both

Koehler/Miller

143
Q

K9 brain tumor

A

Pathologic features of undefined canine glioma

(A)A roughly equal proportion of oligodendroglioma-like morphology (top) and astrocytoma-like morphology bottom).

(B)Two distinct populations of neoplastic cells with small, basophilic cells admixed with mucin separated by islands of less dense neoplastic cells that are more astrocytic in morphology.

(C)Regions of basophilic mucin deposition in an undefined canine glioma

Koehler et al

144
Q

D - Olig2
E - GFAP
F - CNPase

Dog brain tumor

A

Pathologic features of canine glioma immunohistochemical features

(D)Olig2immunoreactivity in canine oligodendroglioma is characterized by diffuse, intense intranuclear immunoreactivity in virtually all of the neoplastic cells.

(E)GFAP immunoreactivity in canine astrocytoma is often patchy, but intense cytoplasmic immunoreactivity is noted in approximately 30%of the neoplastic cells.

(F)CNPase immunoreactivity in canine oligodendroglioma is diffusely cytoplasmic and specific for the neoplastic cells.

Koehler et al

145
Q

CNS tumor of neuroepithelial tissue (7)

A
  1. Astrocytoma
  2. Oligodendroglioma
  3. Undifferentiated glioma
  4. Ependymal tumor
  5. Choroid plexus tumor
  6. Neuronal and mixed neuronal-glial tumor
  7. Embryonal tumor (PNET, medulloblastoma)

(Vanvelde)

146
Q
A

Features of oligodendroglioma

Koehler et al

147
Q

Immune cell infiltration canine oligodendroglioma:

  • CD3+ cells?
  • B cells?
  • Tumor associated macrophages
A

Canine oligodendroglioma:

CD3+ T lymphocyte infiltration is common

B cells are uncommon and often restricted to perivascular regions

Tumor-associated macrophages are abundant; represent microglia and macrophages derived from circulating monocytes (Iba1 stain)

Miller

148
Q

Where is the most common location for canine astrocytoma?

A

White matter of the cerebral hemispheres

149
Q

Glioma molecular pathology:

  • VEGF?
  • Oligodendrocyte precursor cell markers?
  • p53 mutations?
  • PDGFR-alpha?
  • AKT and MAPK?
  • IGFBP2 and ATF5?
A
  • Increased VEGF in high-grade tumors
  • Expression of oligodendrocyte precursor cell markers (NG2, doublecortin, SOX10, βIII-tubulin)
  • No current evidence of extensive involvement of p53 mutations, but altered expression in pathway proteins seen
  • Variable overexpression of PDGFRα
  • Increased phosphorylation of AKT and MAPK in astrocytic origin tumors
  • Overexpression of IGFBP2 and ATF5
  • Chromosomal aberrations in canine glioma: tumor suppressor genes, apoptosis, and autophagy genes

Boudreau et al

150
Q

Canine brain tumor

A

Meningothelial meningioma

  • Tumor cells form sheets and lobules of meningothelial cells
  • Cells are uniform with fine chromatin patterns
  • Nuclear inclusions can be seen
    • Whorls and psammoma bodies are not common
  • Relatively common in the dog, less common in the cat

(Miller)

151
Q

Canine brain tumor

A

Fibroblastic meningioma

  • Spindle cells forming parallel, storiform, and interlacing bundles and fasicles
  • Abundant collagen
  • Nuclear features approximate those in the meningothelial variant (fine chromatin pattern, nuclear inclusions can be seen)
  • Less common variant in the dog and cat

(Miller)

152
Q

Canine brain tumor

A

Transitional meningioma

  • Co-evolution of fibroblastic and meningothelial patterns
  • Typically interlacing regions of fasicles and tight whorls
  • Very common pattern in the dog and cat

(Miller)

153
Q

Canine brain tumor

A

Psammomatous

  • These tumors contain a predominance of psammoma bodies (>75% sample)
  • Typically a background transitional pattern
  • Uncommon in the dog, very common in the cat

(Miller)

154
Q

Canine brain tumor

A

Atypical meningioma

  • Increased mitotic activity (>4 per 400x field) or >3 of the following:
    • Increased cellularity
    • Small cells with high N:C ratio
    • Prominent nucleoli
    • Sheet-like growth
    • Foci of necrosis (geographic)
  • Can occur with any other pattern
  • Common in the dog, rare in the cat

(Miller)

155
Q

Canine brain tumor

A

Microcystic meningioma

  • Abundant intracytoplasmic cysts that may coalesce to form microcysts in tissue
  • An uncommon variant but common change seen in many canine meningiomas as a minor component
  • Rare in cats

(Miller)

156
Q

Canine brain tumor

A

Rhabdoid meningioma

  • Plump cells with eccentric nuclei; commonly have eosinophilic cytoplasm
  • Similar pattern seen in other tumor types

(Miller)

157
Q

Canine brain tumor

A

Papillary meningioma

  • Pseudorosettes predominate often along with other features like meningothelial whorls
  • Frequency increases with recurrences
  • Commonly invade the brain parenchyma
  • Uncommon in the dog; extremely rare in the cat

(Miller)

158
Q

Canine brain tumor

A

Anaplastic meningioma

  • Histologic characteristics of frank malignancy including atypia, markedly elevated mitotic rate (20 per 10), geographic often large regions of necrosis
  • Rare in the dog and cat

(Miller)

159
Q

Positive immunohistochemistry markers for meningioma

A
  • Vimentin (best), S100,
    • NSE - highly variable

Miller:

  • Vimentin
  • Claudin-1
  • Ki67
  • Cytokeratin (spotty)
  • NSE (spotty)
  • S100 (faint, inconsistent)
  • Estrogen/Progesterone Receptor (variable, PR>ER**)
    *PR expression inversely related to Ki67 and positive response to radiation
  • Laminin
  • CD34
  • COX2
  • MMP
  • VEGF
  • E-cadherin/N-cadherin (N-cadherin=invasive)
  • SSTR2

From Vanvelde: “Canine maningiomas are strongly and uniformly immunoreactive for vimentin and some express focal reactivity to CK (Lu-5). The most reliable confirmation of a diagnosis relies on TEM with the highly distinctive and consistent features of interdigitating cytoplasmic membranes with normal and abnormal gap and desmosomal junctions”

Negative for: Synaptophysin, GFAP, Olig2

(Miller)

160
Q

Immune-cell infiltrates in canine meningioma:

  • CD3+ T lymphocytes
  • CD18+ macrophages
  • B lymphocytes
  • FoxP3 and CD45RA positive cells
A
  • CD3+ T lymphocytes and CD18+ macrophages are common
  • Rare B lymphocytes
  • Scattered numbers of FoxP3 and CD45RA positive cells

(Miller)

161
Q

What are characteristics of higher grade choroid plexus tumors?

A

Brisk mitotic rate, desmoplasia

CPP grade I - recapitulate normal CP fronds, mitotic figures are rare

CPP grade III - frequent mitoses, nuclear atypia, increased cell density, focal loss of papillary formation w/ cell sheeting, necrosis, and increased layering of epithelium. Aggressive local brain invasion

(Miller)

162
Q

Immunohistochemistry of canine choroid plexus tumor

A

Can be defined via IHC through pan-cytokeratin, Kir7.1, E-cadherin , B-catenin among other cell adhesion molecules

Ki67 immunoreactivity correlates with increasing malignancy

Connective tissue core is vimentin positive

(Kir 7.1 is an inwardly rectifying potassium channel specific to choroid plexus epithelium)

(Miller)

163
Q

Canine brain tumor

A

Choroid plexus tumor

  • Papillary and frond-like intraventricular masses, often with invasion into adjacent neuroparenchyma
  • Some are most solid with small tubules and trabeculae
  • Cells will spread widely in the CSF and lead to carcinomatosis

(Miller)

164
Q
A

Ependymoma

  • Uncommon/rare intracranial tumors in the dog (< 2-3%)
  • Mostly reported in the lateral ventricle; less often in the 3rd and 4th ventricle
  • More common in cats

(Miller)

165
Q

Feline brain tumor

A

Figure 4.Brain; cat no. 1. Classic ependymoma with numerous pseudorosettes and fewer true rosettes. HE.Inset: Detail of the pseudos-stratified neoplastic cells around a blood vessel in a pseudorosette. HE.

Figure 5. Brain; cat no. 1. Tall columnar neoplastic cells arranged in true rosettes (R) with a core of cell processes. HE.

Figure 6.Brain; cat no. 13. Tanycytic ependymoma. Irregular bundles of neoplastic cells with delicate and elongated (piloid) processes.

(Woolford et al)

166
Q

Cat brain tumor

A

Figure 7. Brain; cat no. 15. Area of clear cell differentiation in a papillary ependymoma. Tall columnar to polygonal cells have clear cytoplasm and small round nuclei. Rosettes (R) are present. HE.
** clear cell subtype occurs only in the lateral ventricle

Figure 8.Brain; cat no. 12. Subependymoma. Irregular clusters of tumor cells with prominent nuclei are separated by zones rich in fibrillary cell processes.

Figure 9. Brain; cat no. 17. Glomeruloid microvascular proliferation where the extraventricular ependymoma invades the neocortex. HE.

Figure 10.Brain; cat no. 1. Strong diffuse cytoplasmic GFAP immunoreactivity in a classic ependymoma. Immunohistochemistry with hematoxylin counterstain

(Woolford et al)

167
Q

Immunohistochemistry of ependmoma

  • Pancytokeratin
  • GFA
  • S100
  • Olig2
A

DOG:

  • Consistent staining of the rosettes and single epithelial cells with pancytokeratin
  • GFAP immunoreactivity most robust in the cell processes of rosettes and pseudorosettes
  • Diffuse S100 immunoreactivity
  • Sparse Olig2 immunoreactivity

Miller

168
Q

Canine brain tumor

A

Granular cell tumor

  • Typically occur as plaque-like masses over the cerebral hemisphere, less commonly in other areas
  • Sheets, nodular foci, clusters of neoplastic cells with abundant eosinophilic granular cytoplasm
  • Reported to occur in the neurohypophysis
  • Sometimes combined with meningiomas
  • S100, ubiquitin, and alpha-1-antitrypsin immunoreactive
  • Negative GFAP, negative leukocyte and macrophage markers

(Miller)

169
Q

Canine brain tumor

A

Suprasellar germ cell tumor (Germinoma)

  • Uncommon to rare tumor in the dog
  • Consist of sheets of germ–cells, hepatocyte-like cells and epithelial differentiation
  • IHC for alpha fetoprotein is diagnostic

(Miller)

170
Q

Canine brain tumor

A

Histiocytic sarcoma

  • Single or multiple, either parenchymal, meningeal or both
  • Either part of systemic disease or primary in the CNS
  • Primary variant arises primarily in the meninges and invades the parenchyma

(Miller)

171
Q

Canine tumor

A

Nephroblastoma

  • Arises between T10 and L2
  • Can metastasize within the CNS to form multiple masses
  • Seen in young dogs
  • Arises intradural but extraparenchymal location
  • ICH for wilms tumor 1 is confirmatory

(Miller)

172
Q

Canine tumor

A

Malignant nerve sheath neoplasm

Schwannoma

  • Most common in nerve roots and cranial nerves (especially 5 and 8)
  • expansive and invasive neoplasms. Often track into the parenchyma around perivascular spaces
  • Antoni A: Long, bipolar spindle cells with rare palisading Verocay body formation
  • Antoni B: Markedly pleomorphic cells embedded in and eosinophilic to myxomatous stroma
  • May have cartilage, bone, epithelial, and melanocytic differentiation
  • Robustly positive for S100

Neurofibroma

  • Mixture of schwannoma features with abundant collagen, fibroblasts, and perineurial cells
  • Decreased S100 staining

Perineurioma

  • Unique and rare tumor with tight concentric whorls of neoplastic perineurial cells, often around a central axon

(Miller)

173
Q

“Perivascular pseudorosettes around blood vessels with a characteristic nuclear-free perivascular zone that is GFAP immunoreactive”

Is a key feature of what tumoe?

A

Ependymoma

(Vanvelde)

174
Q

What are the 3 subtypes of canine ependymoma?

A
  1. Papillary - finger-like papilliform processes, pined on their outer surface by ependymal cells, anchord to the central blood vessel by strongly GFAP immunoreactive fibrillary processes
  2. Cellular - most frequent, round to elongate cells, areas of necrosis w/o palasading
  3. Clear cell - lateral ventricle only, forms oligodendroglial like cells with round nuclei, clear empty perinuclear halos
    • Differentiated from oligodendroglioma by intracellular zona occludens bridging between cells

(Vanvelde)

175
Q

Breed predilection for choroid plexus tumor?

CSF findings CPP vs. CPC?
Gross characteristics of each?

A

Golden retriever

CPP grade I have a maximum protein concentration of < 80mg/dL compared with minimum of 108g/dL for grade III

CPP - granular, rough textured, circumscribed gray to reddish masses, well delineated from the ventricular wall
CPC additionally can have areas of necrosis and focal hemorrhage and can be infiltrative and adhere to the adjacent brain

(Vanvelde)

176
Q

___________ in the dog generally occur as well-defined intradural tumors within the spinal cord, presumed to arise from neural crest cell derivatives associated with regional autonomic nerves and blood vessels

A

Paraganglioma in the dog generally occur as well-defined intradural tumors within the spinal cord, presumed to arise from neural crest cell derivatives associated with regional autonomic nerves and blood vessels

  • In the PNS, these tumors occur in autonomic ganglia as well as sites such as the carotid body (chemodectoma) and adrenal medulla (pheochromocytoma)
  • Strongly immunoreactive for chromogranin A and B, synaptophysin, and TNF
  • Mitotic activity is very low

(Vanvelde)

177
Q

What is the predominant cell type that results in medulloblastoma

A

Neuron

  • Often located midline in the vermis, can secondarily invade the 4th ventricle and lateral hemispheric lobes

(Vanvelde)

178
Q

______________ are benign, slow growing, encapsulated tumors within the peripheral nerves that arise from Schwann cells

A

Schwannoma

  • Most occur in the spinal nerve roots of the brachial plexus, lower frequency of V, VIII and the sciatic nerve plexus
  • Increased incidence with older age
  • Expand by infiltration centripedally within the nerve roots, non-invasivey displacing and compressing the spinal cord
  • They can also spread centrifugally away from their primary site microscopically
  • Characteristic dumbell shape when they grow through the intervertebral foramen
  • Antoni A and B subtypes
  • Melanocytic variant can occur in the skin, not to be confused with a melanoma
  • Confirmed with staining to laminin or collagen IV (up to 30% can have GFAP and S100 immunoreactivity)
  • Must have an (ultrastructural) continuous or segmented basal lamina - without this it probably originates from an endoneurial or epineurial fibroblast

(Vanvelde)

179
Q

What are the antoni A vs. antoni B subtypes of schwannoma?

A

Antoni A; Most common, compact, long bipolar spindle cells with tapering ends forming whorls/bundles, poorly defined cytoplasm, variable extracellular collagen, formation of verocay-like bodies

Antoni B: less common, marked pleomorphism with plump or stellate cells embedded in low density, fine eosinophilic matrix

(Vanvelde)

180
Q

___________ are intraneural encapsulated tumors or skin nodules, consisting of mixtures of cell types, which may include neoplastic schwann cells, perineural cells, and least commonly fibroblasts

A

Neurofibromas

  • Less common type of nerve sheath tumor
  • Immunoreactivity to S100 and laminin is patchy or absent (depending on schwann cell content)

(Vanvelde)

181
Q

_____________ is a tumor with nerve sheath differentiation and neopalstic cell invasion beyond the confines of the epineurium

A

Malignant PNST

  • Lack epineurial tumor capsule
  • may aggressively invade surrounding structures
  • Foci of necrosis and hemorrhage common
  • Intradural tumors may show brain or spinal cord invasion
  • Vary widely in appearance
  • Originate within nerve fasicles but generally invade the surrounding structures

(Vanvelde)

182
Q

Dog brain tumor

A

Choroid plexus tumors.

A: Comparison of the similar histology of the normal choroid plexus (right side) with that of a papilloma on the left.

B: Surgical biopsy of a choroid plexus carcinoma in the fourth ventricle. There is piling up of epithelial cells, mitotic figures >2 per 400X HPF and some cell sheeting. HE.

C: Low and high MW (Lu5) cytokeratin immunoreactivity in a choroid plexus papilloma. IHC.

D: Neoplastic epithelial cells from a cytospin preparation of CSF from a choroid plexus carcinoma. Wright’s stain.

183
Q
A

Paraganglioma.

A: The characteristic packeting of nests of neuroendocrine-like cells formed by a thin fibrovascular stroma. HE.

B: The supporting fibrovascular stroma contains the cells within islands or nests. Reticulin silver stain.

C: Strong cytoplasmic immunoreactivity to chromogranin (illustrated) and to synaptophysin is expected in most cells. IHC

(Vanvelde)

184
Q

Dog nerve tumor

A

Schwannoma.

A: Histologically, these tumors are comprised of spindle-shaped cells with elongate nuclei and bipolar cytoplasmic processes, which form patterns of intersecting bundles, streams or whorls.

B: Dog. Neurofibroma. These tumors have very low cell density forming spindle-shaped elongate cells (of Schwann or fibroblast cell origin) with abundant collagen arranged isomorphically.

C: Immunoreactivity to laminin in the pattern of each cell bordered by a thin lamina is confirmation of a schwannoma. IHC

(Vanvelde)

185
Q

Most common location for spinal meningioma?

A

C1-4 (decreases in frequency caudally)

  • Less amenable to the histologic classification of intracranial meningiomas because of their histologic diversity

(Vanvelde)

186
Q

How accurate are cytologic smear preparations for meningiomas?

A

“Diagnostically very accurate”

187
Q

What are the two grade II meningiomas, and two grade III meningiomas?

A

Grade II: Choroid and atypical

Grade III: Malignant and papillary

(Vanvelde)

188
Q

Early loss of the tumor suppressor genes _________ (3) is a frequent occurrence in canine meningiomas

A
  1. NF2
  2. 4.1B
  3. TSLC1

(Vanvelde)

189
Q

Immunoreactivity of lymphoma to what antibodies will indicate B vs. T cell?

Metastatic lymphoma typically occurs in what location?

A

CD79a = B cell (also CD20, PAX5)

CD3 = T cell

“Ideally this provisional diagnosis should be confirmed by demonstration of clonal B or T cell receptor rearrangements”

Most canine lymphomas are of B cell origin, T and B cell phenotypes are common in the cat

Intravascular lymphoma is commonly B cell

“CNS metastases of systemic lymphomas are restricted to the dura and leptomeninges but may show some secondary parenchymal invasion”

(Vanvelde)

190
Q

Most to least common CNS metastatic neoplasias (7)

A
  1. Hemangiosarcoma
  2. Carcinoma (mammary, lung, and kidney)
  3. Metastatic lymphoma
  4. Nasal tumor
  5. Disseminated histiocytic sarcoma
  6. Sarcoma
  7. Malingnant melanoma

(Vanvelde)

191
Q

General histopathologic pattern induced by parasite migration in the CNS?

A
  1. Areas of malacia, mostly in white matter, swollen axons and hemorrhage
    • Round or elongated depending on sectioning
  2. Reactive changes near the tracts - vascular proliferation, invasion of macrophages, perivascular cuffing containing various amounts of eosinophils
  3. Sometimes slides contain sections of the parasite, often do not

(Vanvelde)

192
Q
  • Focal and severe necrotizing pyogranulomatous meningitis and encephalitis
  • ________ which resemble large macrophages, stain with PAS and can be found in the lesions
A

Amoebic encephalitis

(Vanvelde)

193
Q

Exotic infectious disease that cases epidural granulomas in the spine and granulomatous meningitis in dogs?

A

Leishmaniosis

194
Q

Young dog with neck pain

A

Steroid-responsive meningitis arteritis (SRMA).

A: Dog. Acute SRMA. Large spinal meningeal artery (partially thrombosed lumen); muscular layer (media, m) with focal acute fibrionoid necrosis (arrows), with intense inflammation in surrounding meninges (arach). HE.

B: Dog. Chronic SRMA. Chronic stenosing arterial lesion. The original structure of the media (m) with concentrically arranged smooth muscle cells is intact. Between the media and the endothelium there is a massive layer of cell infiltration with sub-intimal fibrosis and stenosis of the vascular lumen. There is some non-suppurative inflammatory cell infiltrate in the meninges and perivascularly (arrows). HE

(Vanvelde)

195
Q

Dog with:

  • Meningitis and periventriculitis with eosinophils partly infiltrating the underlying parenchyma
  • CSF eosinophilia
  • Infectious cause not identified
A

Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis

(Vanvelde)

196
Q

Canine brain histopathology:

  • Asymmetrical, multifocal, bilateral areas of either acute encephalitis or chronic foci of malacia
  • Necrosis and collapse of hemispheric gray and white matter decreasing in intensity rostrocaudally
  • Focal meningitis and polioleukoencephalitis of adjacent white matter
  • Acute, nonsuppurative encephalitis in the hippocampus, septal nuclei, and thalamus can coexist with chronic lesions
A

Necrotizing meningoencephalitis

(Vanvelde)

197
Q

Canine brain

A

Canine necrotizing meningoencephalitis (NME). Pug dog.

A: Cerebrum.Transverse MRI FLAIR sequence showing massive acute hyperintense bilateral lesions in cerebral cortex and subcortical white matter.

B: Lateral view of the brain. Gross lesion in temporal lobe with multifocal areas of discoloration and underlying cortical necrosis.

C: Histological section of the same dog at the same level as in B. Extensive destruction of cortex on right side and subcortical white matter on left side.

D: Frontal lobe. Severe lymphocytic meningitis and polioencephalitis with necrotizing leukoencephalitis in underlying white matter. HE

198
Q

Canine with brain lesions of:

  • Asymmetric bilateral malacia necrotizing lesions confined to hemispheric white matter and the brainstem
  • Intense histocytic, microglial and macrophage cellular infiltrate with loss of white matter and thick perivascular lymphocytic cuffing
  • Areas of acute exudation, severe edema, necrosis, and eventual cyst formation with a dramatic gemisocytic astrogliosis, histiocytes and gitter cells intermixed with thick perivascular lymphocytic cuffing
  • Characteristically the overlying cortex and meninges are not involved - more centered on midbrain, brainstem and cerebellum
A

Necrotizing encephalitis/necrotizing leukoencephalitis

  • Yorkshire terriers, french bulldog, pomeranian

(Vanvelde)

199
Q

Greyhound brain in Ireland:

  • Diffuse mononuclear encephalitis with severe gliosis predominantly in the cerebral cortex, caudate nucleus, and periventricular gray matter of the brainstem
  • No evidence of neuronal targeting as in neurotropic viral infections
A

Meningoenceephalitis in greyhounds

  • Multiple pups in a litter will be affected

(Vanvelde)

200
Q

Dog nerve:

  • Marked concentric proliferation of Schwann cells (onion bulbs) associated with chronic mononuclear inflammation
  • Cranial and spinal nerve roots occasionally leading to space occupying lesions
A

Chronic hypertrophic neuritis

  • Rare condition in dogs

(Vanvelde)

201
Q

Dog nerve:

  • Severe mononuclear inflammation and axonal degeneration in the dorsal spinal root ganglia, trigeminal ganglia, and associated nerves
  • Marked Wallerian degeneration of the dorsal columns
A

Sensory polyganglioneuritis

(Vanvelde)

202
Q

Horse nerve:

  • marked swelling of the cauda equina nerves with restrictive inflammation
  • Granulomatous inflammation with occasional multinucleated giant cells and massive fibrosis
  • Occasionally involvement of cranial nerves
A

Polyneritis equi

  • Aka cauda equina neuritis
  • Rare sporadic disease in horses
  • Possibly autoimmune, possibly post infectious (herpes, adenovirus)
  • Progressive, with tail and sphincter paralysis and paresthesia/anesthesia of the perineum
203
Q

Canine brain

A

Canine necrotizing encephalitis (NE). Dog. Yorkshire Terrier.

A: Transverse MRI FLAIR image at level of basal ganglia. Hyperintense lesions in cerebral white matter. Destructive grey matter lesions on the right side.

B: Similar case. Chronic lesion with cystic malacia and associated cerebral atrophy.

C: Cerebrum. Destructive lesion with intense diffuse infiltration with inflammatory cells and several very prominent perivascular cuffs comprised mainly of lymphocytes. HE.

D: NE. Dog. Yorkshire Terrier. Subcortical white matter. Severe diffuse infiltration with inflammatory cells in parenchyma at the edge of a malacic lesion. HE. E: “Burnt out” cystic lesion with distinctive proliferation of gemistocytic astrocytes and thick lymphocytic perivascular cuffing. HE

(Vanvelde)

204
Q

Canine nerve

A

Acute polyradiculoneuritis. Dog. Spinal nerve root. Diffuse lymphocytic infiltration (large arrow), several degenerating axons (arrows) within the fascicle. HE

(Vanvelde)

205
Q

Horse cauda equina

A

Cauda equine neuritis. Horse.

A: Massive enlargement of lumbosacral spinal nerves outside of the dura mater.

B: Histologically there is a multifocal fibrosing, granulomatous and necrotizing polyneuritis sometimes with multinucleated giant cells (arrow). HE

(Vanvelde)

206
Q

Terms for:

  • Main artery is obstructed
  • Obstruction of perforating arteries
  • Global cerebral ischemic that is accentuated at the boundary between the territories of 2 major cerebral arteries
    • The predilection for ischemic infarction in this case is the internal capsule and surrounding area (terminal perfusion area of the rostral and middle cerebral arteries, or middle and caudal cerebral arteries)

(Vanvelde)

A

Territorial infarct - main artery is obstructed

Lacunar infarct - obstruction of smaller perforating arteries

Watershed infarcts - global cerebral ischemia that is accentuated at the boundary between the territories of 2 major cerebral arteries

(Vanvelde)

207
Q

Brain lesion of:

  • Well circumscribed areas of discoloration (tan) and softening predominantly in the gray matter
A

Ischemic infarct

  • Predominantly gray matter, occasionally white matter
  • The centrum semiovale - region of white matter that is prone to infarction
  • Ischemia of the white matter may be seen in CO intoxication

(Vanvelde)

208
Q

Histopathologic findings in acute ischemic infarct

Chronic infarct?

A
  • Acute lesions - edema surrounding the infarcted area
  • Infarcted area is pale compared to the normal brain and sharply demarcated
  • Acidophilic neurons and swollen axons are observed
  • Astrocytes have swollen nuclei
  • Necrotic tissue is invaded by lg numbers of macrophages removing the dead tissue
  • Penumbra - vascular proliferation, astrogliosis

Chronic - infarcts become cavities tat are lined and traversed by dense astroglial scar tissue

** in many cases of suspected cerebral infarction, vascular obstruction is not found on histopathologic examination

(Vanvelde)

209
Q

___________ leads to widespread, bilaterally symmetrical neuron death in selectively vulnerable neuronal populations

  • Ischemia in the cerebral cortex (hippocampus), cerebellar cortex, basal nuclei, thalamic nuclei
A

Global ischemia

  • Called ischemic encephalopathy in humans
  • Following anesthetic accidents, cardiac arrest, neonatal maladjustment syndrome, severe anemia, hypotension, and hypovolemic shock
  • In animals dying immediately or within a few hours following the ischemic insult, there is not sufficient time for microscopic lesions to develop and the brain may appear normal
  • Depending on duration and intensity of ischemia:
    • Neuropathology varies from a few necrotic neurons to pseudolaminar necrosis of the cerebral cortex to global infarction of the brain appreciated macroscopically
  • Has to be differentiated from metabolic/toxic encephalopathy

(Vanvelde)

210
Q

Cat with:

  • Unilateral extensive infarction of the cerebral cortex and hippocampus
  • Surviving patient - marked atrophy of one hemisphere
A

Feline ischemic encephalopathy

  • Uderlying cause is parasitic migration of Cuterebra
  • Presumably toxic effects of the parasite induce vascular spasm leading to ischemia

(Vanvelde)

211
Q

Causes of hemorrhagic brain infarcts

A
  • Thrombosis of veins (uncommon)
  • Vascular damage of artery, increased leakage of erythrocytes when reperfusion occurs in focal ischemia
    • Leads to ring hemorrhages which may coalesce to form larger hemorrhagic lesions
  • Hemorrhagic cerebral infarcts must be differentiated from TRAUMA
    • Traumatic lesions more likely to have meningeal contact, meningeal hemorrhage, and possibly “contre-coup” lesions in other locations

(Vanvelde)

212
Q

3 Broad causes of intracranial hemorrhage

A
  1. Trauma
  2. Toxic/metabolic
  3. Infectious/inflammatory process causing vascular injury (septicemia, vascular tumor)

(Vanvelde)

213
Q

Cat brain with:

  • Hyalinosis of the vessel wall (thickening and leakage of eosinophilic material and its deposition in the vessel wall resulting in hyaline appearance)
  • Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis (thickening of the vessel wall due to concentric hyperplasia of spindloid cells)
  • Severe vasogenic edema
  • Parenchymal and subarachnoid hemorrhages
  • Ischemic necrosis w/ influx of phagocytes
A

Hypertensive encephalopathy

  • Develops with an abrupt and prolonged increase of systemic blood pressure that overwhelms the autoregulatory mechanisms of the brain

(Vanvelde)

214
Q

Occlusion of what spinal cord arteries are required to cause:

  • Necrosis of the gray matter
  • Restricted pattern of leukomyelomalacia
  • Venous occlusion
A

Occlusion of the ventral spinal artery - necrosis of gray matter

occlusion of circumferential arterial branches of spinal and radicular arteries - restricted leukomyelomalacia

If both systems are involved, there is sharply defined myelomalacia

Venous occlusion - hemorrhagic malacia

FCE - generally found in arteries and veins. Can be detected with Giemsa, toluidine blue, or alcian blue histochemical stains

(Vanvelde)

215
Q

What vessels supply each colored area?

A

Red: central (sulcal) branch of the ventral spinal artery

Blue: circumferential branches of the ventral radicular arteries

Green: Circumferential branches of the dorsal spinal artery

(Vanvelde)

216
Q

Dog spinal cord

A

Dog. Fibrocartilagenous emboli (FCE).

A: White matter of the cord. Well demarcated area of pallor with edema, acute necrosis and hemorrhage. Embolus occludes the dorsal radicular artery (arrow). HE.

B: Infarcted area with edema, dilation of myelin sheaths, fibrocartilagenous embolus (arrow). HE.

C: A large fibrocartilagenous embolus almost completely occludes a subarachnoidal vein. HE.

D: Fibrocartilagenous emboli stain bright blue with alcian-blue stain

217
Q

Cat brain

A

Cat. Feline hypertensive encephalopathy

A: Hyaline changes and thickening of arteriolar walls, secondary proteinaceous exudation, edema and gliosis in the surrounding brain parenchyma. HE.

B: Subarachnoidal arteries showing hyperplastic changes with massive thickening of the wall due to adventitial fibroblast proliferation and subendothelial deposition of hyaline material. HE

(Vanvelde)

218
Q

Dog brain

A

Dog with septicemia. Cross-section of forebrain. Multifocal and randomly distributed hemorrhages of varying size in the gray and white matter

(Vanvelde)

219
Q

Gross findings:

  • Arteries rigid, irregularly thickened and white to yellow-white plaques
  • Arterial lumina are narrowed or almost obliterated
  • Intimal thickening of intracranial arteries
A

Atherosclerosis

  • Older pigs are most commonly and severely affected
  • Dogs - lesions most commonly involve the cerebral, coronary, and renal arteries and most severe in the intima and media
  • Hemorrhage, ischemia, and infarction of the cerebral cortex are uncommon but can occur
  • Presumptive hypothyroidism associated

(Miller)

220
Q

____________ is a proliferation of cells in the pars distalis or pars intermedia of the pituitary gland that are multiple and < 1mm

A

Nodular proliferation or hyperplasia

  • Do not disrupt the reticulin scaffolding of the adenohypophysis
  • can produce excessive trophic hormones

(McGavin)

221
Q

Most canine pars distalis adenomas are derived from _______________

Most feline pars distalis adenomas are derived from _______________

A

Most canine pars distalis adenomas are derived from corticotrophs

Feline adenomas are usually derived from corticotrophs or somatotrophs

Pars distalis adenomas 1-5mm in diameter –> microadenomas

Adenomas > 5mm –> macroadenoma

** Large macroadenomas tend to have compressive mass effect rather than trophic hormone effect

222
Q

Equine pituitary adenomas almost always develop in the ______________
What is the proliferative cell type?

A

Pars intermedia of the adenohypophysis

The pars intermedia is the second most common site for canine pituitary adenomas

Chromophobic neoplastic cells filled with colloid

Functional tumor can result in hyperadrenocorticism

Nonfunctional adenomas can result in hypopituitarism or diabetes insipidus secondary to destruction of the neurohypophysis or compression of the hypothalamus

223
Q

Where do melanotroph adenomas originate?

A

Derived from pars intermedia cells that produce POMC-derived peptides

Major pituitary neoplasm in horses, rarely reported in other species

224
Q

What is a pituicytoma?

A

neopalsm of the glial cells of the pars nervosa - considered a variant of astrocyte

express GFAP immunohistochemically

225
Q

What type head injury produces a coup injury that is more severe than a contre-coup injury? Contre-coup injury that is worse than coup?

A

Stationary head hit by a moving object –> coup injury is most severe, contre-coup less severe

Moving head hits a stationary object –> contre-coup most severe, coup less severe

(Vanvelde)

226
Q

“At the site of impact there is damage to the microvasculature leading to intramedullary hemorrhage, which is typically more pronounced in the gray than white matter” describes what type of spinal cord pathology?

A

Contusion

  • Hemorrhage is associated with acute ischemic necrosis of the tissue

(Vanvelde)

227
Q

What is the sequence of events associated with subacute/chronic spinal cord compression?

A

Cord compression –> reduced perfusion –> vascular stasis –> increased hydrostatic pressure –> edema –> further volume increase –> rise in intraspinal pressure –> cord compression

(Vanvelde)

228
Q

Spinal cord histopathologic lesions of:

  • Marked spongy state of the white matter
  • Reactive changes - invasion of neutrophils/macrophages, vascular proliferation gliosis
  • Wallerian degeneration in ascending and descending tracts of the cord
A

Acute/chronic spinal cord compression

  • The spongy state is caused by either edema in the tissue (with little evidence of lysis of cellular elements/reactive changes) or destructive lesions including demyelination and axonal disruption/swelling

(Vanvelde)

229
Q

RE peripheral nerve injury:

  • ___________ occurs in crush injuries in which the nerve remains intact but with interruption of conduction resulting from compression/ischemia
  • ___________ occurs when axons are destroyed but anatomical continuity of the connective tissues of the nerve remains preserved.
  • ______________ occurs with rupture and loss of the continuity of the nerve, or extensive destruction of the connective tissue structures
A
  • Neuropraxia occurs in crush injuries in which the nerve remains intact but with interruption of conduction resulting from compression/ischemia
    • There is no wallerian degeneration
    • Function returns within hours to weeks
  • Axonotmesis occurs when axons are destroyed but anatomical continuity of the connective tissues of the nerve remains preserved.
    • Leads to Wallerian degeneration and retrograde changes
    • Regeneration occurs but takes months to years depending on the distance from the nerve’s target
  • Neurotmesis occurs with rupture and loss of the continuity of the nerve, or extensive destruction of the connective tissue structures
    • Histological changes consist of axonal swelling and fragmentation, loss of myelin sheaths, invasion of macrophages in the degenerating fibers and Schwann cell proliferation

(Vanvelde)

230
Q

What causes diffuse axonal injury?

A

Diffuse axonal injury = variant of diffuse brain injury

Axons of myelinated nerve fibers are injured by shearing forces

(Miller)

231
Q

What is the most common site of lesions in horses with cervical static stenosis?

What is the most common site of lesions in horses with dynamic cervical stenosis?

A

Cervical static stenosis: 1-4y of age, C5-7

  • Acquired dorsal or dorsolateral narrowing of the spinal canal

Cervical vertebral instability (dynamic stenosis)

  • 8-18m
  • Narrowing of the spinal canal during flexion of the head
  • C3-5

(Miller)

232
Q

Cat brain - what is the lesion?

A

Previous old trauma. A: Cat. A depressed area of focal, chronic encephalomalacia in the right frontal lobe with loss of tissue. Note yellowish-brown discoloration of the lesion

(Vanvelde)

233
Q

What is the term for a forebrain malformation with variable failure in cerebral hemispheric sagittal cleavage?

A

Holoprosencephaly

A small monoventricular cerebrum remains individed into 2 hemispheres
There is a range in severity from minimal abnormality (agenesis of the olfactory bulbs or lobes) to complete absence of development

Usually associated with midline facial abnormalities
Mid and hindbrain are normal

234
Q

___________ are disorders that result from abnormal migation of postmitotic neuroblast and glioblast populations, derived from the subependymal plate zone

A

Neuronal migration disorders and sulcation defects

ex/ Lissencephaly, pachygyria, polymicrogyria

(Vanvelde)

235
Q

___________ is a single, cystic, fluid-filled cavity of varying size in the wall of the cerebral hemisphere (usually in 1 frontal lobe)

A

Porencephaly

  • Considered an encephaloclastic defect (secondary malformations which occur probably as a result of an acquired transplacental and destructive process in pre-existing brain tissue)
  • Uncommonly, there may be connections between the cyst and both or either the ventricular or subarachnoid space
  • Typically involves mainly white matter
  • Occasionally can be bilaterally symmetric - BORDER DISEASE infection, in utero copper deficiency, and fetal hyperthermia

(Vanvelde)

236
Q

___________ is a congenital brain disease caused by massive bilateral symmetrical cerebral necrosis with almost complete loss of pre-existing tissue and replacement by huge fluid filled sacs containing leptomeninges

A

Hydranencephaly

  • Considered an encephaloclastic defect - acquired transplacental destructive process
  • Sometimes there can be residual peripheral evidence of an inflammatory or ischemic process with gitter cells, mineralization, and gliosis in any surviving brain parenchyma
  • Lateral ventricles remain intact
  • Many fetal transplacental viruses cause hydranencephaly: Blue tongue, Akabane, BVDV, Border disease, feline parvovirus

(Vanvelde)

237
Q
A

B: Diagram of common types of dysraphic malformations of the spinal cord associated with spina bifida

a: spina bifida aperta with a lack of closure of the neural tube
b: spina bifida occulta
c. meningomyelocoele
d: meningocoele.

(Vanvelde)

238
Q
A

Weimaraner puppy. Spina bifida, absent dorsal arch with a syringomyelic cavity in dorsal columns

Vanvelde

239
Q
A

Disorders of neuronal migration and sulcation.

A: 6-month-old Lhaso Apso dog. Brain with agyria (lissencephaly). Note the lack of any hemispheric gyral formation and slight collapse of cerebral hemispheres suggestive of some degree of hydrocephalus.

B: Same dog, transverse section through the cerebral hemispheres with complete lack of gyral formation. Note thickened cortex and and a bilateral midcortical laminar layer of aberrant white matter. The subependymal white matter is relatively thin and there is bilateral slightly asymmetrical hydrocephalus. HE-LFB stain.

C: Newborn goat. Brain. Pachygyria. Normal cortical gyri are replaced by fewer greatly thickened gyral convolutions bilaterally in the cerebral hemispheres. There is also a severe cerebellar hyoplasia.

D: Calf brain. Polymicrogyria. There are multifocal random areas of small disorganized cortex with smaller gyri in the cerebral hemispheres.

(Vanvelde)

240
Q
A

Encephaloclastic defects.

A: Dog. Brain. Porencephaly. There is a single, once fluid-filled, cyst in both white and gray matter but without connections to either the ventricle or subarachnoid space.

B: Neonatal calf. Hydranencephaly. This calf was transplacentally infected with modified live bluetongue virus at 60 days’ gestation. The cerebral hemispheres have been essentially destroyed and there are residual cystic meningeal sacs, which have collapsed. The cerebellum and brainstem appear normal

(Vanvelde)

241
Q

Cat cerebellum - what is the pathology?

A

Cat. Virus-induced cerebellar hypoplasia.

A: Kitten. Normal neonatal cerebellum including the folial cortex. HE.

B. Kitten with extreme cerebellar hypoplasia and dysplasia from in utero transplacental feline panleukopenia virus infection. HE.

C: Newborn kitten. Cerebellum. Feline panleukopenia virus intranuclear viral inclusion bodies and cytolysis of the subpial neuroblast layer. HE.

D: Kitten. Extreme cerebellar folial dysplasia and hypoplasia with almost non-existent granular layer and dysplastic disorganized Purkinje cells

(Vanvelde)

242
Q
A

Neonatal foal. Dandy-Walker syndrome. There is marked vermal cerebellar agenesis with cystic distension of the fourth ventricle

(Vanvelde)

243
Q
A

Puppy with quadrigeminal cyst.

A: Sagittal MRI with the T2W image revealing the patent connection between the lumen of the quadrigeminal cyst and the third ventricle. The cerebellar vermis is herniated through the foramen magnum.

B: Gross image of the same puppy as in A. The cyst has collapsed but leaves a markedly enlarged space (arrow) with obvious induced compression of the occipital lobes and cerebellum with cerebellar coning. There is also dilatation of the lateral ventricle

(Vanvelde)

244
Q

What are the three general patterns of lesions seen in metabolic-toxic brain disease?

A
  1. Malacia (sometimes with hemorrhage)
  2. Selective necrosis or loss of neurons, axons, or myelin
  3. Spongy state

(Vanvelde)

245
Q

Metabolic causes of gray matter necrosis? (5)

A

All cause multifocal, symmetrical, cortical, nonhemorrhagic malacia

  1. Thiamin deficiency in ruminants
  2. Water deprivation
  3. Hippocampal sclerosis
  4. Seizures
  5. Hypoglycemia

Multifocal, symmetrical, deep gray matter, nonhemorrhagic malacia - thiamine deficiency in carnivores

(Vanvelde)

246
Q

Toxic causes of gray matter necrosis

Dogs/cats/all (6)

Lg animals (6)

A

Dogs/cats/all

  1. Multifocal, symmetrical, cortical gray matter, nonhemorrhagic malacia
    1. Carbamate (dogs, cats)
    2. Lead (all)
    3. Mercury (all)
    4. Feline hippocampal necrosis
  2. Cyanide (dogs, cats)
  3. Metronidazole (dogs, cats)

Lg animals

  1. Sulfur (ruminants)
  2. Selenium (pig)
  3. Hydrogen sulfide (ruminants, pigs)
  4. Nigropalladial encephalomalacia (horse)
  5. Annual ryegrass staggers (ruminants)
  6. Aeschynomee indica (pig)

(Vanvelde)

247
Q

Metabolic causes of white matter necrosis?

Toxic causes of gray and white matter necrosis?

A

White matter necrosis - swayback (sheep, metabolic); equine leukoencephalomalacia (toxic)

Gray and white matter necrosis

  • Enterotoxemia (ruminants, pig)
    • Multifocal symmetric hemorrhagic malacia
  • Carbon monoxide (all)
    • Multifocal, symmetric, nonhemorrhagic malacia

(Vanvelde)

248
Q

Metabolic (2) and toxic (5) causes of selective changes to neurons?

A

Metabolic:

  1. Enzootic ataxia (goat, sheep)
  2. Equine motor neuron disease

Toxic:

  1. Aspergillus clavatus (ruminants)
  2. Phalaris grass staggers (ruminants, horse)
  3. Crysocoma tenuifolia (sheep)
  4. Dysautonomia (horse, cat, dog)
  5. Toxic lysosomal storage (ruminants)

(Vanvelde)

249
Q

Toxic (3) and metabolic (7) causes of selective axonal changes?

A

Metabolic:

  1. Cobalamin deficiency (cat)
  2. Vitamin A deficiency (pig)
  3. Vitamin E deficiency (dog, horse)

Toxic

  1. Zamia staggers (ruminants)
  2. Sorghum (horse, ruminants)
  3. Halinium (sheep)
  4. Perennial ryegrass staggers (ruminants, horse)
  5. Tribulus terrestrius (sheep)
  6. Organophosphates (all)
  7. Tri-nitro (pig)

(Vanvelde)

250
Q

Metabolic causes of spongy state

Toxic causes of spongy state

A

Metabolic:

  1. Liver failure
  2. Renal failure
    Both cause no gross lesions, spongy state with numerous clearly defined vacuoles of varying size that particularly affects the boundary area between gray and white matter in a bilaterally symmetric pattern
    • In small animals - most prominent in cerebellar nuclei and brainstem nuclei
    • Spinal cord - lesions predominantly in the fasiculus proprius

Toxic:

  1. Hexachlorophene (dog, cat)
  2. Ammonia (ruminants, pig)
  3. Closantel (goat, sheep)
  4. Bromethalin (dog, cat)
  5. Helichrysum argyrosphaerum (ruminants)
  6. Stypandra (ruminants)
  7. Sporadic brain edema in swiss cattle

(Vanvelde)

251
Q

Pathologic finding of:

  • Atrophy and asymmetry of the hippocampi
  • Diffuse loss of pyramidal cells in the hippocampus
  • Acidophilic neurons
  • Varying severity of gliosis
  • No malacia
  • In a patient with a long history of refractory seizures
A

Hippocampal sclerosis

(Vanvelde)

252
Q

Where are the lesions of carnivore polioencephalomalacia secondary to thiamine deficiency located?

A

“Very old cats really need love”

  1. Vestibular
  2. Oculomotor
  3. Caudal colliculi
  4. Red nucleus
  5. Lateral geniculate nuclei

(also vanvelde mentions periaqueductal gray, Miller mentions midlaminae of the cerebral cortex)

The diagnosis can be made macroscopically if the characteristic bilaterally symmetrical hemorrhages in the brainstem are present

There is polioencephalomalacia with edema and varying degrees of hemorrhage, capillary endothelial hypertrophy and hyperplasia with proteinaceous exudate

Chronic lesions - neuronal loss, vacuolation of the neuropil, intense astrogliosis

(Vanvelde)

253
Q

Horse with clinical signs of:

  • Abnormal tongue and mouth movements
  • Difficulty with prehension, swallowing and drinking,
  • Bilaterally symmetrical malacic or chronic cystic polioencephalomalacia in the substantia nigra and globus pallidus
A

Equine nigropalladial encephalomalacia (Yellow star thistle poisoning)

  • Horses in arid areas feed on pastures containing Centaurea solstitialis (yellow star thistle) or Centaurea repens (Russian knapweed)
  • Lesions can be unilateral!

(Vanvelde)

254
Q

Pathologic lesion in a cat:

  • Focal, axonal swelling and demyelination in motor and sensory nerves
  • More distal portions of the nerves - Wallerian degeneration
A

Vincristine poisoning

(Vanvelde)

255
Q

How can an abrupt dietary change lead to thiamine deficiency in cattle?

A

Deficiency of thiamine is related to the amount available to be absorbed from the GI tract

Increased dietary source of carbohydrate –> bacterial population in the rumen shifts to increased production of thiaminase –> ruminal thiamine available for absorption decreases

(de Lahunta)

256
Q

What are the earliest histologic lesions of thiamine deficiency encephalopathy in cattle?

What ancillary procedure can be used to support the diagnosis of thiamine deficiency?

A

Cytotoxic edema of the cerebrocortical astrocytes (followed by adjacent neurons)

Determination of erythrocyte transketolase activity (thiamine dependent enzyme) can help support the diagnosis

(de Lahunta)

257
Q

Dog brain tumor cytology

A

Meningioma

  • Exfoliate in variably tight aggregates that may be associated with pink extracellular matrix
  • Cells mostly are fusiform to stellate, but can be ovoid and have a moderate volume of pale-blue cytoplasm
  • Nuclei are ovoid with finely granular chromatin and multiple prominent nucleoli
  • Round prominent structures may be seen in the nucleus (nuclear pseudoinclusions) - represent projection of the cytoplasm into nuclear grooves
  • Anisocytosis/anisokaryosis usually are moderate, N/C ratios are variable

(Burton)

258
Q

Canine brain tumor cytology

A

Meningioma

  • Exfoliate in variably tight aggregates that may be associated with pink extracellular matrix
  • Cells mostly are fusiform to stellate, but can be ovoid and have a moderate volume of pale-blue cytoplasm
  • Nuclei are ovoid with finely granular chromatin and multiple prominent nucleoli
  • Round prominent structures may be seen in the nucleus (nuclear pseudoinclusions) - represent projection of the cytoplasm into nuclear grooves
  • Anisocytosis/anisokaryosis usually are moderate, N/C ratios are variable

(Burton)

259
Q

Canine brain tumor cytology

A

Psammoma body

(Burton)

260
Q

Canine brain tumor cytology

A

Lymphoma

  • Lymphoma of the CNS appears similar to that in other organs
  • Expanded population of discrete, round cells with round to indented nuclei approximately 2-3 RBCs in diameter
    • Finely stippled, immature chromatin
  • The chromatin pattern and amount of cytoplasm are most useful in differentiating from lymphoma
    • Oligodendroglioma - moderate volume of medium-blue cytoplasm. Nuclei are ovoid and eccentrically placed and have coarsely granular chromatin with prominent nucleoli

(Burton)

261
Q

Canine brain tumor cytology

A

Astrocytoma

  • Cytologic appearance of astrocytomas varies with degree of differentiation of the neoplastic cells
  • Differentiated tumors comprise spindloid cells
  • Scant cytoplasm forming long bipolar cytoplasmic processes
  • Elongated nuclei
    • Finely granular chromatin
    • Fine basophilic nucleoli
  • Anisocytosis/anisokaryosis are mild to moderate
  • N/C ratio high

(Burton)

262
Q

Canine brain tumor cytology

A

Oligodendroglioma

  • Abundant coursing capillaries
  • Neoplastic cells are fragile, bare nuclei may be present
  • Cells are ovoid with a moderate volume of medium-blue cytoplasm
  • Nuclei are ovoid, eccentrically placed
  • Coarsely granular chromatin with prominent nucleoli
  • Chromatin pattern, amount of cytoplasm - most useful in differentiating from lymphoma

(Burton)

263
Q

Dog spinal cord tumor cytology

A

Primitive neuroectodermal tumor (PNET)

  • Exfoliate in loosely cohesive sheets and cells often are seen individually such that they may be difficult to differentiate from lymphoma
  • Compared to lymphoma, the cells often aggregate and tend to form vague palisading and acinar-like arrangements
  • Ovoid nuclei
    • Stippled chromatin
    • Variably prominent nucleoli
  • Anisocytosis/anisokaryosis are mild to moderate
  • NC ratio high
  • Many mitotic figures usually present

(Burton)

264
Q

Dog brain tumor cytology

A

Histiocytic sarcoma

  • Population of large, atypical, discrete cells
  • Round with a variable volume of medium-blue cytoplasm that often is vacuolated
  • Nuclei are ovoid to ameboid
    • Finely stippled chromatin
    • Multiple prominent nucleoli
  • Anisocytosis/anisokaryosis are marked
  • NC ratios are high

(Burton)

265
Q

Dog brain tumor cytology

A

Choroid plexus papilloma

  • Comprised of cohesive sheets of round cells
  • Moderate to abundant amounts of mid blue cytoplasm containing variable number of fine pink granules
  • Nuclei round to ovoid, eccentrically placed, have small or inapparent nucleoli
  • Anisocytosis/anisokaryosis are mild
  • NC ratio are moderate to low

(Burton)

266
Q

Canine brain tumor cytology

A

Choroid plexus carcinoma

  • Exfoliate in sheets, often palisading in rows
  • Cells have a small to moderate volume of mid-blue cytoplasm
  • Round nuclei
    • Coarsely granular chromatin
    • Variably prominent nucleoli
  • Anisocytosis/anisokaryosis are mild to moderate
  • NC ratios are high

(Burton)

267
Q

Canine brain tumor cytology

A

Ependymoma

  • Ependymomas exfoliate as tightly cohesive clusters, often acinar-like arrangements
  • Moderate volume of medium-blue cytoplasm, may contain clear vacuoles
  • Nuclei are round, eccentrically placed
    • Granular chromatin
    • Single nucleoli
  • Anisocytosis/anisokaryosis are mild to moderate

(Burton)

268
Q

Canine brain lesion cytolog

A

Encephalitis

  • Inflammatory lesions in the CSF are characterized by variable numbers of inflammatory cells
  • Type of cells may indicate the underlying cause

(Burton)

269
Q

Canine CSF

A

Myelin-like material

  • Appears as variably sized-aggregates of pale-pink, foamy material, often with internal circular structures giving a honeycomb appearance
  • Mostly incidental finding in CSF
  • Larger amounts associated with intervertebral disc disease
  • More likely seen in lumbar than cerebellomedullary samples, and in dogs < 10kg

(Burton)

270
Q

Canine CSF

A

Surface epithelial cells

  • Ependymal, meningeal, and choroid plexus cells possible
  • Round, moderate volume of pink granular cytoplasm and eccentric nuclei = ependymal or choroid plexus origin
  • Polygonal/spindloid with pale blue cytoplasm and round/ovoid nuclei - meningeal origin
  • Anisokaryosis/cytosis are mild

(Burton)

271
Q

Canine CSF

A

Lymphotycic pleocytosis

(Burton)

272
Q

Feline CSF

A

Mononuclear pleocytosis/reactivity

  • Macrophages predominate in normal CSF
  • In cases of mononuclear reactivity, these cells are present in normal numbers but have reactive changes including increased volume of vacuolated cytoplasm or increased cytoplasmic basophilia
    • Reactive monocytes w/o blood contamination - useful indicator of CNS pathology
    • Nonspecific

(Burton)

273
Q

CSF cat

A

Feline infectious peritonitis

  • Fluid has very high protein content - medium to thick purple background
  • Reactive macrophages usually predominate, neutrophils may also predominate
  • Small mature lymphocytes often present

(Burton)

274
Q

Canine CSF

A

Cryptotoccal meningitis

(Burton)

275
Q

Canine CSF

A

Lymphoma

  • Lymphoma in the CSF exfoliates as discrete round cells that are large, with nuclei approximately 2-3 red blood cells in diameter
  • Nuclei may be round, indented, or have irregular borders
  • chromatin is finely granular
  • Nucleoli are prominent
  • Mitotic figures are common

(Burton)

276
Q

Canine CSF

A

Histiocytic sarcoma

  • Large cells, marked atypia
  • Nuclei vary from ovoid to ameboid
  • Multinucleation is common
  • Mitotic figures are common
  • Anisocytosis/anisokaryosis are marked
  • N/C ratios variable
  • Frequently accompanied by mixed inflammatory response
  • Immunocytochemical stains may be required for definitive diagnosis

(Burton)

277
Q

Canine CSF

A

Choroid plexus carcinoma

  • May be seen in CSF as cohesive sheets (often palisading rows)
  • Individualized cells that are round with moderate volume of mid-blue cytoplasm
  • Round eccentrically placed nuclei
  • Granular chromatin
  • Prominent nucleoli
  • CP carcinomas - higher CSF protein than papilloma

(Burton)

278
Q

Canine spinal cord tumor

A

Nerve sheath tumor

  • Samples are variably exfoliative, cells seen individually and in aggregates that may be associated with a bright-pink extracellular matrix
  • Cells are spindloid and plump with a moderate volume of medium-blue cytoplasm
    • Forms tendrils and wisps
    • May contain clear vacuoles
  • Nuclei are ovoid
  • Coarsely granular chromatin and prominent nucleoli
  • Anisocytosis/anisokaryosis are mild to moderate
  • NC ratios are moderate to high
  • Can be difficult to differentiate from meningiomas
    • Presence of long cytoplasmic wisps is more suggestive of nerve sheath tumors
  • Includes Schwannomas, neurofibromas, neurofibrosarcomas

(Burton)

279
Q

Neurobiologic changes in normal dogs and cats, and in patients with cognitive dysfunction:

A
  1. Cerebral cortical atrophy - begins in frontal lobes
    1. More severe in dogs than cats
  2. Neuron loss, decreased neurogenesis
  3. Accumulation of beta-amyloid (Aß) in the form of diffuse senile plaques in dogs and cats, and as toxic oligomers in dogs
    1. Amyloid load correlates with clinical signs of cognitive dysfunction in dogs
  4. Hyperphosphorylation of tau protein in the brain –> becomes insoluble and filamentous (Tau pathology) - does NOT forn NFT
  5. Accumulation of end-products of oxidative damage to proteins, lipids, nucleotides
  6. Vascular and circulatory abnormalities
    • Deposition of Abeta in associated with blood vessels (cerebrovascular amyloid angiopathy) -
    • Dogs
      • Thickening, fibrosis and hyalinosis of small arteries; calcification of tunica externa of blood vessels
      • Microhemorrhages and infarcts
    • ​Cats
      • Hypertension, anemia, altered blood viscosity –> compromised blood flow and hypoxia to the brain
  7. ​Dogs
    • ​White matter demyelination and degeneration
    • Gliosis (astrocytosis)
    • Meningeal calcification
    • Mitochondrial dysfunction
    • Caspase activation
    • DNA fragmentation
    • Inflammation
    • Spheroids in cerebral white matter
    • Accumulation of polyglucosan bodies

(Mai)

280
Q

Canine ventral funiculus

A

Degenerative myelopathy

“This is a longitudinal microscopic section showing a chain of ellipsoids reflecting secondary demyelination and containing axonal fragments”

de Lahunta

281
Q

Young afghan hound

A

A microscopic section of the C8 spinal cord segment from a young Afghan hound with myelinolysis.

Note the sparing of the fasciculus proprius and the nerve roots.

(de Lahunta)

“A microscopic section of a midthoracic spinal cord segment of the same Afghan hound with myelinolysis in Fig. 10.27 . Note the bilateral symmetry of the lesion”

282
Q

5m Doberman Pinscher C4

A

“Note the normal space around the spinal cord as compared with that in Fig. 10.43. The discoloration of the dorsal funiculi represents the wallerian degeneration of these cranial projecting pathways, which were disrupted by the compression at the level of the C5 spinal cord segment”

(de Lahunta)

283
Q

Great dane puppies

A

“Cranial surface of the disarticulated fifth cervical vertebrae from two great dane puppies who were littermates. Number 17 (left) came from a puppy that was allowed to eat ad lib, whereas Number 16 (right) came from a puppy that was fed 25% less than Number 17. Note the failure of bone resorption around the cranial orifice of the vertebra in the puppy fed ad lib.”

(de Lahunta)

284
Q

Cat brain

A

at the level of the confluence of the cerebellar peduncles. Note the abnormal basophilic staining associated with the choroid plexus on the left and associated with the parenchyma adjacent to the fourth ventricle on the right of the image. Infection with the feline infectious peritonitis virus caused this choroid plexitis, ependymitis, and associated periventricular encephalitis

(de Lahunta)

285
Q

What kind of neuropathy is dancing doberman disease?

A

Distal sensorimotor autonomic neuropathy

  • Onset 6m - 7y
  • Suspected autosomal recessive
  • Flexion of one PL progressing to opposite limb and flexion of both –> preference to sit. Progresses to tetraparesis
    • Atrophy in gastroc muscle most severe
  • Electrophysiology - most severe changes in gastroc muscle
  • Pathology - axonal necrosis and degenerative changes in mixed, sensory, and sympathetic nerves
    • Some demyelination
    • Myopathic changes

(VCNASAP Coates)

286
Q

What type of neuropathy is familial GSD neuropathy?

A

Distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy - Dying-back axonopathy

  • Older onset 9-10y
  • Familial inheritance
  • Clinical signs - paraparesis progressing to tetraparesis, PL atrophy, hyporeflexia, increased CK
  • Pathology - loss of myelinated fibers, thinly myelinated axons, axonal degeneration

(VCNASAP Coates)

287
Q

What type of neuropathy is distal symmetric polyneuropathy of great danes?

A

Distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy - dying-back peripheral axonopathy

  • Onset 1.5 - 5y old, acutely progressive over 4 weeks
  • Unknown inheritance
  • Clinical signs - paraparesis progressing to tetraparesis, atrophy of masticatory muscles and distal limb muscles
  • EMG - denervation in distal limb muscles
  • Pathology - myelinated nerve fiber degeneration and loss in distal limbs and laryngeal nerves
    • Distal axon degeneration - worse in large diameter myelinated fibers

(VCNASAP Coates)

288
Q

What kind of neuropathy is laryngeal paralysis of Bouvier des flandres?

A

Distal sensorimotor neuropathy - distal axonopathy

  • Onset 4-6 mos old
  • Autosomal DOMINANT
  • Clinical signs - inspiratory distress, laryngeal paralysis, unilateral or bilateral dysphonia
  • Pathology - axonal degeneration secondary to changes in nucleus ambiguus
  • Electrophysiology - spontaneous activity of intrinsic laryngeal muscles only

(VCNASAP Coates)

289
Q

Inherited laryngeal paralysis in young lg breed dogs - what kind of neuropathy is responsible?

A

Distal sensorimotor neuropathy - distal axonopathy

  • Onset 4-6 mos
  • Breeds: Siberian husky, husky-cross breeds, Bull terrier, Leonberger, White GSD
  • Unknown inheritance
  • Clinical signs - typical for lar par
  • Pathology - axonal degeneration, gliosis in the vagal nuclei

(VCNASAP Coates)

290
Q

What kind of neuropathy is laryngeal paralysis polyneuropathy complex in young lg breed dogs?

A

Distal sensorimotor neuropathy - dying back distal axonopathy

  • Dalmation, Rottweiler, Pyrenean Mountain Dog
  • Onset 2-6 mos
  • Unknown inheritance
  • Clinical signs - laryngeal paralysis, megaesophagus, atrophy of laryngeal and appendicular muscles
  • Pathology - loss of myelinated and unmyelinated fibers in motor, sensory and autonomic nerves
    • Axonal necrosis
    • Preferential loss of medium and large fibers
  • Electrodiag - spontaneous activity in laryngeal and distal appendicular muscles
    • MNCV normal or mildly slow
    • Motor evoked potentials - reduction in amplitude suggesting axonal loss

(VCNASAP Coates)

291
Q

What type of neuropathy is inherited polyneuropathy in Leonberger dogs?

A

Distal sensorimotor neuropathy - distal polyneuropathy

  • Onset 1-3 y old
  • Suspected x-linked inheritance
  • Clinical signs - distal muscle atrophy, reduced flexion of distal joints, hyporeflexia, laryngeal paralysis. Can progress to tetraplegia
  • EMG - spontaneous activity with multifocal distribution
    • Slow/absent MNCV and low amplitudes (worst tibial nerve)
  • Pathology - marked to moderate loss of myelinated nerve fibers + endoneurial fibrosis; decrease in myelination, evidence of remyelination

(VCNASAP Coates)

292
Q

Pathologic changes associated with Rottweiler distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy?

A

Distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy - dying back

  • Pathology - loss of myelinated lg diameter fibers
    • Axonal necrosis
    • Loss of neurofilaments in sensory and motor peripheral nerves
    • All worse in distal nerves
  • Electrophys - spontaneous activity distal to the stifle and elbow
    • MNCV and SNCV reduced in some dogs
  • Onset 1.5 - 4y old
  • Unknown inheritance
  • Slowly progressive paraparesis to tetraparesis, hyporeflexia, distal appendicular atrophy
    • Acute/chronic signs with relapses
      • Variable response to corticosteroids - autoimmune cause?

(VCNASAP Coates)

293
Q

What breed gets a congenital hypomyelination neuropathy?

A

Golden retrievers

  • Onset 7 weeks old
  • Unknown inheritance
  • Clinical signs - bunny hopping gait, crouched PL gait, hyporeflexia
  • Pathology - reduction of myelinated axons, myelinated sheaths are thin with poor myelin density
    • Muscle lesions minimal
    • Evidence of demyelination and remyelination
  • Different from other hypomyelination in that PNS is more affected than CNS
  • Electrophys - spontaneous activity in limb muscles
    • MNCV - markedly decreased
  • Dogs remained static for 2 years

(VCNASAP Coates)

294
Q

What breed gets a hypertrophic neuropathy?

A

Tibetan mastiff

  • Onset 7-10 weeks
  • Considered a myelin-associated neuropathy with a Schwann cell defect
  • Autosomal recessive inheritance
  • Clinical signs - generalized weakness, hypotonia, dysphonia, recumbency
  • Pathology - reduced density of myelinated fibers in PNS, widespread demyelination, little axonal degeneration, accumulation of Schwann cell filaments
  • Electrophysiology - support demyelination/denervation
    • EMG - spontaneous activity
    • MNCV and SNCVs were slow

(VCNASAP Coates)

295
Q

What nerve changes are associated with laminin alpha2-deficient muscular dystrophy in domestic short-haired and siamese cats?

A

Myelin-associated polyneuropathy due to lack of laminin alpha2 in Schwann cell basement membrane

  • Onset 6-12 mos
  • Unknown inheritance
  • Clinical signs: paraparesis progressing to tetraparesis, trismus, severe extensor contracture, muscle atrophy
    • CK markedly elevated
    • No cardiac dysfunction
  • Pathology - dystrophic changes in all muscles, nerve changes - thinly myelinated or demyelinated axons
    • Vacuoles present in Schwann cells and disintegration of Schwann cells
    • Marked endomysial fibrosis
  • MNCV slow in distal segment

(VCNASAP Coates)

296
Q

What type of neuropathy is Birman cat distal polyneuropathy?

A

Central-peripheral distal axonopathy

  • Birman cat onset 8-10 weeks
  • Clinical signs - hypermetria, frequent calling, plantigrade stance PL > TL
  • Pathology - CNS shows loss of myelinated fibers and astrocytosis
    • PNS - degenerating nerve fibers with myelin fibers and disrupted axons
    • Selective loss of distal parts of the CNS and PNS
  • Electrophysiology - spontaneous activity in PL muscles
    • MNCV - normal

(VCNASAP Coates)

297
Q

What type of neuropathy is progressive axonopathy in Boxers

A

Central peripheral distal axonopathy. Neuroaxonal dystrophy - spheroids

  • Onset @ 2 mos in Boxers, suspected autosomal recessive
    • Progresses 12-18 mos, then static
  • Clinical signs - progressive ataxia and paresis in PL, progressing to TL, absent proprioception and reflexes, minimal muscle atrophy, mild cerebellar signs
  • Pathology - myelin changes in nerve roots and axonal degeneration/regeneration in distal nerves
    • Changes in the ventral and lateral funiculi of spinal cord
    • Axonal swellings and neurofilament accumulations
    • Spheroids
    • Multiple lesions in brainstem nuclei
  • EMG - normal
  • MNCV slowed, absent SNCVs
    • Amplitude of evoked potentials reduced, duration is increased
    • F wave latency increased
    • Indicates a reduction in fiber diameter and demyelination

(VCNASAP Coates)

298
Q

What kind of neuropathy is sensory neuropathy in long-haired dachshunds

A

Distal central-peripheral axonopathy

  • Onset 8-12 weeks
  • Breed-related inheritance
  • Clinical signs - mild ataxia, loss of proprioception (PL > TL), generalized loss of pain sensation, dribbling urine, generalized self-mutilation
  • Pathology - changes in distal sensory nerves include lg myelinated nerve fiber loss, axonal degeneration, increased numbers of neurotubules,
    • CNS - degeneration of fasiculus gracilis
  • Electrophysiology - normal EMG, NMCV
    • SNAP cannot be elicited

(VCNASAP Coates)

299
Q

What is the underlying mechanism for sensory neuropathy in English pointer and short-haired pointer?

A

Loss of substance P - CNS and PNS sensory neuropathy

  • Onset 3-8 mos
  • Suspected autosomal recessive inheritance
  • Clinical features - nociceptive loss in distal limbs, acral changes of paws, self mutilation
    • The rest of neuro exam is normal
  • Pathology - Changes in sensory neurons include reduced numbers of cell bodies in ganglia, degeneration of small myelinated and unmyelinated fibers in dorsal roots and peripheral nerves
    • Fiber reduction in dorsolateral fasiculus
  • Electrodiagnostics - normal

(VCNASAP Coates)

300
Q

Pathologic findings in sensory neuropathy of JRT?

A

Loss of myelinated axons, epineurial and endoneurial fibrosis

  • Considered a PNS sensory neuropathy
  • Onset 6y old
  • Unknown inheritance

(VCNASAP Coates)

301
Q

Norwegian forest cat with generalized muscle tremors, bunny-hopping gait, severe muscle atrophy, contracture and hyporeflexia likely has?

A

Glycogenosis type IV

  • Onset 5 mos
  • Autosomal recessive inheritance
  • Pathology - abnormal accumulation of glycogen in CNS + PNS
    • loss of axons and myelin in peripheral nerves
    • Extensive storage in CNS
  • Caused by deficiency of glycogen-branching enzyme

(VCNASAP Coates)

302
Q

Nerve biopsy

A

2year old male Leonberger dog with inherited polyneuropathy. Note the depletion of large myelinated nerve fibers and endoneurial fibrosis

Toluidene blue stain

(VCNASAP Coates)

303
Q

What neuropathy causes this?

A

Sensory neuropathy in English Pointer and Short-Haired Pointer

Absence of substance P

Loss of small myelinated and unmyelinated nociceptive fibers

(VCNASAP Coates)

304
Q

Feline muscle biopsy

A

Histopathology of a muscle biopsy specimen from a Norwegian Forest cat with type IV glycogenosis showing the presence of macrophages with stored material in cells of skeletal muscle and in surrounding connective tissue.

Myofiber necrosis also is evident (hematoxylin-eosin stain).

(VCNASAP Coates)

305
Q

Feline panleukopenia virus:

  • What cells are infected?
  • Where are lesions seen besides the cerebellum?
  • How is severity of clinical signs and extent of cerebellar lesions correlated?
A

Feline panleukopenia - infects external germinal layer of the cerebellum -> prevents formation of the granular layer = granuloprival hypoplasia

  • External germinal layer is actively dividing at birth and for the first 2 weeks postnatally
  • Microscopically - lack of granular layer, lack of organization of the Purkinje neurons
    • Purkinje neurons are lost secondary to inflammation/degeneration

Small/absent cerebellum –> reduction in transverse fibers in the pons and pontine nuclei

The severity of clinical signs and extent of cerebellar lesions are not correlated

(de Lahunta)

306
Q

Cerebellum. What is the pathology?

A

Cerebellar atrophy

Note the marked absence of both the Purkinje neurons and the granule cell neurons in the cortex on both sides of the folial white lamina in the center

Will also see degeneration in the pontine nuclei, olivary nuclei, caudate and substantia nigra

(de Lahunta)

307
Q

Calf brain

A

2 week old calf with cerebellar hypoplasia and atrophy caused by in utero infection with bovine viral diarrhea virus

Note the severe lack of cerebellar tissue and its asymmetry

(de Lahunta)

308
Q

Cerebellum 7m Portugese water dog

A

GM1 gangliosidosis

Note the swelling of the cytoplasm caused by the accumulation of GM1 ganglioside substrate

(de Lahunta)

309
Q

Dog brain

A

Chronic cerebrocortical necrosis post anesthetic hypoxia

“Higher magnification of a microscopic section of the neocortex of two adjacent occipital lobe gyri from a dog with a history similar to that of the boxer dog in Fig. 14.77. Note that the central laminae are most at risk after hypoxia”

The caudal colliculi are also very susceptible

(de Lahunta0

310
Q

Feline nerve biopsy w/

  • Demyelination - usually paranodal
  • Endoneurial infiltrates of mononuclear cells, lymphocytes, rare plasma cells and macrophages

Most consistent with?

A

Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy

  • Chronic slowly progressive, relapsing polyneuropathy with insidious onset described in cats
  • ANimals 1-14 years of age, no breed/sed predilection
  • Clinical signs in PL first, then TL
  • Sensory perception appeared normal
  • +/- CN involvement
  • MNCV slow w/ temporal dispersion and reduced CMAP
    • Mild EMG abnormalities and histochemical findings on muscle biopsy samples - suggests axonal involvement
  • Most cats initially clinically responsive to corticosteroid treatment to varying degrees, with several cats having relapsing clinical episodes

(VCNASAP Dickinson)

311
Q

What breed is reported to develop spongy degeneration of the cerebellar nuclei?

A

Malinois

Clinical signs arise 4-7 weks of age - cerebellar ataxia

MRI/CT normal

Histopath - severe bilaterally symmetrical vacuolization of the neuropil of the cerebellar nuclei, lesser extent vacuolization of the cerebellar granular layer and white matter of the folia
Additional vacuoles of the brainstem nuclei + white matter of the brainstem and spinal cord

(Dewey)